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Seminar > Pharmacology Pt. 2 > Flashcards

Pharmacology Pt. 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What percent of the body is made up of water?

A

60%

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2
Q

What percent of the body’s water is intracellular?

A

40%

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3
Q

What percent of the body’s water is extracellular?

A

20%

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4
Q

Of the body’s extracellular water, how much is intravascular?

A

1/4

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5
Q

Of the body’s extracellular water, how much is interstitial?

A

3/4

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6
Q

What physical exam findings would you assess for hydration/dehydration?

A

skin turgor, CRT, MM color

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7
Q

What is mild dehydration?

A

~5%, minimal loss of skin turgor, semidry mucous membranes, normal eyes

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8
Q

What is moderate dehydration?

A

~8%, moderate loss of skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, weak rapid pulses, sunken eyes

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9
Q

What is severe dehydration?

A

~10%, considerable loss of skin turgor, tachycardia, extremely dry mucous membranes, weak/thready pulses, low blood pressure, at 12%, sunken eyes and altered level of consciousness

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10
Q

How is hydration deficit calculated?

A

% dehydration (as a decimal) x wt in kg = ___ L (volume in liters)

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11
Q

How are maintenance fluids calculated?

A

kg x 40-60ml/kg/day = ml/day
ml/day + estimated ongoing losses (V/D) + hydration deficit = ml/day
ml/day divided by 24 hours = ml/hour

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12
Q

What 3 values need to be known to calculate a fluid rate?

A

hydration deficit, maintenance needs, ongoing losses

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13
Q

Shock blouses are given at ___________ in dogs.

A

80-90ml/kg

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14
Q

Shock boluses are given at ___________ in cats.

A

50-55ml/kg

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15
Q

How are boluses calcuated?

A

kg x ml/kg = ml total to give

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16
Q

How should boluses be given?

A

give 1/4 of total amount then reassess

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17
Q

If 50% of shock bolus is not causing significant improvement, what can be added to fluids to help?

A

a colloid

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18
Q

What fluids are appropriate for SQ fluids?

A

use isotonic crystalloids only

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19
Q

What are the signs of overhydration?

A

increased respiratory rate, increased lung sounds/crackles on lung auscultation, pitting edema, increased blood pressure, chemosis, body weight increase of more than 10 percent

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20
Q

What is the drip rate for a micro drip set?

A

60 drops/ml

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21
Q

What is the drip rate for a macro drip set?

A

15 drops/ml

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22
Q

Which fluids are crystalloids?

A

Normosol R, Plasmalyte, Physiologic saline, Lactated Ringers

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23
Q

What kind of crystalloids are Normosol R, Physiologic saline, and Lactated Ringers?

A

isotonic crystalloids

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24
Q

Which fluids are colloids?

A

hetastarch, dextran 70, oxyglobin, plasma, albumin, whole blood

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25
Q

What type of colloids are hetastarch, dextran 70, and oxyglobin?

A

synthetic colloids

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26
Q

What type of colloids are plasma, albumin, and whole blood?

A

natural

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27
Q

Once given, where do crystalloids go in the body?

A

they enter all body fluid compartments

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28
Q

When are isotonic crystalloids used?

A

shock, vomiting, diarrhea, pancreatitis

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29
Q

When are hypotonic crystalloids used?

A

can be used to treat hypernatremia or conditions where sodium retention is a problem, not suitable for hypovolemic shock

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30
Q

When are hypertonic crystalloids used?

A

useful in treating shock and intracranial edema

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31
Q

Most isotonic crystalloids leave the __________________ space within 30 minutes.

A

intravascular space

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32
Q

Hypotonic fluids hydrate the ________________ space.

A

extracellular space

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33
Q

Hypertonic fluids cause fluid to move out of the ______________________.

A

interstitial space/intracellular space into the intravascular space

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34
Q

Which isotonic crystalloid shouldn’t be used in liver disease?

A

Lactated Ringers

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35
Q

Colloids contain _____________________________.

A

large molecules that work to hold fluid in the vasculature

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36
Q

How is volume of blood transfusion calculated?

A

Volume to transfuse= 90ml/kg (dog) or 60ml/kg (cat) X weight in kg X (desired PCV minus patient PCV divided by PCV of donor blood)

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37
Q

What is the maximum time a blood transfusion should be completed in?

A

4 hours

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38
Q

When are colloids used?

A

to treat anemia

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39
Q

What should blood transfusion be started at?

A

rate started slowly, 1ml/kg for 10-15 minutes

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40
Q

What is a blood transfusion increased to after a slow start?

A

2ml/kg/hr

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41
Q

Sodium bicarbonate is added to fluids to correct ____________.

A

metabolic acidosis

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42
Q

Why do we add potassium to fluids?

A

supplement for potassium deficits or prevent potassium deficits

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43
Q

Why should calcium be given slowly IV?

A

can cause cardiac arrythmias, arrest and hypotension

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44
Q

What drug group is Proparacaine HCl in?

A

ocular anesthetics

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45
Q

What drug group is Latanoprost in?

A

Prostaglandin

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46
Q

What drug group is Pilocarpine HCl in?

A

Parasympathomimetics/Miotics

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47
Q

What drug group is Cyclosporine in?

A

drugs for KCS

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48
Q

What drug group is Dorzolamide HCl in?

A

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

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49
Q

What drug group is Atropine in?

A

Mydriatic Vasoconstrictors

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50
Q

What drug group is Prednisolone in?

A

Steroidal Anti-inflammatory Agents

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51
Q

What drug group is Amphotericin B in?

A

ocular antifungals

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52
Q

What drug group is Tobramycin in?

A

Antimicrobial Ophthalmic Therapy

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53
Q

What drug group is Trifluridine in?

A

ocular antivirals

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54
Q

What drugs group is EDTA in?

A

Antibiotic Potentiating Agents

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55
Q

Fluorescein stain in used to diagnose ___________.

A

ulcers

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56
Q

What is a Schirmer Teat Test used to diagnosed?

A

dry eye

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57
Q

What drug group and drugs are used to treat anterior uveitis?

A

Steroidal Anti-inflammatory Agents

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58
Q

What drugs are used to decrease intraocular pressure?

A

Epinephrine, Timolol, Parasympathomimetics/Miotics, Latanoprost

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59
Q

What is Latanoprost used to treat?

A

glaucoma

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60
Q

What drugs are used to treat feline herpesvirus?

A

ocular antivirals

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61
Q

What do Ceruminolytic Agents do?

A

emulsify cerumen and purulent exudate

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62
Q

Why are topical ear mite medications preferred?

A

mites can live outside ears and can reinfest

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63
Q

Why is Atropine used in the eyes?

A

dilates the pupils, used for pain control caused by corneal disease

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64
Q

What is Timolol used for?

A

treatment of glaucoma

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65
Q

What drugs cannot be used when corneal ulcers are present?

A

Steroidal Anti-inflammatory Agents and Flurbiprofen

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66
Q

What drugs are ocular NSAIDs?

A

Diclofenac sodium, Flurbiprofen sodium, Ketorolac tromethamine

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67
Q

What is Tacrolimus used to treat?

A

KCS

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68
Q

What ocular drugs can lead to colic in horses with repeated use?

A

Atropine

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69
Q

What are the locally active emtics?

A

3% Hydrogen Peroxide

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70
Q

What drug group is Maropitant citrate in?

A

Antiemetic

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71
Q

What is the trade name for Maropitant citrate?

A

Cerenia

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72
Q

What drugs are H2 receptor antagonists/blockers?

A

cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine

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73
Q

What drugs are laxatives?

A

lactulose, magnesium hydroxide, psyllium, metamucil, bran, vetasyl fiber tablets, mineral oil, petrolatum, Docusate sodium

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74
Q

What drug group is Metoclopramide in?

A

Dopaminergic Antagonists

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75
Q

What drug group is Cisapride in?

A

Serotonergic Drugs

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76
Q

What drug group are Fortiflora and Proviable in?

A

Probiotics

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77
Q

What drugs are Gastromucosal protectants?

A

Sucralfate

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78
Q

What drug is an antibiotic for the GI tract?

A

Metronidazole

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79
Q

What drug is a common appetite stimulant?

A

Mirtazapine, Cyproheptadine

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80
Q

What drugs are used to treat exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

A

Pancrelipase - Pancreazymes

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81
Q

Metoclopramide is contraindicated with what condition?

A

GI obstruction

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82
Q

Emetics should be given within how many hours of toxin ingestion?

A

within 2-4 hours

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83
Q

What is the emetic of choice in dogs?

A

Apomorphine

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84
Q

What is the emetic of choice in cats?

A

Xylazine

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85
Q

What drug commonly causes burning at the site of injection?

A

Maropitant citrate

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86
Q

What drugs binds with phosphorus and can be used in kidney failure treatment?

A

Antacids

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87
Q

What drug is used to treat gastric ulcers secondary to NSAID use?

A

Misoprostal

88
Q

How does hydrogen peroxide work to induce vomiting?

A

directly irritates pharynx and stomach to induce vomiting

89
Q

Which drugs adsorb toxin are given after toxin ingestion?

A

bismuth subsalicylate, kaolin/Pectin, activated charcoal

90
Q

What are Meclizine and Dimenhydrinate effective for?

A

motion sickness

91
Q

What are some bulk producing laxatives?

A

Metamucil, Bran, Vetasyl fiber tablets

92
Q

What effect does Diazepam have on the GI tract if given IV to cats?

A

appetite stimulant

93
Q

Antifoaming agents like Therabloat are used in the treatment of ____________.

A

frothy bloats in ruminants

94
Q

Which drugs is a heartworm “adulticide” used to kill heartworms?

A

Melarsomine

95
Q

What is Imidocarb used to treat?

96
Q

What does Praziquantel treat?

97
Q

What does Clorsulan treat?

A

liver flukes in cattle

98
Q

What does Pyrantel pamoate treat in small animals?

A

hookworms, roundworms

99
Q

What does Pyrantel pamoate treat in large animals?

A

ascarids, strongyles, pinworms

100
Q

What do Afloxolaner and Fluralaner treat?

A

fleas and ticks

101
Q

What is Metronidazole used to treat?

102
Q

What is Nitenpyram?

A

treats fleas, adulticide that starts working within 30 minutes

103
Q

What does Epsiprantel treat?

A

various tapeworms in dogs and cats

104
Q

What is the acronym used to describe side effects of organophosphate toxicity and what do the letters stand for?

A

SLUDGE
salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI upset, emesis

105
Q

What does pyrantel/febantel/praziquantel treat?

A

roundworm, hookworm, whipworm, some tapeworms

106
Q

Which drug causes transient foaming of the mouth?

107
Q

What drug group is Febantel in?

A

Imidazothiazoles

108
Q

What drug group is Fenbendazole in?

A

Benzimidazoles

109
Q

What drug group are Ivermectin and Moxidectin in?

A

Avermectin

110
Q

Pyrantel pamoate is an ________________________.

A

anti-nematodal drug

111
Q

What drug group is Pyrantel pamoate in?

A

Tetrahydropyrimidines

112
Q

What is the FDA warning on Isoxaline drugs?

A

neurological effects

113
Q

What antiparasitic drug causes severe reactions in cats commonly causing toxicity when cats receive dog flea prevention?

A

Permethrins

114
Q

What drugs are NSAIDs?

A

Aspirin, Phenylbutazone, Flunixin Meglumine, Dimethyl Sulfoxide (DMSO), Buscopan, Acetaminophen (Tylenol), Carprofen, Ketoprofen, Ibuprofen, Deracoxib, Firocoxib, Meloxicam, Robenacoxib, Grapiprant

115
Q

What drugs are Antihistamines?

A

Diphenhydramine, Meclizine, Cetirizine, Chlorpheniramine, Hydroxyzine

116
Q

What drugs are muscle relaxants?

A

Methocarbamol

117
Q

What is the onset of Lidocaine?

A

short onset, 5-10 minutes

118
Q

What is the duration of Lidocaine?

A

short duration, 1-2 hours

119
Q

What is the onset of Bupivacaine?

A

longer onset, 20 minutes

120
Q

What is the duration of Bupivacaine?

A

longer duration, 4-6 hours

121
Q

What drugs are Opioid Analgesics?

A

morphine, oxymorphone, hydromorphone, meperidine, codeine

122
Q

What drugs are Dissociative agents?

123
Q

NSAIDs inhibits ________.

124
Q

What are the side effects of NSAIDs?

A

gastrointestinal ulceration/bleeding and associated GI side effects, hepatoxicity, nephrotoxicity

125
Q

What is Flunixin Meglumine used for?

A

visceral pain in horses

126
Q

What NSAID causes acute hepatic necrosis in dogs?

127
Q

What drugs cause severe effects/death in cats?

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

128
Q

What conditions are steroids used to treat?

A

used for anti-inflammatory properties, immunosuppressive effects

129
Q

What type of inhibitors are Deracoxib and Firocoxib?

A

COX-2 inhibitors

130
Q

What is Phenylbutazone also called?

131
Q

What are the side effects of corticosteroids?

A

polyuria/polydipsia, polyphagia, thinning of skin and muscle wasting, delayed healing

132
Q

What can steroid use cause?

A

Iatrogenic Hyperadrenocorticism

133
Q

What can rapid withdraw of steroids cause?

A

Hypoadrenocorticism

134
Q

What opioid is a good analgesic that can be given IM, IV, SQ, or transmucosally/sublingual in cats?

A

Buprenorphine

135
Q

What NSAID is approved for 3 day use in cats?

A

Robenacoxib

136
Q

A major side effect of Alpha-2 Agonists is ________________.

A

bradycardia

137
Q

What pain medication can be used as a transdermal patch?

138
Q

What drug decreases platelet aggregation and is used in treatment of cardiomyopathy in cats?

139
Q

What is the major side effect of giving iron injections into muscle?

A

muscle staining

140
Q

Erythropoietin is used for the treatment of what disease?

A

chronic renal failure to help produce RBC

141
Q

What is oxyglobin?

A

blood substitute labeled for the use of anemia

142
Q

EDTA stops clotting by _________________.

A

chelation of calcium

143
Q

EDTA is the anticoagulant of choice for ________________________.

A

hematology tests

144
Q

Aspirin inhibits _______________________.

A

platelet aggregation

145
Q

Vitamin K is used to treat __________________.

A

rodenticide toxicity

146
Q

What kind of drugs are Streptokinase and Urokinase?

A

Fibrinolytic (Thrombolytic) Drugs

147
Q

What do Fibrinolytic Drugs do and what conditions are they used to treat?

A

used to break down thrombi, treats saddle thrombus in cats

148
Q

Chemotherapeutic drugs have a ________ margin of safety.

149
Q

Most common side effect of chemotherapeutic agents is __________________________.

A

immunosuppression

150
Q

What are the other side effects of immunosuppressants?

A

V/D, nausea, anorexia, bone marrow suppression, skin sloughing if outside of vein

151
Q

Doxorubicin and Adriamycin have what major toxicity to a major organ?

A

Cardiotoxicity

152
Q

Which chemotherapeutic agent is specifically contraindicated in cats and what is the pneumonic to remember that contraindication?

A

Cisplatin - Cisplatin splats cats!!!!

153
Q

Which sole chemotherapeutic agent is specifically used for transitional cell carcinoma?

154
Q

Which drug is a biologic response modifier?

A

Interferon

155
Q

Which immunosuppressive drugs are commonly used to treat dry eye?

A

Optimmune, Tacrolimus

156
Q

What is Oclacitinib used for?

A

used for pruritis associated with allergic dermatitis

157
Q

What is the trade name for Oclacitinib?

158
Q

What is Cytopoint?

A

monoclonal antibody treatment

159
Q

What is Cytopoint used to treat?

A

treats dogs with allergic dermatitis and atopic dermatitis

160
Q

How long does Cytopoint last?

161
Q

What are some Aminoglycosides?

A

Amikacin, Gentamicin, Neomycin, Tobramycin

162
Q

What are some Carbapenems?

163
Q

What are some First Generation Cephalosporins?

A

Cephalexin, Cefadroxil, Cephapirin, Cefazolin

164
Q

What are some Second Generation Cephalosporins?

A

Cefotetan, Cefoxitin

165
Q

What are some Third Generation Cephalosporins?

A

Cefovecin (CONVENIA), Cefpodoxime, Ceftiofur, Ceftriaxone

166
Q

What are some Fourth Generation Cephalosporins?

167
Q

What are some Macrolides?

A

Azithromycin, Erythromycin, Tulathromycin, Tilmicosin, Tylosin

168
Q

What are some forms of Penicillins?

A

Amoxicillin, Amoxicillin/Clavulanate, Ampicillin, Penicillin G

169
Q

What are some forms of Tetracyclines?

A

Doxycycline, Minocycline

170
Q

What are some forms of Lincosamides?

A

Clindamycin

171
Q

What are some forms of Fluoroquinolones?

A

Ciprofloxacin, Enrofloxacin, Marbofloxacin, Orbifloxacin

172
Q

What are some forms of Sulfonamides?

A

Sulfadiazine/Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim (SMZ), Sulfadimethoxine (ALBON)

173
Q

What are some forms of antibacterials?

A

Chloramphenicol, Florfenicol, Metronidazole, Rifampin, Vancomycin

174
Q

What are some forms of Antifungals?

A

Amphotericin B, Fluconazole, Griseofulvin, Itraconazole, Ketoconazole

175
Q

What are some forms of Antivirals?

A

Acyclovir, Famciclovir, Lysine, Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

176
Q

What are bactericidals?

A

kill the organism

177
Q

What is bacteriostatic?

A

inhibits growth of organism

178
Q

What kinds of toxicity are seen with aminoglycosides?

A

nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

179
Q

What are beta-lactams?

A

antibiotics that bind to and inactivate enzymes required for cell wall synthesis

180
Q

What are beta-lactamases?

A

enzymes bacteria produce that break open that ring inhibiting the antibiotic

181
Q

What is the alternate name for Convenia?

182
Q

What infections are Cephalosporins commonly used to treat?

A

skin infections, cystitis, respiratory disease

183
Q

What injectable Cephalosporin is used for surgical prophylaxis?

184
Q

What is Ceftiofur commonly used for in large animal?

A

used to treat respiratory infection in large animals and foot rot

185
Q

What infections is azithromycin commonly used for?

A

Bordetella (Kennel Cough) in dogs, Mycoplasma infections, upper respiratory infections in cats

186
Q

What side effect can occur in horses given Erythromycin?

A

can sometimes cause fatal diarrhea in horses

187
Q

What does Tulathromycin treat?

A

respiratory infection in non-lactating dairy cattle , bovine foot rot, infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis

188
Q

Tilmicosin is potentially lethal to __________________.

A

humans, swine and horses

189
Q

What are Tilmicosin and Tylosin used to treat?

A

bovine respiratory disease, diarrhea in pigs, and poultry diseases

190
Q

Which drug is a potentiated penicillin containing clavulanic acid?

A

Amoxicillin/Clavulanate

191
Q

What does Clavulanic acid do?

A

binds beta-lactamases and penicillinases produced by bacterial agents

192
Q

What type of infections might we use the different Penicillins for?

A

susceptible infections

193
Q

What can Tetracycline cause in young animals?

A

causes teeth/bone discoloration in young animals

194
Q

What can Doxycycline cause in cats?

A

esophageal stricture in cats

195
Q

What are Tetracyclines used to treat?

A

Tick borne diseases (Lyme), Mycoplasma infections and chlamydia (respiratory)

196
Q

What are the side effects of Fluoroquinolones?

A

cartilage damage in young growing animals

197
Q

Why should Fluoroquinolones be used only after culture and sensitivity?

A

there is concern for resistance

198
Q

What Fluoroquinolones is commonly used to treat prostate infections?

A

Enrofloxacin

199
Q

What are the side effects of Sulfonamides?

A

KCS in dogs, bone marrow suppression, rapid IV injection can cause weakness, blindness, ataxia, collapse, hemolytic anemia

200
Q

What are Sulfonamides used for?

A

E. coli infection in calves, Colibacillosis in swine, prostate infections, susceptible infections

201
Q

What is Sulfadiazine/Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim (SMZ)
used for?

A

prostate infections and MRSA

202
Q

What is Sulfadimethoxine used for?

A

coccidia in dogs, Streptococcus equi in horses, shipping fever complex, bacterial pneumonia and foot rot in cattle

203
Q

What effect does Chloramphenicol have on humans?

A

aplastic anemia

204
Q

What animals is Chloramphenicol prohibited in?

A

food animals

205
Q

What are the side effects of Metronidazole?

A

neurologic disorders (seizures), GI signs, hepatotoxicity there has been reported clostridial diarrhea and death after metronidazole use in horses

206
Q

What is Rifampin used to treat in large animals?

A

R. equi in young horses

207
Q

What are Lincosamides used to treat?

A

wounds/abscesses, Toxoplasma in cats, bone infections

208
Q

What is Clindamycin commonly used to treat?

A

bone, dental infections, and toxoplasmosis

209
Q

What is the treatment of choice for blastomycosis and is FDA approved for treatment of ringworm in cats?

A

Itraconazole

210
Q

What antifungal is also used in Cushing’s treatment?

A

Ketoconazole

211
Q

MIC

A

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration

212
Q

What is MIC?

A

the lowest concentration that shows inhibition of growth

213
Q

What drugs are used to treat Giardia?

A

Metronidazole

214
Q

What drugs are used to treat tick borne and rickettsial disease?

A

Tetracyclines

215
Q

A reported side effect of Fluoroquinolones in cats at higher dosages is:

A

retinal damage

Seminar (18 decks)

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