Pharmacology Pt. 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What percent of the body is made up of water?
A
60%
2
Q
What percent of the body’s water is intracellular?
A
40%
3
Q
What percent of the body’s water is extracellular?
A
20%
4
Q
Of the body’s extracellular water, how much is intravascular?
A
1/4
5
Q
Of the body’s extracellular water, how much is interstitial?
A
3/4
6
Q
What physical exam findings would you assess for hydration/dehydration?
A
skin turgor, CRT, MM color
7
Q
What is mild dehydration?
A
~5%, minimal loss of skin turgor, semidry mucous membranes, normal eyes
8
Q
What is moderate dehydration?
A
~8%, moderate loss of skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, weak rapid pulses, sunken eyes
9
Q
What is severe dehydration?
A
~10%, considerable loss of skin turgor, tachycardia, extremely dry mucous membranes, weak/thready pulses, low blood pressure, at 12%, sunken eyes and altered level of consciousness
10
Q
How is hydration deficit calculated?
A
% dehydration (as a decimal) x wt in kg = ___ L (volume in liters)
11
Q
How are maintenance fluids calculated?
A
kg x 40-60ml/kg/day = ml/day
ml/day + estimated ongoing losses (V/D) + hydration deficit = ml/day
ml/day divided by 24 hours = ml/hour
12
Q
What 3 values need to be known to calculate a fluid rate?
A
hydration deficit, maintenance needs, ongoing losses
13
Q
Shock blouses are given at ___________ in dogs.
A
80-90ml/kg
14
Q
Shock boluses are given at ___________ in cats.
A
50-55ml/kg
15
Q
How are boluses calcuated?
A
kg x ml/kg = ml total to give
16
Q
How should boluses be given?
A
give 1/4 of total amount then reassess
17
Q
If 50% of shock bolus is not causing significant improvement, what can be added to fluids to help?
A
a colloid
18
Q
What fluids are appropriate for SQ fluids?
A
use isotonic crystalloids only
19
Q
What are the signs of overhydration?
A
increased respiratory rate, increased lung sounds/crackles on lung auscultation, pitting edema, increased blood pressure, chemosis, body weight increase of more than 10 percent
20
Q
What is the drip rate for a micro drip set?
A
60 drops/ml
21
Q
What is the drip rate for a macro drip set?
A
15 drops/ml
22
Q
Which fluids are crystalloids?
A
Normosol R, Plasmalyte, Physiologic saline, Lactated Ringers
23
Q
What kind of crystalloids are Normosol R, Physiologic saline, and Lactated Ringers?
A
isotonic crystalloids
24
Q
Which fluids are colloids?
A
hetastarch, dextran 70, oxyglobin, plasma, albumin, whole blood
25
What type of colloids are hetastarch, dextran 70, and oxyglobin?
synthetic colloids
26
What type of colloids are plasma, albumin, and whole blood?
natural
27
Once given, where do crystalloids go in the body?
they enter all body fluid compartments
28
When are isotonic crystalloids used?
shock, vomiting, diarrhea, pancreatitis
29
When are hypotonic crystalloids used?
can be used to treat hypernatremia or conditions where sodium retention is a problem, not suitable for hypovolemic shock
30
When are hypertonic crystalloids used?
useful in treating shock and intracranial edema
31
Most isotonic crystalloids leave the __________________ space within 30 minutes.
intravascular space
32
Hypotonic fluids hydrate the ________________ space.
extracellular space
33
Hypertonic fluids cause fluid to move out of the ______________________.
interstitial space/intracellular space into the intravascular space
34
Which isotonic crystalloid shouldn’t be used in liver disease?
Lactated Ringers
35
Colloids contain _____________________________.
large molecules that work to hold fluid in the vasculature
36
How is volume of blood transfusion calculated?
Volume to transfuse= 90ml/kg (dog) or 60ml/kg (cat) X weight in kg X (desired PCV minus patient PCV divided by PCV of donor blood)
37
What is the maximum time a blood transfusion should be completed in?
