Physical Therapy, Rehab, and Alternative Medical Nursing Flashcards

1
Q

a group of diverse medical and health care systems, practices, and products that are not presently considered part of conventional medicine

A

Complementary and Alternative Medicine (CAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

used in conjunction with conventional medicine

A

Complementary medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

used instead of conventional medicine

A

Alternative medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

food and nutritive substances with medicinal effects

A

Nutraceuticals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

oral or injectable medications that can help maintain the health of cartilage cushions

A

Chondroprotectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the practice of using plant materials to treat patients and includes flowers, stems, leaves, bark, seeds, and roots

A

Herbal Medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a combination of two or more single herbs that work synergistically to create a therapeutic effect

A

Herbal formula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 branches of herbal medicine?

A
  1. Chinese
  2. Western
  3. Ayurvedic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most commonly used branch of herbal medicine in vet med

A

Chinese herbal medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is it important to educate clients on proper use and side effects of herbal medicine?

A

Clients often equate herbs with complete safety BUT some herbs have a low margin of safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why are herbs generally less toxic than chemically formulated drugs?

A

Therapeutic substances in herbs are not as concentrated as chemically formulated drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most commonly used herb preparation for herbivores

A

Chopped/Powdered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most commonly used herb preparation for carnivores

A

Capsules/Tablets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Extracts are made by concentrating the herb in _____ or _____.

A

alcohol or glycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Herbal extracts are measured based on the specific amount of _____ rather than _____.

A

Measured based on the specific amount of the active ingredient rather than the herb itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Made by soaking the herb or extract in hot water then allowed to cool

A

Poultices/Compresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

information about the medicinal use of herbs similar to a drug formulary

A

Materia Medica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the insertion of very thin needles through the skin at specific points and depths on the body

A

Acupuncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most acupuncture points are located in areas of skin with _____ or ______.

A

decreased electrical resistance or increased electrical conductivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

the acupuncture points located in areas where nerves enter muscles and produce a maximal contraction with minimal intensity of electrical stimulation

A

Type I Points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the acupuncture points located on the superficial nerves in the sagittal plane on the dorsal and ventral midlines

A

Type II Points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the acupuncture points located at high-density loci of superficial nerves and nerve plexuses

A

Type III Points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the acupuncture points located at the muscle-tendon junctions where the Golgi tendon organs are located

A

Type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

applying firm digital pressure to an acupuncture point for a specific length of time

A

Acupressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the insertion of a sterile filiform needle into an acupuncture point for 15-30 minutes to elicit a response

A

Dry Needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

the insertion of a sterile filiform needle into an acupuncture point and applying an electrical current to the needles to increase the therapeutic response

A

Electro-Acupuncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

electro-acupuncture that predominantly stimulates A-delta fibers and releases beta-endorphins and met-enkephalins

A

Low Frequency Electro-Acupuncture (1-40 Hz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

electro-acupuncture that predominantly stimulates C-fibers and releases dynorphins

A

High Frequency Electro-Acupuncture (80-120 Hz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

electro-acupuncture that predominantly stimulates serotonergic fibers and releases serotonin and epinephrine

A

Very High Frequency Electro-Acupuncture (200 Hz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

the injection of a sterile liquid (such as saline, vitamin B12, lidocaine, and Adequan) into an acupuncture point and causes constant stimulation of the point for an extended period

A

Aqua-Acupuncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

the rolling of Artemisia vulgaris into a cigar shape and burning it just above the acupuncture point without touching the skin

A

Moxibustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the injection of sterile pieces of a gold bead or wire into acupuncture points for permanent implantation and long-term stimulation for chronic conditions

A

Gold Implantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

the injection of air under the skin in the subcutaneous space to produce pressure by air and stimulate the acupuncture points, nerves, and muscles

A

Pneumo-Acupuncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pneumo-Acupuncture is only used for ______.

