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Pharm II > PharmII_Exam 1 > Flashcards

PharmII_Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four drug classes of beta lactam?

A

PCN
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems
Monobactams

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2
Q

What is the name of the beta lactamase that is equivalent for cephalosporins?

A

Cephalosporinase

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3
Q

Name the three drugs under the category of Macrolides?

A

Erythromycin
Azithromycin
Clarithromycin

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4
Q

T/F?

Aminoglycosides are protein synthesis inhibitors?

A

True

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5
Q

T/F?

Fluoroquinolones are bacteriostatic in action?

A

False.

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6
Q

What’s the diff b/w first line Tb drugs and second line Tb drugs?

A

Second line agents:
Less effective
Several Adverse Effects

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7
Q

Is INH bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

Bacteriostatic

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8
Q

T/F?

Ethambutol is able to penetrate many cell layers in the human body?

A

True

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9
Q

In what kinds of cells do Tb hide in?

A

Macrophage cells.

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10
Q

Can you use mebendazole in prego chicks?

A

NOPE, it is a contraindication.

Mebendazole is detoxified in the liver.

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11
Q

What enzyme is PCN G susceptible to?

A

Beta lactamases.

They are unstable at acidic pH and gastric invronment inactivates PCN G and only 30% absorbed from the duodenum

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12
Q

For which organism is Vancomycin used for?

A

Clostridium dificile.
Red man or redneck syndrome
Rescue drug

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13
Q

What is the name of a tetracycline that enters brain in absence of inflammation?

A

Minocycline.

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14
Q

What is the name of a tetracycline that can be used with renal infections?

A

Doxycycline

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15
Q

What is the name of a tetracycline that inhibits ADH and is used for SIADH?

A

Demeclocycline

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16
Q

Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act as what?

A

Antimetabolites

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17
Q

How does bacteria synthesize folic acid?

A

Through the utilization of PABA!

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18
Q

Name the three folate reduction inhibitors?

A

Pyrimethamine
Trimethoprim
Proguanil

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19
Q

Is the combo of sulfonamide and trimethoprim bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

Bactericidal

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20
Q

Resistance to sulfonamides?

A

1)Cause overproduction of PABA (substrate)
2) Cause production of a folic acid-synthesizing enzyme that has low affinity for
sulfonamides
3) Impair permeability to the sulfonamide

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21
Q

Pharmacokinetics of sulfonamides?

A

1) Oral absorbable –> further classified as short, intermediate or long acting
2) Oral nonabsorable
3) Topical
4) Parenteral

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22
Q

What are some adverse effects of Sulfonamides?

A

Nausea, vomitting, diarrhea.
G6PDH deficient patients may develop acute hemolytic anemia
Crystalluria and Hematuria

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23
Q

What is Mafenide good for?

A

Prevention of colonization of burns.

It is a sulfonamide

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24
Q

What is an adverse effect of Oral Trimethoprim?

A

hematological disorders that can be ameliorated with

supplementary folinic acid (leucovorin)

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25
Q

What is proguanil good for?

A

Malaria.
-Used in combination with atovaquone
(Malarone) in prevention and treating malaria
(#1 for tx malaria)

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26
Q

Use of IV Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole

A

Used in mgt of severe pneumocystitis carinii pneumonia, in AIDS pts
-Also useful in gram neg bacterial sepsis—
enterobacter and serratia
-Shinellosis, typhoid fever, or UTI when pt is
unable to take the drug by mouth

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27
Q

Use of oral Oral Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazol (TMP-SMZ)

A

second line drug for
typhoid fever and mgt of carriers of these
strains

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28
Q

MOA of Fluoroquinolones?

A

-Block bacterial DNA synthesis by inhibiting bacterial topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and
topoisomerase IV

29
Q

Is fluoroquinolones bactericidal or static?

A

bactericidal

30
Q

T/F?

Fluoroquinolones have good oral bioavailability?

A

True

31
Q

Which generation of fluoroquinolones are anaerobic bacteria not immune to?

A

3rd & 4th gen

32
Q

Which type of organisms are fluoroquinolones effective against?

A

Effective against gram neg organisms (pseudomonas, h. flu, moraxella catarrhalis, legionella,
brucella, myoplasma, Chlamydia and mycobacteria

33
Q

Can you use fluoroquinolones in prego chicks?

