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PAM Semester 2 > Pharmacotherapeutics Exam 2 > Flashcards

Pharmacotherapeutics Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Carbapenem MOA

A

Ertapenem, imipenem, meropenem, doripenem

Inhibits bacterial trans-peptidases

B-lactamase resistant

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2
Q

Botulism Antitoxins

A

Equine serum heptavalent botulism antitoxin
Over 1 year old

Human derived botulism immune globulin
under 1 year old

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3
Q

Inhibitors of viral penetration:

A

Amantadine

Rimantadine.

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4
Q

Mechanism of action Antibiotics

Nucleic acid synthesis (DNA Gyrase)

A

Quinolones

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5
Q

Mechanism of action Antibiotics
Cell Wall
Other (2)

A

Vancomycin

Bacitracin

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6
Q

General Info about Streptococcus pyrogenes

A

Spherical

Gram Positive

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7
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

highly susceptible to tetracyclines and macrolides.

Within these two classes, first-line agents includedoxycyclineandazithromycin, respectively.
CDC recommend either as first line.

Azithromycin 1 gram single dose

Doxy 100mg twice daily for 7 days

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8
Q

Disease For Enterococcus faecium

A

bacteremia, endocarditis, peritonitis

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9
Q

Gram positive bacteria types to know

Rods

A

Bacillus
Clostridium
Listeria

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10
Q

What happens when gram negative bateria repilate or are killed off

A

They release Lipid A of the LPS which is an endotoxin

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11
Q

Antiretroviral drugs

A

Used to treat infections caused by HIV, the virus that causes AIDS

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12
Q

The four major goals of treatment of Rheumatic fever are:

A

Symptomatic relief of acute disease manifestations (eg, arthritis)

Eradication of group A beta-hemolyticStreptococcus(GAS)

Prophylaxis against future GAS infection to prevent progression of cardiac disease.

Provision of education for the patient and patient’s caregivers

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13
Q

Disease For Moraxella catarrhalis

A

respiratory infection

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14
Q

Botulism

A

A rare but potentially life-threatening neuroparalytic syndrome caused by a neurotoxin produced byClostridium botulinum,

a heterogeneous group of gram-positive, rod-shaped, spore-forming, obligate anaerobic bacteria.

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15
Q

Disease For Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

nosocomial pneumonia, burn infection, bacteremia

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16
Q

Campylobacter jejuni drug of choice

A

Macrolides

Azithromycin
Erythromycin

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17
Q

Tetanus Treatment

A

Wound management & Airway Mgmt is key

Metronidazole(500 mg [IV] Q6-8 hours)
is the preferred treatment for tetanus,

butpenicillin G(2 to 4 million units IV Q4-6 hours) is a safe and effective alternative.

We suggest a treatment duration of 7 to 10 days.

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18
Q

Bacterialcidal Classes

A 
B-Lactams
Aminoglycosides
Glycopeptides
Quinolones
Ansamycins
Stretptogramins
Lipopeptides

(Causes bacterial cell death)

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19
Q

Botulism causes

A

Infants - most common (honey) (floppy baby)

Food borne

Wound

Most potent biologic toxin in the world

Botulism inhibits ACH release at presynaptic receptors

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20
Q

Which of the following is not considered a beta-lactam antibiotic?

Marcolides
Monobactams
Penicillins
Carbapenems

A

Marcolides

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21
Q

CCR5 receptor inhibitor

A

Selzentry – maraviroc

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22
Q

Which of the following antibiotics treats Group-A streptococcal pharyngitis?

Amoxicillin
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Ciprofloxacin

A

Amoxicillin

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23
Q

Influenza treatment

A

neuraminidase inhibitors = oseltamivir

The adamantanes,amantadineandrimantadine, which are only active against influenza A.

Due to a marked increase in resistant isolates, the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that adamantanesnotbe used in the United States for the treatment of influenza, except in selected circumstances

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24
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis

A

Swelling or inflammation of the large intestine (colon) due to an overgrowth of (C difficile) bacteria.

