Fluid Therapy and Transfusion Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Developing and implementing an appropriate fluid therapy plan includes what 6 things?

A
  1. Understand body fluid compartments
  2. Understand characteristics of different fluid types
  3. Consider rates of admin
  4. Consider route of admin
  5. Monitor effectiveness of achieving fluid therapy goals
  6. Recognize possible complications
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2
Q

Give some indications for fluid therapy

A
  1. Maintaining hydration
  2. Replacing fluid deficit (dehydration)
  3. Replacing ongoing losses
  4. Treating decreased oncotic pressure
  5. Treating hypovolemia
  6. Treating shock states
  7. Improving/increasing urine production
  8. Correcting acid-base balance or electrolyte disorders
  9. Maintaining IV access + delivering other medications
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3
Q

TBW

A

total body water

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4
Q

TBW is spread across ____ and ____ spaces. These spaces are separated by _____.

A

Intracellular fluid spaces
Extracellular fluid spaces
Cell membranes

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5
Q

ICF makes up __/__ of TBW

A

Intracellular fluid makes up 2/3 of total body water

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6
Q

ECF makes up __/__ of TBW

A

Extracellular fluid makes up 1/3 of total body water

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7
Q

ECF is spread across ____ and ____ spaces. These spaces are separated by _____.

A

Interstitial fluid spaces
Intravascular fluid spaces
Vascular endothelium + glycocalyx

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8
Q

ICF

A

intracellular fluid

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9
Q

ECF

A

extracellular fluid

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10
Q

ISF

A

interstitial fluid

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11
Q

IVF

A

intravascular fluid

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12
Q

ISF makes up __/__ of ECF

A

Interstitial fluid makes up 3/4 of extracellular fluid

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13
Q

IVF makes up __/__ of ECF

A

Intravascular fluid makes up 1/4 of extracellular fluid

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14
Q

Circulating blood volume:
Canines = ____ mL/kg

A

80-90 mL/kg

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15
Q

Circulating blood volume:
Felines = ____ mL/kg

A

40-60 mL/kg

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16
Q

Circulating blood volume:
Equines = ____ mL/kg

A

80 mL/kg

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17
Q

____ can move across all barriers based on concentration gradient

A

Water

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18
Q

_____ can move across the vascular endothelium freely but cannot move across the cell membrane without active transport

A

Electrolytes

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19
Q

When administering an electrolyte solution, ____ will remain in the vascular space and ____ will move into the interstitial space.

A

1/4 remains in vascular space
3/4 moves into interstitial space

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20
Q

_____ cannot readily move across the vascular endothelium and are relatively confined to the vascular space

A

Colloids

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21
Q

Administering colloids increases the _______ which causes fluid to move from the _____ space to the _____ space.

A

increases oncotic pressure of blood
moves fluid from ISF space to IVF space

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22
Q

a type of osmotic pressure that causes fluid to pull back into the capillary

A

Oncotic Pressure

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23
Q

electrolytes dissolved in water

A

Crystalloids

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24
Q

Can be used as transient fluid volume expanders

A

Crystalloid solutions

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25
Q

Why can crystalloid solutions be used as transient fluid volume expanders?

A

Electrolytes easily redistribute across the endothelium

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26
Q

crystalloid solutions that have an osmolality less than that of blood and provide water in greater proportion than electrolytes

A

Hypotonic Crystalloids

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27
Q

Hypotonic crystalloids cause a fluid shift from the ____ space to the ____ space > thus increasing _____ space volume.

A

from IVF to ISF > increase ISF volume

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28
Q

a condition characterized as having high blood sodium and free water loss

A

Hypernatremia

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29
Q

________ can be used to replace free water deficits or maintain hydration in patients with heart disease and kidney disease. Why?

A

Hypotonic Crystalloids > because these patients have a decreased tolerance for sodium

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30
Q

_______ can be used to treat hypernatremia

A

Hypotonic crystalloid

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31
Q

Why should hypotonic crystalloids NOT be used in fluid resuscitation?