4 hours
38
When are colloids used?
to treat anemia
39
What should blood transfusion be started at?
rate started slowly, 1ml/kg for 10-15 minutes
40
What is a blood transfusion increased to after a slow start?
2ml/kg/hr
41
Sodium bicarbonate is added to fluids to correct ____________.
metabolic acidosis
42
Why do we add potassium to fluids?
supplement for potassium deficits or prevent potassium deficits
43
Why should calcium be given slowly IV?
can cause cardiac arrythmias, arrest and hypotension
44
What drug group is Proparacaine HCl in?
ocular anesthetics
45
What drug group is Latanoprost in?
Prostaglandin
46
What drug group is Pilocarpine HCl in?
Parasympathomimetics/Miotics
47
What drug group is Cyclosporine in?
drugs for KCS
48
What drug group is Dorzolamide HCl in?
Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors
49
What drug group is Atropine in?
Mydriatic Vasoconstrictors
50
What drug group is Prednisolone in?
Steroidal Anti-inflammatory Agents
51
What drug group is Amphotericin B in?
ocular antifungals
52
What drug group is Tobramycin in?
Antimicrobial Ophthalmic Therapy
53
What drug group is Trifluridine in?
ocular antivirals
54
What drugs group is EDTA in?
Antibiotic Potentiating Agents
55
Fluorescein stain in used to diagnose ___________.
ulcers
56
What is a Schirmer Teat Test used to diagnosed?
dry eye
57
What drug group and drugs are used to treat anterior uveitis?
Steroidal Anti-inflammatory Agents
58
What drugs are used to decrease intraocular pressure?
Epinephrine, Timolol, Parasympathomimetics/Miotics, Latanoprost
59
What is Latanoprost used to treat?
glaucoma
60
What drugs are used to treat feline herpesvirus?
ocular antivirals
61
What do Ceruminolytic Agents do?
emulsify cerumen and purulent exudate
62
Why are topical ear mite medications preferred?
mites can live outside ears and can reinfest
63
Why is Atropine used in the eyes?
dilates the pupils, used for pain control caused by corneal disease
64
What is Timolol used for?
treatment of glaucoma
65
What drugs cannot be used when corneal ulcers are present?
Steroidal Anti-inflammatory Agents and Flurbiprofen
66
What drugs are ocular NSAIDs?
Diclofenac sodium, Flurbiprofen sodium, Ketorolac tromethamine
67
What is Tacrolimus used to treat?
KCS
68
What ocular drugs can lead to colic in horses with repeated use?
Atropine
69
What are the locally active emtics?
3% Hydrogen Peroxide
70
What drug group is Maropitant citrate in?
Antiemetic
71
What is the trade name for Maropitant citrate?
Cerenia
72
What drugs are H2 receptor antagonists/blockers?
cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine
73
What drugs are laxatives?
lactulose, magnesium hydroxide, psyllium, metamucil, bran, vetasyl fiber tablets, mineral oil, petrolatum, Docusate sodium
74
What drug group is Metoclopramide in?
Dopaminergic Antagonists
75
What drug group is Cisapride in?
Serotonergic Drugs
76
What drug group are Fortiflora and Proviable in?
Probiotics
77
What drugs are Gastromucosal protectants?
Sucralfate
78
What drug is an antibiotic for the GI tract?
Metronidazole
79
What drug is a common appetite stimulant?
Mirtazapine, Cyproheptadine
80
What drugs are used to treat exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?
Pancrelipase - Pancreazymes
81
Metoclopramide is contraindicated with what condition?
GI obstruction
82
Emetics should be given within how many hours of toxin ingestion?
within 2-4 hours
83
What is the emetic of choice in dogs?
Apomorphine
84
What is the emetic of choice in cats?
Xylazine
85
What drug commonly causes burning at the site of injection?
Maropitant citrate
86
What drugs binds with phosphorus and can be used in kidney failure treatment?
Antacids
87
What drug is used to treat gastric ulcers secondary to NSAID use?