Most common antibiotics that cause this are: Clindamycin, fluoroquinolones, and CMCs (cephalosporins, monobactams, and carbapenems)

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25
Q

DNA polymerase inhibitors

A

Purine Nucleoside Analogues:

Acyclovir, Ganciclovir, Famiciclovir, Valacyclovir

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26
Q

General Info about Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

A

Gram Negative
Aerobic
rod shaped

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27
Q

Disease For Escherichia coli

A

bacteremia, urinary-tract and gastrointestinal infection

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28
Q

Gram Positive Bacteria

A

Has thick cell wall

Has glycans in cell wall. the lysosymes we produce help break apart glycans (natrual defense for Gram (+))

has one phospholipid bilayer

Much easier to penetrate that gram negative due to only one phospholipid bilayer

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29
Q

Viral

Chronic infections

A

Hepatitis B

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30
Q

Bacteriostatic Classes

A 
Chloramphenicol
Oxazolidinones
Sulfonamides
Tetracyclines
Macrolides

(Restricts growth and reproduction)

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31
Q

General Info about Enterococcus

A

Gram positive

Cocci

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32
Q

The treatment of respiratory diphtheria consists of what antibiotic therapy

A

(Erythromycin 500 mg four times a day)

anddiphtheria antitoxinfor severe cases

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33
Q

Duration of prophylactic therapy for rheumatic fever

A

RF with Carditis and heart disease
10 years or until 40 (whichever is longer)

RF with carditis no heart disease
10 years or until 21 (whichever is longer)

RF no carditis
5 years or until 21 (whichever is longer)

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34
Q

General Info about Clostridium Difficile

A

Anaerobic

spore forming rod (bacilus)

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35
Q

Tdap (Adults)

Years

A

Every 10 years

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36
Q

Disease For Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Tuberculosis

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37
Q

Mechanism of action Antibiotics
Cell Wall
Beta Lactam

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems
Monobactams

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38
Q

Which of the following antibiotics has a mechanism of action of folate synthesis?

Penicillins
Sulfonamides
Macrolides
Tetracyclines

A

Sulfonamides

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39
Q

Varicella-zoster virus infections

A

Primary infection with VZV results in varicella, also known as chickenpox, characterized by vesicular lesions in different stages of development on the face, trunk, and extremities.

Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, results from reactivation of endogenous latent VZV infection within the sensory ganglia.

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40
Q

When carbapenems are used as a single agent against initially susceptible isolates ofPseudomonas aeruginosa, what may occur?

A

Resistance may emerge during therapy.

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41
Q

Anti-retrovirals

A

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Zidovudine (Retrovir)

Protease inhibitors:
Lopinavir/Ritonavir (Kaletra)

CCR5 receptor inhibitor:
Maraviroc (Selzentry)

Integrase inhibitor:
Raltegravir (Isentress)

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42
Q

Disease For Enterococcus faecalis

A

bacteremia, endocarditis, urinary-tract infection, peritonitis

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43
Q

Disease For Acinetobacter spp.

A

pneumonia in immuno-compromised patients

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44
Q

Gonococcal infections

treatment

A

Ceftriaxoneis treatment for gonorrhea
Single IM dose

For most patients, 500 mg

individuals who weigh ≥150 kg we give a 1 g dose

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45
Q

The mainstay of treatment for individuals with infectious mononucleosis (IM) and other manifestations of primary EBV disease is

A

Supportive care

Acetaminophenor nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are recommended for the treatment of fever, throat discomfort, and malaise.

Provision of adequate fluids and nutrition is also appropriate.

Although getting adequate rest is prudent, bed rest is unnecessary.

However, strenuous activity should be avoided for at least three weeks after onset of IM.

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46
Q

Viruses are classified on the basis of

A

morphology,

chemical composition,

and mode of replication.