A

Ineffective for expanding vascular volume

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32
Q

Give 4 examples of hypotonic crystalloid solutions

A
  1. Dextrose 5% in water (D5W)
  2. 0.45% NaCl
  3. Normosol M
  4. Plasmalyte 56
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33
Q

D5W

A

Dextrose 5% in water

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34
Q

D5W is a _____ solution

A

hypotonic crystalloid

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35
Q

0.45% NaCl is a _____ solution

A

hypotonic crystalloid

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36
Q

Normosol M is a _____ solution

A

hypotonic crystalloid

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37
Q

Plasmalyte 56 is a _____ solution

A

hypotonic crystalloid

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38
Q

crystalloid solutions that have an osmolality equal to that of blood and provide water in equal proportion to electrolytes

A

Isotonic Crystalloids

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39
Q

most commonly used crystalloid solutions

A

isotonic crystalloids

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40
Q

Isotonic crystalloids expand fluid volume in ______

A

ICF space + ECF space equally

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41
Q

______ solution does not alter the osmolality of the IVF space

A

Isotonic crystalloid

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42
Q

______ can be used for shock resuscitation, rehydration, and replacement of ongoing water/electrolyte losses

A

Isotonic crystalloids

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43
Q

_____ can be used to neutralize the acid-base balance of blood

A

Isotonic crystalloid

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44
Q

_____ has acidifying effects on the blood due to ____.

A

NS
High chloride content

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45
Q

_____ has alkalinizing effects on the blood due to _____.

A

BES
Sodium bicarbonate precursors

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46
Q

Give 4 examples of isotonic crystalloid solutions

A
  1. 0.9% NaCl (NS)
  2. Normosol R
  3. Plasmalyte 148
  4. Lactated Ringer solution (LRS)
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47
Q

NS

A

Normal Saline

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48
Q

LRS

A

Lactated Ringer Solution

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49
Q

BES

A

Balanced Electrolyte Solution

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50
Q

0.9% NaCl is a _______ solution

A

isotonic crystalloid

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51
Q

Normosol R is a _______ solution

A

isotonic crystalloid

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52
Q

Plasmalyte 148 is a _______ solution

A

isotonic crystalloid

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53
Q

Balanced electrolyte solutions are ______ solutions.

A

isotonic crystalloids

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54
Q

crystalloids that have an osmolality greater than that of blood and provide electrolytes in greater proportion than water

A

Hypertonic Crystalloids

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55
Q

Hypertonic crystalloids cause a fluid shift from the _____ space to the _____ space > thus increasing ______ volume.

A

from ISF to IVF space > increases IVF volume

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56
Q

______ can be used to aid in fluid resuscitation

A

Hypertonic crystalloids

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57
Q

______ can be used to treat head trauma/traumatic brain injury because _____

A

Hypertonic crystalloids > helps draw fluid out of cerebral interstitium > decrease intracranial pressure + increase blood volume + increase BP

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58
Q

Do NOT admin hypertonic saline faster than ____ - ____ mL/kg/min

A

0.5 - 1 mL/kg/min

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59
Q

Give 3 examples of hypertonic crystalloid solutions

A
  1. 3% hypertonic NaCl
  2. 7% hypertonic NaCl
  3. 23% NaCl diluted to no greater than 7.5%
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60
Q

3% hypertonic NaCl is a _______ solution.

A

hypertonic crystalloid

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61
Q

7% hypertonic NaCl is a _______ solution.

A

hypertonic crystalloid

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62
Q

23% NaCl diluted to no greater than 7.5% is a _______ solution.

A

hypertonic crystalloid

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63
Q

large molecules suspended in an isotonic crystalloid

A

Colloids

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64
Q

Why can colloids be used as prolonged fluid volume expanders?

A

Glycocalyx prevents movement of large molecules from IVF space

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65
Q

What are the 2 types of colloids solutions and which is preferred for long-term infusions?

