PharmII_Exam2 Flashcards

(105 cards)

1
Q

Which receptor does Diphenhydramine(benadryl) blocks?

A

It blocks H1 selectively

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2
Q

Name two drugs that can cause degranulation independent release of histamine?

A

Morphine

Tubocurarine

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3
Q

What two H receptors act in the CNS and Cardiovascular system?

A

H1 and H2

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4
Q

What is the antihistamine effect in the CNS?

A

Sedation
Depression
Anti-cholinergic effects
Stimulation (nervousness and restlessness)

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5
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of histamine?

A

Decrease in blood pressure (H1 and H2)

Increase in heart rate (H2)

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6
Q

What are the bronchiole effect when antihistamine is present?

A

Bronchoconstriction (H1 receptors)

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7
Q

What are the GI effects of antihistamines?

A

H1 - intestinal contraction

H2 - Parietal cells secrete HCl

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8
Q

Describe the three parts in the wheal and flare response?

A
  1. reddening of the area - vascular smooth muscle dilation
  2. Edematous wheal - endothelium
  3. Red irregular flare surrounding the wheal - axon reflex.
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9
Q

What is the hypersensitivity response?

A
  1. Bronchoconstriction
  2. Hypotension, tachycardia
  3. Increase in capillary permeability
  4. Edema
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10
Q

Give me an example of a popular physiologic antagonist?

A

Epinephrine

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11
Q

What are the three ways to block histamine reaction?

A
  1. Physiological antagonist
  2. Competitive antagonists
  3. Inhibit the release
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12
Q

What is a summary of the 1st generation H1 antagonists?

A

More sedating

More autonomic receptor blockade.

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13
Q

Name the 4 categories of 1st generation antagonists?

A
  1. Ethanolamines
  2. Piperazine Derivatives
  3. Alkylamines
  4. Phenothiazines
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14
Q

What is so special about Ethanolamines?

A

More sedating.
More Anti-muscarinic actions
Motion sickness blockage

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15
Q

What separates the Piperazine Derivatives from the other H1 antagonists?

A

They are longer acting.

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16
Q

What is so special about Alkylamines and Phenothiazines?

A

They are more potent

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17
Q

What separates the 2nd generation drugs from the first?

A

They are less sedating.

They do not cross the BBB as easily or not at all

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18
Q

What are the two category of drugs found in 2nd gen antagonists?

A

Piperidines

Miscellaneous

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19
Q

What is Allegra used for?

A

Allergic rhinitis.

This is a 2nd generation H1 antagonists.

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20
Q

Does H1 1st gen or 2nd gen drugs last longer?

A

2nd gen drugs.

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21
Q

Which 2nd generation drug contains the most sedation out of the generation?

A

Zyrtec

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22
Q

What conditions are antihistamines really good for?

A

Allergic rhinitis

Urticaria

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23
Q

What condition is antihistamine not good for?

A

Bronchial asthma

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24
Q

Which generation do you give to ppl suffering from Allergic rhinitis and chronic Urticaria