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47
Q

General Info about Salmonella

A

Gram negative

rod shaped

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48
Q

Gram Negative bacteria types to know

Rods (non-enteric)

A 
Bordella
Hemophilus
Legionella
Pasteurella
Pseudomonas (both)
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49
Q

3rd Generation Cephalosporin

A

Ceftriaxone,
Gonorrhea

Ceftazidime
Pseudomonas,

50
Q

Bacteriostatic

A

Restricts growth and reproduction

51
Q

MRSA Meds

A 
Bactrim
Clindamycin
doxycycline
Vancomycin
Linezolid
52
Q

Monobactam MOA

A

Aztreonam

Bind to PBP - Inhibit cell wall synthesis

53
Q

Influenza Treatments

A

Neuraminidase inhibitors
oseltamivir, zanamivir, peramivir

M2 channel Blockers (only flu A)
amantadine, rimantadine

54
Q

HIV drugs

A

Maraviroc
Zidovudine (AZT)
Raltegravir
Lopeinavir

55
Q

Which of the following antibiotic is considered a third-generation cephalosporin?

Cefazolin
Ceftazidime
Ceftriaxone
cefepime

A

Ceftriaxone

56
Q

Rubella (German Measles)

A

Treatment consists of supportive care. No specific therapy for rubella infection is available.

57
Q

Neuraminidase Inhibitors:

A

Zanamivir,

Oseltamivir.

58
Q

1st Generation Cephalosporin

A

Cefazolin

most gram posititve cocci
E.coli, Proteus, Klebsiella

59
Q

Bacteriocidal

A

Causes bacterial cell death

60
Q

Which of the following types of HPV does not cause the most cases of genital warts including cancer?

5
11
16
18

A

5

61
Q

Tdap (preteens)

Years

A

11 through 12 years

62
Q

Shapes

Bacilli

A

Rod

63
Q

Which of the following antibiotics does not treat cholera?

Doxycycline
Azithromycin
Ciprofloxacin
Amoxicillin

A

Amoxicillin

64
Q

Gram Negative bacteria types to know

Cocci

A

Acinetobacter
Moraxella
Neisseria

65
Q

Jones Criteria For Strep

A 
Joints (polyarthritis)
Carditis
Nodules
Erythema marginatum
Syndenhams chorea
66
Q

Disease For Proteus spp.

A

urinary-tract infection

67
Q

Acyclovir MOA

A

Guanosine analogs requiring phosphorylation
by infected cells thymidine kinase

(Translation) = inhibits viral DNA polymerase

HSV, VZV and EBV (high dose)

Renal damage (IV dose) (hydration can minimize)

68
Q

Carbapenems have a broad spectrum of activity against

A

gram-negative organisms (including those that produce extended spectrum beta-lactamases),

anaerobes (includingBacteroides fragilis),

gram-positive organisms (includingEnterococcus faecalisandListeria).

69
Q

4 classes of meds that fight Group-A Strep

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Macrolides
Lincosamides

70
Q

Rheumatic fever

A

Mitral valve stenosis, regurge, heart damage

Fever, Joint pain, red hot swollen joints,
Chest pain, murmur, fatigue,
unusual outbursts
painless bumps beneath skin

Risk factors= Family history, strains of strep, Envirnomental factors

71
Q

Gram positive bacteria types to know

Cocci

A

Enterococcus
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Peptostreptococcus

72
Q

Mechanism of action Antibiotics

Protein synthesis 30 s

A

Tetracyclines

Aminoglycosides

73
Q

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)

A

thymidine analogue (azidothymidine, AZT)

MOA: inhibits viral reverse transcriptase in preference to cellular DNA polymerase

Anemia and neutropenia are the most important and dose-related adverse effects.

74
Q

Protease Inhibitors (PI)

A

atazanavir(Reyataz)

Mechanism: Protease inhibitors (PIs) block protease (an HIV enzyme).