A
  1. Natural - preferred for long-term infusions
  2. Synthetic
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66
Q

Give 2 examples of colloids

A
  1. Plasma
  2. Albumin
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67
Q

Plasma is a ______ solution

A

colloid

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68
Q

Albumin is a ______ solution

A

colloid

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69
Q

______ can be used as oncotic support for patients with hypoproteinemia

A

Colloids

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70
Q

Why aren’t synthetic colloids typically used?

A

May cause coagulopathy

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71
Q

the measurement of the concentration of particles in a solution

A

Osmolality

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72
Q

Normal plasma osmolality = ____ to _____ mOsm/L

A

280 - 310 mOsm/L

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73
Q

What are the 3 phases of fluid therapy?

A
  1. Resuscitation Phase
  2. Replacement Phase
  3. Maintenance Phase
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74
Q

the phase of fluid therapy aimed at restoring vascular volume in an effort to reverse hypovolemia and/or a shock state

A

Resuscitation Phase

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75
Q

Solution(s) used during the resuscitation phase of fluid therapy:

A
  1. Hypertonic crystalloids
  2. Colloids
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76
Q

reflects the increase in vascular volume for each 1 mL administered

A

Efficiency

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77
Q

What is the benefit of mixed resuscitation?

A

Total dose of each fluid can be reduced > thus side effects are diminished

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78
Q

The amount of fluid administered during the resuscitation phase is determined by:
1.
2.

A
  1. Amount of vascular volume lost
  2. Relative efficiency with which fluid expands in IVF space
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79
Q

How is a shock dose administered?

A

A fraction of the shock dose is given over a short period of time > then patient response is monitored

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80
Q

Using the traditional approach, a _____ bolus is given over _____ minutes

A

larger bolus is given over 15-20 minutes

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81
Q

Using the restricted approach, a _____ bolus is given over _____ minutes

A

smaller bolus is given over 20-30 minutes

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82
Q

the phase of fluid therapy that involves correction of lost body fluids and electrolytes

A

Replacement Phase

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83
Q

Solution(s) used during the replacement phase of fluid therapy:

A

Isotonic crystalloid

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84
Q

Goal = to restore euhydration within _____ of initiating fluid therapy

A

24 hours

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85
Q

normal hydration

A

Euhydration

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86
Q

Replacement Fluid Rate = ___________

A

Replacement Fluid Rate = Dehydration + Ongoing Losses + Maintenance

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87
Q

Dehydration = ___________

A

Dehydration = Fluid Deficit [L] / Hours fluid will be administered

88
Q

Initial Bolus = ___________

A

Initial Bolus [mL] = Standard Bolus Rate for Species + Fluid [mL/kg] x BW [kg]

89
Q

Fluid Deficit = ____________

A

Fluid Deficit [L] = BW [kg] x Estimated % Dehydration [as decimal]

90
Q

dehydration in which there is minimal loss of skin turgor, mucous membranes are moderately dry, and the eyes are normal

A

Mild Dehydration (5%)

91
Q

dehydration in which there is moderate loss of skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, pulse is weak and rapid, and enophthalmos is observed

A

Moderate Dehydration (8%)

92
Q

dehydration in which there is significant loss of skin turgor, tachycardia, weak pulse and hypotension, considerable mucous membrane dryness, severe enophthalmos, and CNS effects

A

Severe Dehydration (10%)

93
Q

The length of time a fluid deficit is replaced depends on ______

A

Clinical situation

94
Q

Normal to minimal fluid loss is replaced over _____.

A

4-24 hours

95
Q

Chronic fluid loss is replaced over _____.

A

12-24 hours

96
Q

Ongoing Losses = _____________

A

Ongoing Losses [mL/hr] = Fluid loss over a period of time [mL] / # hours over which it occurred [hrs]

97
Q

Ongoing losses include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

A
  1. Vomiting
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Bleeding
  4. Panting
  5. Inappropriate urinary losses
98
Q

Why are linear calculations not as accurate when determining maintenance fluid rates?