Misoprostal
88
How does hydrogen peroxide work to induce vomiting?
directly irritates pharynx and stomach to induce vomiting
89
Which drugs adsorb toxin are given after toxin ingestion?
bismuth subsalicylate, kaolin/Pectin, activated charcoal
90
What are Meclizine and Dimenhydrinate effective for?
motion sickness
91
What are some bulk producing laxatives?
Metamucil, Bran, Vetasyl fiber tablets
92
What effect does Diazepam have on the GI tract if given IV to cats?
appetite stimulant
93
Antifoaming agents like Therabloat are used in the treatment of ____________.
frothy bloats in ruminants
94
Which drugs is a heartworm “adulticide” used to kill heartworms?
Melarsomine
95
What is Imidocarb used to treat?
Babesia
96
What does Praziquantel treat?
tapeworms
97
What does Clorsulan treat?
liver flukes in cattle
98
What does Pyrantel pamoate treat in small animals?
hookworms, roundworms
99
What does Pyrantel pamoate treat in large animals?
ascarids, strongyles, pinworms
100
What do Afloxolaner and Fluralaner treat?
fleas and ticks
101
What is Metronidazole used to treat?
Giardia
102
What is Nitenpyram?
treats fleas, adulticide that starts working within 30 minutes
103
What does Epsiprantel treat?
various tapeworms in dogs and cats
104
What is the acronym used to describe side effects of organophosphate toxicity and what do the letters stand for?
SLUDGE
salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI upset, emesis
105
What does pyrantel/febantel/praziquantel treat?
roundworm, hookworm, whipworm, some tapeworms
106
Which drug causes transient foaming of the mouth?
Febantel
107
What drug group is Febantel in?
Imidazothiazoles
108
What drug group is Fenbendazole in?
Benzimidazoles
109
What drug group are Ivermectin and Moxidectin in?
Avermectin
110
Pyrantel pamoate is an ________________________.
anti-nematodal drug
111
What drug group is Pyrantel pamoate in?
Tetrahydropyrimidines
112
What is the FDA warning on Isoxaline drugs?
neurological effects
113
What antiparasitic drug causes severe reactions in cats commonly causing toxicity when cats receive dog flea prevention?
Permethrins
114
What drugs are NSAIDs?
Aspirin, Phenylbutazone, Flunixin Meglumine, Dimethyl Sulfoxide (DMSO), Buscopan, Acetaminophen (Tylenol), Carprofen, Ketoprofen, Ibuprofen, Deracoxib, Firocoxib, Meloxicam, Robenacoxib, Grapiprant
115
What drugs are Antihistamines?
Diphenhydramine, Meclizine, Cetirizine, Chlorpheniramine, Hydroxyzine
116
What drugs are muscle relaxants?
Methocarbamol
117
What is the onset of Lidocaine?
short onset, 5-10 minutes
118
What is the duration of Lidocaine?
short duration, 1-2 hours
119
What is the onset of Bupivacaine?
longer onset, 20 minutes
120
What is the duration of Bupivacaine?
longer duration, 4-6 hours
121
What drugs are Opioid Analgesics?
morphine, oxymorphone, hydromorphone, meperidine, codeine
122
What drugs are Dissociative agents?
Ketamine
123
NSAIDs inhibits ________.
cox
124
What are the side effects of NSAIDs?
gastrointestinal ulceration/bleeding and associated GI side effects, hepatoxicity, nephrotoxicity
125
What is Flunixin Meglumine used for?
visceral pain in horses
126
What NSAID causes acute hepatic necrosis in dogs?
Carprofen
127
What drugs cause severe effects/death in cats?
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
128
What conditions are steroids used to treat?
used for anti-inflammatory properties, immunosuppressive effects
129
What type of inhibitors are Deracoxib and Firocoxib?
COX-2 inhibitors
130
What is Phenylbutazone also called?
Bute
131
What are the side effects of corticosteroids?
polyuria/polydipsia, polyphagia, thinning of skin and muscle wasting, delayed healing
132
What can steroid use cause?