By blocking protease, PIs prevent new (immature) HIV from becoming a mature virus that can infect other CD4 cells

75
Q

Mechanism of action Antibiotics

Nucleic acid synthesis (RNA Polymerase)

A

Rifampin

76
Q

4 groups of Beta Lactams

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Monobactams
Carbapenems

77
Q

Advanced Generation Cephalosporin

A

Ceftaroline

MRSA

78
Q 
Cytomegalovirus infections (CMV)
treatments
A

ganciclovir
valganciclovir
foscarnet

79
Q

Inhibitors of viral penetration

A

amantadine (Symmetrel)

Narrow antiviral spectrum active only against influenza A

80
Q

Varicella-zoster Treatment

A

The goals of antiviral therapy are to promote more rapid healing of skin lesions, lessen the severity and duration of pain associated with acute neuritis, and potentially reduce the incidence or severity of chronic pain, referred to as postherpetic neuralgia.

We recommend antiviral therapy for patients with uncomplicated herpes zoster who present within 72 hours of clinical symptoms.

The nucleoside analoguesacyclovir,valacyclovir, orfamciclovircan be used for treatment of acute herpes zoster infection.

We prefer valacyclovir (1000 mg three times daily) or famciclovir (500 mg three times daily) because of their lower dosing frequency compared with acyclovir (800 mg five times daily).

All regimens should be given for seven days. 
Analgesic drugs (acetaminophen vs. gabapentin)
81
Q

Mechanism of action Antibiotics

Protein synthesis 50 s

A 
Macrolides
Clindamycin
Linezoid
Chloramphenicol
Streptogramins
82
Q

Viral

Latent infections

A

Herpes simplex

Varicella simplex

83
Q

Why Fluoroquinolones for salmonella treatment

A

Antibiotics are not always needed

When antibiotics are needed

Fluoroquinolones (eg,ciprofloxacin500 mg orally twice daily orlevofloxacin500 mg orally once daily)

are generally the most appropriate agents for adults because of their activity against most common gram-negative enteric pathogens, their high tissue and intracellular concentrations, and their favorable side effect profile.

84
Q

Roseola

A

In most cases, roseola is a benign and self-limited disease. Treatment is supportive.

85
Q

Mechanism of action Antibiotics

Folate synthesis

A

Sulfonamides

Trimethoprim

86
Q

Which of the following antibiotics has a mechanism of action of protein synthesis via 50s subunit?

Penicillins
Sulfonamides
Macrolides
Tetracyclines

A

Macrolides

87
Q

Disease For Staphylococcus Aureus

A

skin and wound infection, abscess, bacteremia, nosocomial pneumonia, endocarditis, toxic shock syndrome

88
Q

Shapes

cocci

A

Round

89
Q

Ways to treat HPV

A

Don’t treat / observation, meds, surgical removal

Aldara - cream (stimulates immune system)

Podofilux - gel (destroys skin of wart)

Veregen - ointment (immunocompromised patients

Tricholoroacetic acid - destorys virus proteins (
(applied by Dr)

90
Q

2nd Generation Cephalosporin

A

Haemophilus influenza

Moraxella catarrhalis

91
Q

Gram Negative bacteria types to know

Rods (enteric)

A 
Bacterioides
Campylobacter
Enterobacter
Escherichia
Klebsiella
Proteus
Pseudomonas (both)
Salmonella
Shigella
Vibrio
92
Q 
Antibiotics
Can
Protect
The
Queens
Men
Servants
Guards
A 
Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
Penicillins
Tetracyclines
Quinolones (flouroquinolones)
Macrolides
Sulfonamides
Glycopeptides
93
Q

Campylobacter

A

Campylobacterenteritis cause of acute diarrhea worldwide.

It is typically caused byCampylobacter jejuniorCampylobacter coli,

and is largely a foodborne disease.

Poultry, Waterborne outbreaks

Can lead to Guillen-barre

94
Q

Disease For Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

upper respiratory infection, pneumonia, otitis, sinusitis, meningitis

95
Q

Which of the following antivirals treat cytomegalovirus (CMV)?