A

Doesn’t take into account impact of body surface area-to-volume ratio on metabolic rate
Ex: Underestimates for small patients and Overestimates for large patients

99
Q

Allometric calculation for:
Canines = ________
Felines = ________

A

Canines = (132 x BW^(3/4)) / 24 hrs

Felines = (80 x BW^(3/4)) / 24 hrs

100
Q

Maintenance fluid rate for normal adult equines is ____ mL/kg/day.

A

40-60 mL/kg/day

101
Q

Maintenance fluid rate for normal neonatal equines is ____ mL/kg/day.

A

90 mL/kg/day

102
Q

the phase of fluid therapy after dehydration has been corrected and there are no more ongoing losses

A

Maintenance Phase

103
Q

Solution(s) used during the maintenance phase of fluid therapy:

A

Isotonic crystalloids
Hypotonic crystalloids

104
Q

Methods of IV fluid therapy administration:
1.
2.

A
  1. Gravity-Fed System
  2. Fluid Pump
105
Q

a device used to clamp just below the fluid bag in order to prevent any more than 150 mL of fluid being delivered unless it is refilled

A

Buretrol Device

106
Q

Drip rate is based on:
1.
2.

A
  1. Desired infusion rate
  2. Size/delivery rate of the drip set (# drops/mL)
107
Q

Calculate the drip rate for a prescribed infusion rate of 100 mL/hr with a drip set that has a delivery rate of 10 drops/mL

A

Drip Rate = 1 drop every 5 sec

100 mL/1 hr x 1 hr/60 min
100 mL/60 min = 1.66 mL/1 min
1.66 mL/1 min x 1 min/60 sec
1.66 mL/60 sec = 0.02 mL/1 sec
0.02 mL/1 sec x 10 drops/1 sec
0.2 drops/1 sec x 5/5
1 drop/5 sec

108
Q

IV fluid therapy is typically administered to large animals via a _______

A

Gravity-fed system

109
Q

a device that can be programmed to infuse a specific volume of fluid over a set amount of time, but maxes out at 1 liter per hour

A

Volumetric Pump

110
Q

a device that can be programmed to infuse fluids at very low rates, especially less than 2 mL per hour

A

Syringe Pump

111
Q

What are some clinical applications for SC administration of fluid therapy?

A
  1. Reverse mild to moderate dehydration
  2. Prevent development of dehydration in patients not eating/drinking
  3. Home fluid therapy
112
Q

What are some clinical applications for IV administration of fluid therapy?

A
  1. Fluid resuscitation
  2. Intraoperative fluid therapy
  3. Use in anesthetized patients
  4. Significant dehydration + ongoing losses replacement
  5. General use for critically ill patients
113
Q

Contraindications for SC administration of fluid therapy

A
  1. Severe dehydration
  2. Significant electrolyte imbalances
  3. Hypovolemia or hypotension
  4. Large animals
114
Q

SC administration of fluid therapy should use _____ fluids with an osmolality _____.

A

Isotonic
Equal to that of the ECF

115
Q

Total fluid volume to be given should be administered in as many different places as possible when using the ______ route.

116
Q

IO fluid therapy administration sites include:
1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. Tibial tuberosity
  2. Trochanteric fossa of the femur
  3. Iliac wing
  4. Greater tubercle of the humerus
117
Q

an infection in a bone

A

Osteomyelitis

118
Q

Meds safe for _____ are safe for IO administration

119
Q

Enteral administration of fluid therapy at scheduled intervals should be given every ______ hours

120
Q

Give 2 contraindications for enteral administration of fluid therapy

A
  1. Patients in shock
  2. Abnormally functioning GI tract
121
Q

low blood potassium levels

A

hypokalemia

122
Q

a condition characterized by excessive urination following the relief of a urinary obstruction

A

Postobstructive diuresis

123
Q

a condition caused by a pituitary gland tumor that secretes excessive ACTH which leads to increased cortisol secretion from the adrenal glands

A

Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing Disease)

124
Q

a condition in which the body can no longer produce enough insulin which leads to the breakdown of fat for energy and a dangerous buildup of ketones in the bloodstream

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

125
Q

a condition in which the adrenal glands produce too much of the steroid hormone that helps regulate sodium and potassium in the blood

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s Syndrome)

126
Q

a steroid hormone that helps regulate sodium and potassium in the blood

A

Aldosterone

127
Q

Potassium admin maximum = _____ mEq/kg/hr

128
Q

What kind of effects will you see if potassium is administered faster than 0.5 mEq/kg/hr?