A

Muscle atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

the insertion of a hypodermic needle into the acupuncture point that is located on a blood vessel to draw blood and release heat, toxins, and fever

A

Hemo-Acupuncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

the use of a low-level laser therapy to emit light to penetrate the tissues and stimulate acupuncture points

A

Laser Acupuncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

a therapy used to manually restore reduced motion in the spine and limbs, thereby improving patient mobility, comfort, and nervous system function

A

Veterinary Spinal Manipulative Therapy (VSMT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

the abnormal relationship between two adjacent vertebrae and is marked by altered mobility, pain on palpation, and abnormal tension in the surrounding paraspinal muscles

A

Subluxation/Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

refers to physical aspects of a disability or disorder

A

Physical Therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

the relief of pain and restoration of mobility and function

A

Rehabilitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A rehabilitation exam includes
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Gait analysis
  2. Goniometry
  3. Muscle mass measurement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

the portion of a rehabilitation exam that determines lameness subjectively by watching the patient walk/trot or objectively by force plate analysis/pressure mat analysis

A

Gait Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

the portion of a rehabilitation exam that determines range of motion in all distal joints

A

Gonimetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

a device used to measure range of motion, both extension and flexion

A

Goniometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

a device used to measure muscle mass, specifically on limbs to determine muscle atrophy and around the abdomen to determine weight loss

A

Gulick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Phases of tissue healing:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Inflammatory Phase
  2. Reparative Phase
  3. Remodeling Phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

the phase of tissue healing in which a fibrous plug (hematoma) is formed, chemotaxis is then initiated, and neutrophils appear to minimize infection

A

Inflammatory Phase (3-5 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

the phase of tissue healing in which an influx of fibroblasts prepares the cell matrix to increase tensile strength

A

Reparative Phase (2 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

the phase of tissue healing in which the collagen fibers create cross-link patterns to maintain stable scar tissue formation

A

Remodeling Phase (1 year)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the types of bone healing?

A
  1. Primary Healing (Direct Bone Healing)
  2. Secondary Healing (Indirect Bone Healing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

occurs when there is direct formation of bone across the fracture line, reabsorption cavities form through Haversian canals and osteoblasts move through this canal to prepare to lay down new bone formation

A

Primary Healing (Direct Bone Healing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

occurs when there is a large gap formation between bone fragments and a callus is formed

A

Secondary Healing (Indirect Bone Healing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

_______ indicates the amount of instability at a fracture site

A

Callus size

54
Q

states that bone will be remodeled according to the appropriate stress forces applied and reabsorbed where no force is delivered

A

Wolfs’ Law

55
Q

Controlled passive movement is allowed at _____ after tendon injury to allow proper alignment of collagen fibers

56
Q

What is the goal of tendon healing?

A

Minimize adhesion formation to facilitate return to max function

57
Q

____ and ____ dictates exercise therapy intensity level and duration.

A

Patient’s strength and pain level

58
Q

What is a good rule of thumb for exercise based therapy?

A

Start conservatively so patient does not have initial setback

59
Q

_____ exercises help the patient develop better body awareness

A

Proprioception

60
Q

Adding ____ to endurance exercises can make them more weight bearing

A

hills/stairs/incline/decline

61
Q

Incline endurance exercises aid ______ limb disease.

Decline endurance exercises aid ______ limb disease.

A

pelvic
thoracic

62
Q

Neuromuscular re-education exercises involve _____ and ______ corrections

A

posture and gait

63
Q

the use of water to promote physical activity by taking advantage of temperature, buoyancy, and pressure

A

Hydrotherapy

64
Q

Swimming helps strengthen ____ because _____

A

thoracic limbs because they use stronger thoracic limb strokes

65
Q

teaching the body to act in a certain way without conscious thought

A

Patterning

66
Q

Max strengthening occurs when the water level is at the _____.

67
Q

Why are land treadmill benefits maximized when set to uphill or downhill?