Acyclovir
Ganciclovir
Raltegravir
Atazanavir

A

Ganciclovir

96
Q

Rabies

A

There is no known effective treatment for rabies,

although the disease can be very effectively prevented after recognized exposures using post-exposure rabies prophylaxis

97
Q

The most critical therapy in diarrheal illness is

A

hydration,

preferably by the oral route with solutions that contain water, salt, and sugar

98
Q

Salmonella antibiotic

A

We generally do not recommend antibiotic treatment for immunocompetent individuals between 12 months and 50 years of age who have documentedSalmonellagastroenteritis with mild to moderate symptoms, as the illness is typically self-limited

99
Q

Viral

Acute infections

A

Influenza

Hepatitis A

100
Q

Disease For Haemophilus influenzae

A

respiratory infection, otitis, sinusitis, meningitis

101
Q

HPV Vaccine

A

Gardasil (merck)

Types 6, 11, 16, 18

Anal, cervical, vaginal and vulvar precancer, cancer. Genital warts

Contra: Hypersensitivity to yeast

3 dose series: 0, 2, 6 Months

102
Q

General Info about Escheria Coli

A

Gram negative

rod shaped

103
Q

Dtap (children)

years

A

2,4, and 6 months
15 through 18 months
4 through 6 years

104
Q

Antibiotic regimens for prevention of endocarditis prior to dental and respiratory procedures

A

Amoxicillin 2 grams

If allergic to penicllins
Clindamycin 600mg

Both single dose, both oral

105
Q

Integrase Inhibitor

A

Isentress (raltegravir)

106
Q

HSV-1 Oral Disease treatment

Herpes Simplex 1

A

Acyclovir: 200 mg five times daily

Famciclovir: 250 mg three times daily or 500 mg twice daily

Valacyclovir: 1 g twice daily

107
Q

PrEP - Pre Exposure Prophylaxis

A

Descovy 1 tablet by mouth every day

Truvada 1 tablet by mouth every day

Only two medications FDA Approved for PrEP

108
Q

Cholera antibiotics

A

Tetracyclines
Macrolides
Fluoroquinolones

109
Q

Rocky mountatin spotted fever

A

Doxy 100mg BID 5-7 days

Rickettsia rickettsii

Gram negative
obligate intracellular coccobacillus

We prefer doxycycline even for pregnant women, since there is increasing evidence of the relative safety of doxycycline in pregnancy compared with older tetracyclines.

110
Q

Tetanus Vaccines

A

Dtap (children)
Tdap (preteen)
Tdap (Adults)

111
Q

Measles

A

MMR vaccine is a MUST!!

112
Q

Mechanism of action Antibiotics
Cell Wall
Cell Membrane

A

Polymixins

113
Q

MMR Dose schedule

A

1st dose 12-18 months

2nd dose 4-6 years

114
Q

4th Generation Cephalosporin

A

Cefepime

Pseudomonas

115
Q

General Info about Staphylococcus Aureus

A

Facultative anaerobe
Gram Posisitve
Cocci

116
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is considered the standard therapy to treat Campylobacter jejuni?

Doxycycline
Azithromycin
Amoxicillin
Ciprofloxacin

A

Azithromycin

117
Q

Erythema infectiosum (5th disease)

A

No treatment as far as antiviral

Parvovirus
Slapped cheek

118
Q

Disease For Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

hospital-acquired pneumonia, bacteremia

119
Q

Shigellosis

A

Bloody diarrhea
fever
stomach cramps
5-7 days

Fluoroquinolones are often used first for Shigella
Levo, Cipro

120
Q

What is the standard dosage of oseltamivir (Tamiflu)?

25 mg twice a day by mouth
50 mg twice a day by mouth
75 mg twice a day by mouth
100 mg twice a day by mouth

A

75 mg twice a day by mouth

121
Q

Disease For Streptococcus pyrogenes

A

pharyngitis, tonsillitis, skin and soft-tissue infection, scarlet fever

122
Q

Gram Negative Bacteria

A

Has thin cell wall

has two phospholipid bilayers

Has a lipoprotein layer between the cell wall and the inner phospholipid bilayer

Outer phospholipid bilayer has lipopolysaccharides (LPS) inbedded in it

Much harder to penetrate that gram positive due to 2 phospholipid bilayers

Has pores that allow small things in.

PAM Semester 2 (22 decks)

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