A

Cardiac effects

129
Q

Hypokalemia can be treated with _____ and ______

A

Potassium chloride (KCl) and Potassium phosphates (K+)

130
Q

low blood glucose levels

A

Hypoglycemia

131
Q

the inability of the liver to perform its normal synthetic and metabolic functions

A

Hepatic insufficiency

132
Q

a condition in which damage to the adrenal glands causes them to not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone

A

Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison Disease)

133
Q

a condition in which chemicals released in the bloodstream to fight an infection trigger inflammation throughout the body and can lead to a cascade of organ failure

134
Q

a tumor that forms in the pancreas and produces an excess amount of insulin

A

Insulinoma

135
Q

a condition in which a tumor overproduces incompletely processed insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF-2) which leads to stimulation of insulin receptors and increased glucose utilization

A

Non-islet Cell Tumor Hypoglycemia (NICTH)

136
Q

a condition in which the animal exerts itself in strenuous exercise and rapidly depletes their blood glucose before their reserves can be remobilized or released from glycogen storages from the muscles and liver

A

“Hunting Dog Hypoglycemia”

137
Q

lack of muscle coordination and control

138
Q

Hypoglycemia is treated with an IV administration of dextrose at a rate of ____ mL/kg

A

0.5-1 mL/kg

139
Q

Stock dextrose (___%) should be diluted to a ____% solution to prevent _____.

A

Stock dextrose (50%) should be diluted to a 25% solution to prevent phlebitis.

140
Q

Making a Dextrose-Containing Solution =

A

(Desired concentration [%] x Desired volume [mL]) / Stock concentration of dextrose

141
Q

Only when severe can metabolic acidosis be treated with _____.

A

sodium bicarbonate

142
Q

Only when severe can hyperkalemia be treated with _______.

A

sodium bicarbonate

143
Q

dangerously low blood pH levels due to increased hydrogen ions

144
Q

What are 3 contraindications for adding sodium bicarbonate to a fluid therapy solution?

A
  1. Respiratory acidosis
  2. Hypoventilation
  3. Hypercapnia
145
Q

a condition characterized by an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the body due to inadequate ventilation

A

Respiratory acidosis

146
Q

a condition characterized by inadequate ventilation which leads to low blood oxygen levels and high blood carbon dioxide levels

A

Hypoventilation

147
Q

a condition characterized by a high partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) in the blood

A

Hypercapnia

148
Q

Monitoring during the resuscitation phase is geared toward assessing:

A
  1. Cardiovascular stability
  2. Blood volume
  3. Perfusion parameters
149
Q

Efforts should be made to normalize/maintain systolic BP between _____ and ____ mm Hg during the resuscitation phase

A

110-140 mm Hg

150
Q

It’s beneficial to target a lower minimally acceptable systolic BP (___ to ___ mm Hg) in cases of ______ to prevent _____.

A

It’s beneficial to target a lower minimally acceptable systolic BP (90 to 100 mm Hg) in cases of ongoing hemorrhage to prevent worsening bleeding.

151
Q

a condition characterized by the moderate buildup of lactic acid in the blood when the tissues do not get enough oxygen

A

Hyperlactemia

152
Q

Monitoring during the replacement phase is geared toward assessing:

153
Q

The goal during the resuscitation phase is to ______ and ______.

A

restore vascular volume and tissue perfusino

154
Q

a condition characterized by high sodium levels in the blood which typically results from free water losses, inadequate water intake, or sodium overload

A

Hypernatremia

155
Q

Change in body weight of ____ kg correlates to ___ L of body water

A

1 kg = 1 L

156
Q

a condition in which there is a decrease in coagulation factors and platelets when blood is replaced by fluids that do not contain these components

A

Dilution coagulopathy

157
Q

What are 3 signs of volume overload due to fluid therapy?