A

NO.
This is a major contraindication.
Can’t use in children either

34
Q

What would ciprofloxacin do in children?https://www.brainscape.com/decks/1813639/cards/quick_new_card

A

Cause cartilage erosin (inhibits growth)—rarely used below 18 yo

35
Q

What does 2nd and 3rd gen Fluoroquinolones do to the heart?

A

cause QT prolongation

36
Q

Which two fluoroquinolones is best used for UTI

A

Cipro

Levo

37
Q

List some horrible toxic symptoms associated with Fluoroquinolones?

A

arthralgia, joint swelling, tenonditis and tendon

rupture have been reported with use

38
Q

What does methenamine produce?

A

Formaldehyde.

This will kill anything. Can go blind.

39
Q

What contributes to mycobacterium acid-fastness?

A

Mycolic acid.

Long chain fatty acid

40
Q

What does MDR tuberculosis stand for?

A

Multi-drug resistant tuberculosis

41
Q

What does XDR tuberculosis stand for?

A

Extensive drug resistance.

42
Q

How does MDR tuberculosis result?

A

From misuse of first line agents

43
Q

How does XDR tuberculosis result?

A

From misuse of second line agents. Resistant to INH, rifampin
plus resistant to any fluoroquinolone and at least one of three injectable
second line durgs (amikacin, kanamycin, or capreomycin)

44
Q

What is XXDR Tb?

A

resistant to all 1st and 2nd line drugs (basically

everything), making it nearly impossible to tx

45
Q

Why is Therapy for infxns by m. tub, m. leprae and m. avium intracellulare

A

due to the
limited information about mechanisms, drug resistance, the intracellular location of infxn and the
advancement of disease

46
Q

What is direct observation therapy?

A

drugs given directly to pts and watching them swallow the medications; preferred core mgt strategy for all pts w/ TB

47
Q

MOA of INH?

A

-Inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids, which are
essential components of mycobacterial cell walls
mediated via oxygen dependent pathways

48
Q

Is INH bacteriostatic or -cidal

A

Static.

It is used in prophylaxis of skin test converters

49
Q

AE of INH?

A
  • Hepatotoxicity

- Nephrotoxicity

50
Q

Is rifampin bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

-Cidal

51
Q

MOA of rifampin?

A

Blocks bacterial RNA synthesis by binding to DNA

dependent RNA polymerase in myobacteria (inhibiting RNA synthesis)

52
Q

Contra-indication for Rifampin?

A

HIV pts taking protease inhibitors

53
Q

Which drug turns urine, sputum, saliva, poop, and

body fluids to a red-orange color

A

Rifampin

54
Q

Uses for Rifampin?

A

-TB ! used as prophylactic drug in isoniazid
intolerant pts
-Leprosy

55
Q

Uses of Rifapentine?

A

Considered 1st line therapy in pt taking retroviral drugs but technically 2nd line for tx of TB

56
Q

CI in ptx’s taking Rifapentine?

A

pts taking protease inhibitors

57
Q

What does Ethambutol block?

A

blocks arabino-galactin, a

component of mycobacterial cell wall

58
Q

what is AE of Ethambutol?

A

-Visual disturbances (green blindness),
retinal damage (retrobulbar optic neuritis),
headache, confusion, peripheral neuritis

59
Q

How long to use pyrazinamide?

A

6 months in combo therapy for Tb.

Highly toxic

60
Q

What is Rifamate?

A

Rifampin + Isoniazid

61
Q

What is Rifater?

A

Rifampin
INH
PZA

62
Q

Which is the most effective drug used in Hensen’s disease?

A

Dapsone

63
Q

MOA of dapsone?

A

Inhibit folate synthesis (like sulfonamides)

64
Q

Uses of dapsones?

A

-Mycobacterium leprae
-Used to prevent and tx pneumocytisis jiroveci
pneumonia in AIDS pts

65
Q

Name the two sulfone drugs?

A

Acedapsone

Dapsone

66
Q

Name the three drugs used for M. Leprae?

A

Dapsone
Acedapsone
Clofazimine

67
Q

What does M. Avium cause?

A

causes disseminated infections in AIDS pts—

antimycobacterial agents along with another antibiotics are used

68
Q

Name the two anti-fungals that contain polyene structures?

A

Amphotericin B

Nystatin

Pharm II (7 decks)

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