Iatrogenic Hyperadrenocorticism
133
What can rapid withdraw of steroids cause?
Hypoadrenocorticism
134
What opioid is a good analgesic that can be given IM, IV, SQ, or transmucosally/sublingual in cats?
Buprenorphine
135
What NSAID is approved for 3 day use in cats?
Robenacoxib
136
A major side effect of Alpha-2 Agonists is ________________.
bradycardia
137
What pain medication can be used as a transdermal patch?
Fentanyl
138
What drug decreases platelet aggregation and is used in treatment of cardiomyopathy in cats?
Aspirin
139
What is the major side effect of giving iron injections into muscle?
muscle staining
140
Erythropoietin is used for the treatment of what disease?
chronic renal failure to help produce RBC
141
What is oxyglobin?
blood substitute labeled for the use of anemia
142
EDTA stops clotting by _________________.
chelation of calcium
143
EDTA is the anticoagulant of choice for ________________________.
hematology tests
144
Aspirin inhibits _______________________.
platelet aggregation
145
Vitamin K is used to treat __________________.
rodenticide toxicity
146
What kind of drugs are Streptokinase and Urokinase?
Fibrinolytic (Thrombolytic) Drugs
147
What do Fibrinolytic Drugs do and what conditions are they used to treat?
used to break down thrombi, treats saddle thrombus in cats
148
Chemotherapeutic drugs have a ________ margin of safety.
low
149
Most common side effect of chemotherapeutic agents is __________________________.
immunosuppression
150
What are the other side effects of immunosuppressants?
V/D, nausea, anorexia, bone marrow suppression, skin sloughing if outside of vein
151
Doxorubicin and Adriamycin have what major toxicity to a major organ?
Cardiotoxicity
152
Which chemotherapeutic agent is specifically contraindicated in cats and what is the pneumonic to remember that contraindication?
Cisplatin - Cisplatin splats cats!!!!
153
Which sole chemotherapeutic agent is specifically used for transitional cell carcinoma?
Piroxicam
154
Which drug is a biologic response modifier?
Interferon
155
Which immunosuppressive drugs are commonly used to treat dry eye?
Optimmune, Tacrolimus
156
What is Oclacitinib used for?
used for pruritis associated with allergic dermatitis
157
What is the trade name for Oclacitinib?
Apoquel
158
What is Cytopoint?
monoclonal antibody treatment
159
What is Cytopoint used to treat?
treats dogs with allergic dermatitis and atopic dermatitis
160
How long does Cytopoint last?
4-8 weeks
161
What are some Aminoglycosides?
Amikacin, Gentamicin, Neomycin, Tobramycin
162
What are some Carbapenems?
Imipenem
163
What are some First Generation Cephalosporins?
Cephalexin, Cefadroxil, Cephapirin, Cefazolin
164
What are some Second Generation Cephalosporins?
Cefotetan, Cefoxitin
165
What are some Third Generation Cephalosporins?
Cefovecin (CONVENIA), Cefpodoxime, Ceftiofur, Ceftriaxone
166
What are some Fourth Generation Cephalosporins?
Cefepime
167
What are some Macrolides?
Azithromycin, Erythromycin, Tulathromycin, Tilmicosin, Tylosin
168
What are some forms of Penicillins?
Amoxicillin, Amoxicillin/Clavulanate, Ampicillin, Penicillin G
169
What are some forms of Tetracyclines?
Doxycycline, Minocycline
170
What are some forms of Lincosamides?
Clindamycin
171
What are some forms of Fluoroquinolones?
Ciprofloxacin, Enrofloxacin, Marbofloxacin, Orbifloxacin
172
What are some forms of Sulfonamides?
Sulfadiazine/Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim (SMZ), Sulfadimethoxine (ALBON)
173
What are some forms of antibacterials?
Chloramphenicol, Florfenicol, Metronidazole, Rifampin, Vancomycin
174
What are some forms of Antifungals?
Amphotericin B, Fluconazole, Griseofulvin, Itraconazole, Ketoconazole
175
What are some forms of Antivirals?
Acyclovir, Famciclovir, Lysine, Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
176
What are bactericidals?
kill the organism
177
What is bacteriostatic?
inhibits growth of organism
178
What kinds of toxicity are seen with aminoglycosides?
nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity
179
What are beta-lactams?
antibiotics that bind to and inactivate enzymes required for cell wall synthesis
180
What are beta-lactamases?
enzymes bacteria produce that break open that ring inhibiting the antibiotic
181
What is the alternate name for Convenia?
Cefovecin
182
What infections are Cephalosporins commonly used to treat?
skin infections, cystitis, respiratory disease
183
What injectable Cephalosporin is used for surgical prophylaxis?
Cefazolin
184
What is Ceftiofur commonly used for in large animal?
used to treat respiratory infection in large animals and foot rot
185
What infections is azithromycin commonly used for?
Bordetella (Kennel Cough) in dogs, Mycoplasma infections, upper respiratory infections in cats
186
What side effect can occur in horses given Erythromycin?
can sometimes cause fatal diarrhea in horses
187
What does Tulathromycin treat?
respiratory infection in non-lactating dairy cattle , bovine foot rot, infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis
188
Tilmicosin is potentially lethal to __________________.
humans, swine and horses
189
What are Tilmicosin and Tylosin used to treat?
bovine respiratory disease, diarrhea in pigs, and poultry diseases
190
Which drug is a potentiated penicillin containing clavulanic acid?
Amoxicillin/Clavulanate
191
What does Clavulanic acid do?
binds beta-lactamases and penicillinases produced by bacterial agents
192
What type of infections might we use the different Penicillins for?
susceptible infections
193
What can Tetracycline cause in young animals?
causes teeth/bone discoloration in young animals
194
What can Doxycycline cause in cats?
esophageal stricture in cats
195
What are Tetracyclines used to treat?
Tick borne diseases (Lyme), Mycoplasma infections and chlamydia (respiratory)
196
What are the side effects of Fluoroquinolones?
cartilage damage in young growing animals
197
Why should Fluoroquinolones be used only after culture and sensitivity?
there is concern for resistance
198
What Fluoroquinolones is commonly used to treat prostate infections?
Enrofloxacin
199
What are the side effects of Sulfonamides?
KCS in dogs, bone marrow suppression, rapid IV injection can cause weakness, blindness, ataxia, collapse, hemolytic anemia
200
What are Sulfonamides used for?
E. coli infection in calves, Colibacillosis in swine, prostate infections, susceptible infections
201
What is Sulfadiazine/Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim (SMZ)
used for?
prostate infections and MRSA
202
What is Sulfadimethoxine used for?
coccidia in dogs, Streptococcus equi in horses, shipping fever complex, bacterial pneumonia and foot rot in cattle
203
What effect does Chloramphenicol have on humans?
aplastic anemia
204
What animals is Chloramphenicol prohibited in?
food animals
205
What are the side effects of Metronidazole?
neurologic disorders (seizures), GI signs, hepatotoxicity there has been reported clostridial diarrhea and death after metronidazole use in horses
206
What is Rifampin used to treat in large animals?
R. equi in young horses
207
What are Lincosamides used to treat?
wounds/abscesses, Toxoplasma in cats, bone infections
208
What is Clindamycin commonly used to treat?
bone, dental infections, and toxoplasmosis
209
What is the treatment of choice for blastomycosis and is FDA approved for treatment of ringworm in cats?
Itraconazole
210
What antifungal is also used in Cushing’s treatment?
Ketoconazole
211
MIC
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration
212
What is MIC?
the lowest concentration that shows inhibition of growth
213
What drugs are used to treat Giardia?
Metronidazole
214
What drugs are used to treat tick borne and rickettsial disease?
Tetracyclines
215
A reported side effect of Fluoroquinolones in cats at higher dosages is:
retinal damage