A

2nd

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25
What drug is the best for motion sickness?
Scopolamine. | Drugs like Dromazine and promethazine are used
26
T/F? | Antihistamines are used in sleeps aids?
True. | Sold OTC due to sedating effects.
27
What age does the child have to be to use anti-histamine? | What is the exception?
Over two years old. Zyrtec can be used over 6 months. Anti-histamines lead to seizures
28
Name the four topical agents for anti-histamines?
Olopatadine Azelastine Bepotastine Levocabastine
29
What percentage of headaches do tension headaches compose of?
90%
30
How can primary headaches be classified as?
Tension Migraine Cluster
31
What drug do you use to treat gout?
NSAIDs
32
T/F? | Acetaminophen is a NSAID?
False | It has no anti-inflammatory properties
33
What are some adverse effects in NSAIDs?
Mild to moderate GI irritation Hepatotoxicity Nephrotoxicity
34
What are the three components found in prostanoids?
Prostaglandins Thromboxanes Prostacyclin
35
What occurs in phase I?
WBC bind to endothelial cells. | Become active, infiltrate
36
What occurs in phase 2?
WBC are activated for phagocytosis or lysosomal enzyme release
37
What occurs in phase 3?
Endothelial injury, tissue damage and inflammatory stimulus amp results.
38
Tell me about the enzyme COX 1?
It is constitutively expressed in all cells. | Housekeeping enzyme found in most cells
39
Tell me about COX2
It is an inducible enzyme. | You have to turn it on. Tissue damage will turn it on.
40
Tell me about COX-3
It is actually a splicing form of COX-1 | It's function is unknown.
41
Prostanoid effect in the vascular system?
Thromboxane A2 = vasoconstriction | PGE2 and PGI2 = vasodilators
42
Prostanoid effect on GI?
Activate GI smooth muscle
43
Prostanoid effect on Airways?
PGs relax the airways | TXA2 and PGF2-alpha contracts
44
What happens if you block the COX1 mech in the GI?
You increase the amount of HCl that is released leading to ulcers. Usually there is mucosal protection without this block.
45
What is the action of prostanoids in platelets?
PGE1 and PGEI2 inhibit the aggregation of platelets. | TXA2 stimulates the aggregation
46
What does a low dose of aspirin do in platelets?
It inhibits thromboxane A2 formation. | This is the cardioprotective effect
47
T/F? | Loop diuretics will get reduced with the use of prostanoids?
True
48
Effects of prostanoids in the eye?
It lowers IOP
49
T/F? | The effects of aspirin are reversible?
False. They are irreversible. Its effects are longer than that predicted by its 1/2 life. The COX enzyme must be re-synthesized to return normal function.
50
Symptomatic relief is provided by NSAIDs in which of the three categories?
Anti-inflammatory
51
What percentage does NSAIDs reduce the chances of getting colon cancer?
By 50%
52
Tell me about the relation COX-2 have with thrombotic events?
COX 2 does not mess with TXA2 COX2 does suppress PGI2 WHen u suppress PGI2, u lead to an activation of platelets and cause potential thrombotic events.
53
T/F? | THe metabolism of aspirin is saturable?
True | ANother drug that is saturable is phenytoin
54
How long is a patient told not to take NSAIDs before surgery?
7 days. | Because it takes 8-11 days for platelets to regenerate.
55
Which drug is Reye's syndrome linked to?
Aspirin It is given to children with viral infections and fever. Instead give the child acetaminophen or ibuprofen.
56
T/F? | It is perfectly OK to use aspirin in gout?
False!!! | Aspirin does not eliminate uric crystals
57
What are some adverse effects of aspirin intoxication?
``` Headache Dizziness Tinnitus Hearing loss ................ ```
58
Which drug is more potent than aspirin but not more efficacious?
Indocin
59
What is so special about Clinoril?
Half as potent as Indocin. Suppresses familial intestinal polyposis INhibit the development of colon, breast, and prostate cancer.
60
Which drug is better tolerated than aspirin?
Tolectin It is also just as efficacious. It is indicated for use for rheumatic disease including the juvenile form
61
What drug can be used in place of opioids like morphine and is as efficacious for postoperative pain?
Toradol
62
T/F? | U can take ibuprofen while breastfeeding?
False
63
Which propionic acid has an increased Cardiovascular risk compared to a placebo with long term usage?
Naproxen
64
Which propionic acid derivative is the most potent?
Ketoprofen
65
Why do we use Cox2?
To prevent adverse GI effects and platelet actions
66
Which cylcooxygenase inhibitor class have a black box warning?
all NSAIDs that inhibit COX-2 (nonselective COx inhibitors and COX-2 selective agents), except for aspirin - has cardioprotective features
67
Which two cox inhibitors were pulled from the market due to cardiovascular effects?
Vioxx | Bextra
68
T/F? | Acetaminophen has peripheral effects?
False It does not inhibit peripheral COX enzymes. Does not inhibit platelet aggregation. No severe GI problems.
69
What population is acetaminophen good in?
Elderly | Young children
70
How do you treat toxicity from Acetaminophen?
Gastric lavage Addition of sulfhydryl compounds to replenish glutathione. N-actylcysteine
71
What is the therapeutic approach to treat gout?
1. Reduce inflammation 2. Increase the elimination of Uric acid 3. Decrease the production of Uric acid
72
What is the function of colbenemid in gout?
Reduce the pain and inflammation.
73
MOA of colbenemd?
It binds to and blocks tubulin. | prevents its polymerization preventing leukocyte migration and phagocytosis of uric acid crystals.
74
which two classes of NSAIDs don't work in gout?
Salicylates and tolectin
75
Which NSAID is the best to use in gout?
Indocin. | Inhibits phagocytosis of urate crystals.
76
MOA of allopurinol?
Inhibits xanthine oxidase which Prevents uric acid biosynthesis
77
Analgesic efficacy is mediated via which receptor?
Mew receptors
78
Which area in the brain contains a high concentration of | opioid receptors that facilitate feelings of euphoria.
Nucleus accumbens
79
T/F? | Opioid withdrawal is life-threatening?
False | Alcohol and morphine is life threatening.
80
I should never give a patient an opioid due to its dependcence levels!
Despite the propensity for abuse and the development of dependence, these drugs should never be withheld as analgesics.
81
Which pain reacts well to opiates?
Nociceptive pain. | Stimulation of nociceptors along intact neural pathways.
82
Which pain does opiates react poorly to?
Neuropathic pain. | May need to increase the dose to have an effect.
83
T/F? Ascending pain pathway- Opioids inhibit the ascending pathway at the dorsal horn (spinal) and at the thalamus (supraspinal).
True
84
Are the kappa receptors found in ascending or descending pathway?
Desceinding. | They work oppositely form the mew receptor
85
Stimulation of descending pathway will do what?
Inhibit the ascending pathway.
86
When sensory input is high, is there more or less respiratory distress?
Less!!! | Ex: someone is injured; the sensory input is gonna be mad high. As the pain goes away, the sensory input will increase.
87
Cimetidine
H2 antagonist | used for their ability to reduce acid secretions
88
T/F? | Chronic postoperative pain or pain from inflammation is well-controlled by NSAIDs?
True
89
What does PGI2 do?
Normally suppresses platelet activation, so inhibiting it can cause platelet over activation aka Thrombotic events. (this is why Vioxx and Bextra were withdrawn)
90
T/F? COX-2 selective agents and p-aminophenol derivatives are less harmful to the stomach because COX-1 is responsible for buffering stomach acid.
True
91
Secondary use for indocin?
closure of patent ductus arteriosis in premature babies
92
Diflusnisal
* Dental and cancer pain * Better anti inflammatory than aspirin * Used as an analgesic with less auditory, GI, and platelet side effects.
93
T/F? | It is OK to use acetaminophen on any kind of gout?
False | Due to the fact that acetaminophen has no anti-inflammatory properties.
94
Which agents are better tolerated than aspirin and indomethacin
Propionic acids Efficacy is similar to the sals. The sals are cheaper
95
Peroxicam?
Advantage is long 1/2 life so only single daily dose
96
Give me two examples of uricosuric agents?
Probenecid | Sulfinpyrazone
97
How long do you wait after a gouty attack to start a patient on probenecid and sulfinpyrazone?
Wait 2-3 weeks. U use these drugs when patient has had several acute attacks or if urate levels are very high and an attack is inevitable.
98
Febuxostat
A new drug that is more effective at lowering serum ureate levels than allopurinol. THere are hepatic problems causing death.
99
Name two examples of xanthine oxidase inhibitors?
Allopurinol | Febuxostat
100
Diclofenac
Relatively high potency agent with selectivity for COX 2
101
Meloxicam
Selective for COX 2. | Comparable efficacy with less GI effects.
102
Etodolac
Slightly selective for COX 2 | Useful for post op pain.
103
What is an AE for etodolac?
Temporary renal problems.
104
Celebrex
Similar efficacy as other NSAIDs with fewer adverse GI effects Pfizer has said that the prothrombotic effects seen with Vioxx don't happen at therapeutic doses of celebrex.
105
When do you start a patient on prophylactic treatment for migraines?
If patient experiences more than three migraine attacks per month