A
  1. Pulmonary edema from overload of the left side of the heart
  2. Cavitary Effusion
  3. Peripheral edema
158
Q

fluid collection in a body cavity or joint

A

Cavitary Effusion

159
Q

Physical exam findings when blood loss is >30% of blood volume includes:

A
  1. Pale mucous membranes
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Tachypnea
  4. Lethargy
  5. Cold extremities
  6. Hypotension
  7. Increased blood lactate concentrations
  8. Sweating + Colic (horses)
160
Q

Give some indications for a blood transfusion

A
  1. Chronic and hemolytic anemia
  2. Acute hemorrhage
161
Q

Give some indications for a platelet transfusion:

A
  1. Severe thrombocytopenia + life-threatening hemorrhage
  2. Severe thrombocytopenia + necessary surgery
162
Q

Platelet counts should be ____ μL in cats and ____ μL in dogs.

A

Cats = 10,000 μL
Dogs = 20,000 μL

163
Q

Give some indications for a plasma transfusion:

A
  1. Coagulopathy
  2. Hypoalbuminemia
  3. FTP
  4. IgG concentration <800 mg/dL in foals older than 12 hrs
  5. TP concentration <5.5 g/dL in calves older than 12 hrs
164
Q

There is no true “universal” blood type known in _____.

165
Q

Ideal equine blood donors are _____ negative

166
Q

How can you increase the likelihood that two horses have a similar blood type when considering blood donation?

A

Choose donor of same breed

167
Q

Ideal bovine blood donors are _____ negative

168
Q

What happens if a canine blood recipient that has anti-DEA 1.1 antibodies is transfused with DEA 1.1 positive blood?

A

Agglutination and hemolysis

169
Q

Canine blood typing can be done using:
1.
2.

A
  1. Canine rapid blood typing cards
  2. Immune-chromatographic test kits
170
Q

If a canine blood sample does not agglutinate on the DEA 1.1 rapid blood typing card > the pet is ______

A

DEA 1.1 negative

171
Q

Universal canine blood donors are only positive for ______ antigen.

172
Q

Dogs that can be used in a blood donor program include:
1.
2.

A
  1. Positive for DEA 4 + negative for all other DEAs > can donate to all dogs
  2. Positive for DEA 1.1 > can donate to DEA 1.1 positive
173
Q

_____ do NOT have typically have naturally occurring antibodies to the blood type they do not have

174
Q

the most common feline blood type, especially for domestic shorthair and domestic long-hair breeds

175
Q

the less common feline blood type, but is seen more frequently in some breeds such as Devon Rex, British Shorthair, Abyssinian, Persian, Himalayan, and Sphinx

176
Q

the universal recipient feline blood type

177
Q

_____ HAVE naturally occurring alloantibodies to the blood type they do not have

178
Q

Canine blood typing can be done using:
1.
2.

A
  1. Feline rapid blood typing cards
  2. Immune-chromatographic test kits
  3. Cross matching
179
Q

detects agglutination reactions between the donor’s RBCs and the recipient’s plasma

A

Major Cross-Matching

180
Q

detects agglutination reactions between the donor’s plasma and recipient’s RBCs

A

Minor Cross-Matching

181
Q

The max blood donation for canines is _____ mL/kg of BW (or _____ of blood volume)

A

13-17 mL/kg BW
(or 15-20% of blood volume)

182
Q

The max blood donation for felines is _____ mL/kg of BW (standard blood volume collected is _____ mL)

A

11-15 mL/kg BW
50-70 mL standard collected

183
Q

The max blood donation for equines is _____ mL/kg of BW (or _____ of blood volume)

A

16 mL/kg BW
(or 20% of blood volume)