A

The belt movement reduces the body’s needle for self-propulsion

68
Q

systematic and scientific manipulation of the soft tissues of the body for the purpose of obtaining or maintaining health

69
Q

the type of massage that uses finger pressure at specific points in the body to promote circulation and stimulate the nervous system

A

Shiatsu Massage

70
Q

the type of massage in which a therapist feels for taut bands or knots that have a point of maximal tenderness and then applies ischemic compression for 8-15 seconds to relieve the tension

A

Myotherapy (Trigger-Point Massage)

71
Q

a tension release technique in which direct pressure is applied over a trigger point to push the blood out of the tissue, the pressure is then released to allow blood to quickly infiltrate the tissue

A

Ischemic Compression

72
Q

characterized as having a restriction of blood supply to tissue, a muscle group, or an organ

73
Q

characterized as having an excess of blood in the vessels supplying tissue, a muscle group, or an organ

74
Q

a type of sports massage meant to assist with competition performance

A

Event Sports Massage

75
Q

a type of sports massage meant to get the animal relaxed and ready to compete

76
Q

a type of sports massage meant to keep the patient tuned up and ready for the next competition

A

Interevent

77
Q

a type of sports massage meant to flush out metabolic waste and reduces muscle spasms and soreness

A

Post-event

78
Q

a type of sports massage meant to prevent injury and expedite the healing of injured tissue

A

Maintenance Sports Massage

79
Q

the type of massage that focuses on the body’s superficial layers and is relatively gentle

80
Q

the massage technique involving a gliding stroke that follows the contour of the body in the direction of the hair to evaluate tissue and enhance blood flow

A

Effleurage

81
Q

the massage technique involving rhythmic lifting, squeezing, and releasing of tissue to help remove metabolic waste and promote circulation by forming a “C” shape with the hand

A

Petrissage

82
Q

the massage technique involving the manipulation of tissue over tendons and trigger points to break up scar tissue and skin adhesions

83
Q

the massage technique involving a tapping motion of the hands or fingers to stimulate nerve endings or achieve a more sedative effect

A

Tapotement

84
Q

the massage technique involving a rapid shaking or slower rocking of the tissue to relax muscles, reduce trigger-point activity, and mobilize a joint when used over a joint capsule

85
Q

Massage duration:
Small animal = _____
Large animal = _____

A

Small animal = 30 min
Large animal = 60 min

86
Q

the arrangement of massage strokes

87
Q

the use of stretching to prevent loss of normal ROM, return normal ROM if absent, increase cartilage nutrition in the joint, and stimulate cartilage regeneration

A

Passive Range of Motion (PROM)

88
Q

If joint is stationary > _____ is not circulated > less ____ available for ____.

A

If joint is stationary > joint fluid is not circulated > less nutrition available for chondrocytes

89
Q

Rules of PROM:
If the patient is lying in lateral recumbency > keep the worked limb _______ to prevent _______.

A

If the patient is lying in lateral recumbency, keep the worked limb parallel to the ground to prevent torquing of joints

90
Q

Rules of PROM:
Hold the joints flexed for ____ > hold it in extension for ____ > repeat ____.

A

Hold the joints flexed for 10-20 seconds > hold it in extension for 10-20 seconds > repeat 3-10 times

91
Q

the application of electrical current to elicit a muscle contraction and thus rehabilitate muscle strength

A

Neuromuscular Stimulation (NMES)

92
Q

small-diameter, slow twitch, fatigue-resistant muscle fibers

A

Type I Muscle Fibers

93
Q

large-diameter, fast twitch, easily-fatigued muscle fibers

A

Type II Muscle Fibers

94
Q

How does NMES therapy work?

A

Continued NMES therapy > properties of type II muscle fibers begin to resemble properties of type I > muscle fatiguability decreases

95
Q

NMES pads are placed over:
1.
2.

A
  1. the motor point of the muscle (where nerve enters the muscle)
  2. a distal point on the muscle (proximal to the musculotendinous junction)
96
Q

the time to a full muscle contraction

97
Q

Frequency is measured in ___

98
Q

Pulse duration is measured in ______.

A

microseconds

99
Q

the use of electric current to stimulate the nerves to release endogenous opioids, and thus relieve pain and muscle spasm

A

Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)

100
Q

light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

101
Q

the stimulation of tissue with light to decrease pain, decrease inflammation, and improve wound healing

A

Low-Level Laser Therapy (LLLT)

102
Q

rate at which the laser’s energy is emitted over time

103
Q

Power is measured in ___ or ____.

A

watts (W) or milliwatts (mW)

104
Q

determines the depth of penetration to the targeted tissue in which chromophores will absorb the laser’s light

A

Wavelength

105
Q

Wavelength is measured in _____.

A

nanometers (nm)

106
Q

LLLT Wavelengths:
Superficial tissue = ____ to ____ nm
Deeper tissue = ____ to ____ nm

A

Superficial Tissue = 600-700 nm
Deeper Tissue = 780-950 nm

107
Q

the amount of energy being emitted per surface area

A

Energy Density (Dose of Light)

108
Q

Energy Density (Dose of Light) is measured in ______.

A

joules ( J )

109
Q

the condition characterized as the wearing down of cartilage over time in a joint

A

Degenerative Joint Disease (osteoarthritis)

110
Q

the condition characterized as the degeneration of the discs that separate the bones of the spine

A

Intervertebral Disc Disease

111
Q

inflammation of the mucosal lining of any structure in the oral cavity and may involve the gums, tongue, inner surfaces of the lips and pharynx

A

Stomatitis

112
Q

inflammation of the gums

A

Gingivitis

113
Q

inflammation of the bladder wall

114
Q

the use of sound waves to treat tissue

A

Therapeutic Ultrasonography

115
Q

a limitation in the passive range of motion of a joint

A

Joint Contracture

116
Q

Therapeutic ultrasonography is determined by ____ and _____.

A

bone proximity and bone thickness

117
Q

Therapeutic Ultrasonography Frequency:
Superficial tissues = _____ MH
Deeper tissues = ____ MH

A

Superficial = 3 MH (1-2 cm deep)
Deeper = 1 MH (4-5 cm deep)

118
Q

the variable that determines whether thermal or nonthermal effects will be seen from therapeutic ultrasonography treatment

119
Q

the fraction of time that the sound wave is emitted during a pulse period

A

Duty Cycle

120
Q

the duty cycle mode used in therapeutic ultrasonography that causes unstable cavitations, which can be destructive to tissue but beneficial for scar tissue

A

Continuous Mode

121
Q

occurs when the gas bubbles within tissues collapse due to the excessive ultrasonographic energy build up

A

Unstable Cavitation

122
Q

the duty cycle mode used in therapeutic ultrasonography used to enhance healing and eliminate swelling

A

Pulse Mode

123
Q

The ultrasound “sound head” must be continuously moved to avoid burns on _____, _____, or _____.

A

tissue, muscle, or periosteum

124
Q

a high-energy, focused sound wave that delivers energy to a specific focal point in the body

A

Extracorporeal Shockwave

125
Q

Patients must be sedated for _____ therapy.

A

extracorporeal shockwave

126
Q

the application of cold to the body to decrease pain and inflammation by causing vasoconstriction, slowing nerve conduction and decreasing enzyme activity

A

Cryotherapy

127
Q

Cryotherapy works by
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Vasoconstriction
  2. Slowing nerve conduction
  3. Decreasing enzyme activity
128
Q

the application of heat to the body to reduce pain by increasing circulation, increasing muscle contractility, increasing the ability of collagen to stretch, and decreasing pain

A

Thermotherapy

129
Q

Thermal therapy should not be used over areas that _________ because it may cause ____.

A

do not have appropriate sensation or perfusion > tissue damage

130
Q

a device used when a patient requires rigid support, needs support in a joint that is not commonly braced, or needs to protect/limit ROM

131
Q

a device used to replace a part of the limb that is missing or requires amputation

A

Prosthetics