184
Q

Always use ______ BW when calculating max blood collection volume in all species

185
Q

If 20% of blood volume is collected > replace ______ mL/kg of IV crystalloid

A

20-40 mL/kg

186
Q

If blood will be transfused immediately > use ______ as the anticoagulant

A

sodium citrate

187
Q

If blood will be stored > use ______ or ______ as the anticoagulant

A

Citrate-phosphate-dextrose
or
Citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine

188
Q

plasma that is used within 8 hours of collection

A

Fresh Plasma

189
Q

plasma that is placed in a freezer within 8 hours of collection and that is less than 1 year old

A

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

190
Q

FFP should be stored at ____ºF

191
Q

FFP must be used within _____ to ensure optimal ______ activity

A

1 year
clotting factor

192
Q

plasma that is frozen longer than 8 hours after collection or FFP that is older than 1 year of age

A

Frozen Plasma

193
Q

If plasma is thawed but not needed > you can refreeze it within _____ of thawing

194
Q

PRBCs

A

packed red blood cells

195
Q

When separating blood components, blood should be centrifuged at ____ºF with a relative centrifugal force of _____ g for ____ minutes

A

centrifuged at 39.2ºF with a relative centrifugal force of 5000x g for 5 minutes

196
Q

Why should refrigerated blood be transfused directly? What is an exception?

A

Warming may deteriorate RBCs
Exception = hypothermic patients

197
Q

______ prevents inadvertent infusion of blood clots

A

In-Line Filter

198
Q

Do NOT admin blood concurrently with ______ or ______ solutions

A

hypertonic or hypotonic

199
Q

Do NOT admin blood with _______ containing solutions. Why?

A

Calcium - calcium can overwhelm the citrate anticoagulant and activate the coagulation cascade

200
Q

Blood Transfusions:
Give ____ mL/kg over the first ____ minutes and increase afterward as needed

A

0.3 mL/kg over the first 20-30 minutes

201
Q

Blood Transfusions:
Do NOT exceed ____ mL/kg/hr in patients with significant cardiac disease

A

2-4 mL/kg/hr

202
Q

Blood Transfusion Volume (mL) =

A

(BW [kg]x Blood Volume [mL/kg] x (Desired PCV −Actual PCV)) / (Donor PCV)

203
Q

Goals for Acute Hemorrhage Blood Loss
1. Replace ____% of blood lost
2. Increase PCV ___%
3. Reverse clinical signs that prompted the transfusion to begin with

A
  1. Replace 25-50% of blood lost
  2. Increase PCV 10%
  3. Reverse clinical signs that prompted the transfusion to begin with
204
Q

Guideline for RBC Transfusion (Canines):
____ mL/kg of whole blood OR ____ mL/kg of PRBCs will raise PCV by 1%

A

2 mL/kg of whole blood OR 1-1.5 mL/kg of PRBCs will raise PCV by 1%

205
Q

Guideline for amount of plasma needed to treat coagulopathy:
Canines = _____ mL/kg

A

10-15 mL/kg

206
Q

Guideline for amount of plasma needed to treat coagulopathy:
Felines = _____ mL/kg

A

5-8 mL /kg

207
Q

Guideline for amount of plasma needed to treat coagulopathy:
Equines = ____ L increments “to effect”

A

1 L increments “to effect”

208
Q

treatment is continued until the desired effect is achieved

A

“To effect”

209
Q

a skin condition characterized by redness or rash resulting from increased blood flow in the superficial capillaries

210
Q

a skin condition characterized by itchy red welts or lumps on the skin

211
Q

medical term for itching

212
Q

a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction

A

Anaphylaxis

213
Q

an allergic reaction that involves antibody mediated destruction of cells and develops during or within hours of the transfusion

A

Cytotoxic (Type II) Hypersensitivity Reaction

214
Q

a reactions that can occur longer than 24 hours after a transfusion and can result in RBC lysis

A

Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions

215
Q

Most common blood transfusion reaction seen in vet med

A

Nonhemolytic Immune Reaction

216
Q

a nonimmune acute reaction that can occur with large or rapidly delivered volumes of blood products, especially normovolemic patients

A

Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO)