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Daily reviewers > Pharmacology Pearls > Flashcards

Pharmacology Pearls Flashcards

1
Q

Bactericidal Antibiotics

A

Very Finely Proficient at Murder!

Vancomycin Fluroquinolones Penicillins Aminoglycosides Metronidazole

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2
Q

Bacteriostatic Antibiotics

A

ECSTaTiC with bacteriostatics!

Erythromycin 
Clindamycin 
Sulfamethoxazole 
Trimethoprim 
Tetracycline 
Chloramphenicol
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3
Q

Narrow Spectrum Penicillins.

SE: Hypersensitivity

A

Penicillin G

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4
Q

Penicillinase-resistant penicillins

SE: Interstitial Nephritis

A

Methicillin *

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5
Q

Extended-spectrum Penicillins

SE: Pseudomembranous Colitis

A

Ampicillin

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6
Q

Antipseudomonal Penicillin

SE: Hypertension, hypervolemia, bleeding

A

Ticarcillin

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7
Q

Oral Penicillin

A

Penicillin V

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8
Q

IV Penicillin

A

Penicillin G

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9
Q

Between Ampicillin and Amoxicillin which has greater oral bioavailability?

A

AMPed up penicillin (Ampicillin)

greater Oral bioavailability (amOxcicillin)

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10
Q

Amoxicillin enterococci coverage

A

Amoxicillin HELPS kill Enterococci

Haemophilus influenzae
Escherichia Coli
Listeria monocytogenes
Proteus mirabilis
Salmonella spp
Enterococci
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11
Q

Takes Care of Pseudomonas

A

TCP: Ticarcillin Carbenicillin Piperacillin

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12
Q

1st generation Cephalosporin
high bone penetration
surgical prophylaxis
greatest Gram + coverage

SE: Hypersensitivity reaction

A

Cefazolin

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13
Q

2nd generation Cephalosporin
added gram negative coverage

SE: Disulfiram reaction

A

Cefamandole

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14
Q

3rd generation Cephalosporin
Pseudomonas coverage

SE: Disulfiram reaction

A

Cefoperazone

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15
Q

Most efficacious Cephalosporin against Pseudomonas Aeroginosa

A

Ceftazidime

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16
Q

4th generation Cephalosporin

broad spectrum activity G+/-

A

Cefepime

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17
Q

Cephalosporin with the best penetration of the BBB

A

Ceftriaxone

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18
Q

1st generation Cephalosporin Microbe Coverage

A

PEKpek

Proteus
E. Coli
Klebsiella

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19
Q

1st generation Cephalosporins

A

FADer, help me FAZ my Pharmacology boards!

CeFADroxil ceFAZolin cePHalothin cePHapirin cePHradine cePHalexin

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20
Q

2nd generation microbe coverage

A

PEKpek of HENS:

Proteus mirabilis
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae

Haemophillus influenzae
Enterobacter aerogenes
Neiserria spp
Serratia marcescens

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21
Q

2nd generation cephalosporins

A

in a FAMily gathering you can see your FOXy cousin wearing a FUR coat and drinking TEA.

FAC! LORA the PROfessional AZhOLE is still on the FONe

ceFAMandole, ceFOXitin, ceFURoxime, cefoTEtan, ceFAClor, LORAcarbef, cefPROzil, cefmetAZOLE, ceFONicid

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22
Q

Cephalosporins with Disulfiram Reaction

A

Cefamandole
Cefmetazole
Cefotetan
Cefoperazone

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23
Q

3rd generation Cephalosporins

A

Fenge PO ng PERA to FIX my TTTTTV! ceFEtamet, cefPOdoxin, cefoPERAzone, ceFIXime, cefTriaxone, cefTazidime, cefoTaxime, cefTizoxime, cefTibuten

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24
Q

Anti-pseudomonal Cephalosporins

A

Cefoperazone
Ceftazidime
Cefipime

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25
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors that binds to 50s subunit

SE: aplastic anemia, gray baby syndrome

A

Chloramphenicol

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26
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors that binds to 30s subunit

SE: tooth enamel discoloration, photosensitivity

A

Tetracycline

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27
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors that binds to 50s subunit
DOC for penicillin-allergic patients

SE: Diarrhea, cholestatic jaundice

A

Macrolide (Erythromycin)

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28
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors that binds to 50s subunit
Highest volume of distribution
single dose administration

A

Azithromycin

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29
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors that binds to 50s subunit
anaerobic coverage

SE: Pseudomembranous Colitis

A

Clindamycin

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30
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors that binds to 50s subunit, next line after Vancomycin resistance

A

Linezolid

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31
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors that affect the 30s subunit

A

Tetracycline & Aminoglycoside

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32
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors that affect the 50s subunit

A

Streptogrammin, Erythromycin (Macrolide), Linezolid

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33
Q

Treatment for anaerobic infections ABOVE the diaphragm

A

Clindamycin

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34
Q

Treatment for anaerobic infections BELOW the diaphragm

A

Metronidazole

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35
Q

Prototype aminoglycoside, bactericidal, which binds to the 30s subunit

SE: Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

A

Gentamycin

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36
Q

Bactericidal antibiotic which binds to the 30s subunit, for ocular infection treatment

A

Tobramycin

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37
Q

Bactericidal antibiotic which binds to the 30s subunit, an adjunct to Tuberculosis treatment

A

Streptomycin

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38
Q

Bactericidal antibiotic which binds to the 30s subunit, a treatment to drug-resistant gonorrhea

A

Aminoglycoside - Streptomycin

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39
Q

Bactericidal antibiotic which binds to the 30s subunit, widest spectrum of activity, pseudomonas coverage, narrow therapeutic window

A

Amikacin

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40
Q

Bactericidal antibiotic which binds to the 30s subunit, treatment for hepatic encephalopathy

A

Neomycin

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41
Q

Aminoglycoside of choice for anaerobic infections

A

None, they require O2 for transport thus won’t work under anaerobic conditions

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42
Q

Side effects of Aminoglycosides

A

NOT! Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, teratogenic

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43
Q

This drug blocks dihydropteroate synthase

A

Sulfamethoxazole

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44
Q

Blocks dihydrofolate reductase

A

Trimethoprim & Methotrexate

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45
Q

Sequential blockade in folate synthesis, bactericidal together, for UTI SE: Hypersensitivity (SJS, TEN), kernicterus, hemolysis in patients with G6PD

A

TMP-SMX

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46
Q

Treatment for Burn infections

A

Sulfadiazine

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47
Q

2nd generation quinoline, treatment for UTI and GIT infections SE: Tendinitis

A

Ciprofloxacin

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48
Q

3rd generation quinolone which could be used as treatment for pulmonary infections

A

Levofloxacin

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49
Q

4th generation quinoline, broad spectrum of activity, anaerobic coverage, treatment for ocular infections

A

Moxifloxacin

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50
Q

4th generation quinolone SE: Diabetes mellitus

A

Gatifloxacin

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51
Q

Side effect of Fluroquinolones thus avoid giving to pediatric patients

A

FluroquinoLONES hurt attachments of your BONES (cartilage damage)

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52
Q

Anti-mycobacterial agent that inhibits mycolic acid synthesis SE: Neurotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, sideroblastic anemia, drug induced Lupus, Potent cyp450 inhibitor

A

Isoniazid

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53
Q

Anti-mycobacterial drug that inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, rapidly develops resistance SE: red orange urine, hepatotoxicity

A

Rifampicin

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54
Q

Anti-mycobacterial that inhibits arabinogalactan synthesis SE: Visual dysfunction (Retrobulbar neuritis, color blindness)

A

Ethambutol

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55
Q

Anti-mycobacterial drug that is generally bacteriostatic but is bactericidal on actively dividing MTB SE: Hyperuricemia, greatest effect on hepatotoxicity

A

Pyrazinamide

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56
Q

Anti-mycobacterial drug which binds to the 30s subunit of the ribosome SE: Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

A

Streptomycin

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57
Q

Hepatotoxic TB Drugs

A

Isoniazid < Rifampin < Pyrazinamide

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58
Q

Most active drug against M. Leprae, Inhibits Folate synthesis SE: Methemoglobinemia, G6PD

A

Dapsone

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59
Q

Drug for M. Leprae that Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase SE: Red-orange urine, delays onset of Dapsone resistance

A

Rifampicin

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60
Q

Drug for M. Leprae that is a Phenazine dye which binds to guanine bases SE: Skin discoloration

A

Clofazimine

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61
Q

Anti-microbial agents that is the silver bullet against gram negative bacteria, no gram positive coverage, with PSEUDO COVERAGE

A

Aztreonam

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62
Q

Beta-Lactamase Inhibitors

A

Clavulanic Acid

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63
Q

Treatment for MRSA SE: Red man syndrome

A

Vancomycin

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64
Q

Anti-microbial drug of last resort, broad spectrum of activity SE: CNS Toxicity

A

Meropenem

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65
Q

Anti-microbial with anaerobic, and antiprotozoal coverage, treatment for pseudomembranous colitis SE: Disulfiram reaction, metallic taste, neurotoxicity

A

Metronidazole

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66
Q

Anti-microbial treatment for UTI SE: Pulmonary Fibrosis

A

Nitrofurantoin

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67
Q

Anti-microbial drugs of Last Resort

A

I AM your Last Shot at Victory: Imipenem, Amikacin, Meropenem, Linezolid, Streptogramins, Vancomycin

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68
Q

Most efficacious anti-fungal drug, forms artificial pores

SE: Nephrotoxicity (RTA, ATN)

A

Amphotericin B

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69
Q

Topical Treatment of dermatophytosis and candidiasis

SE: Gynecomastia and a CYP450 inhibitor

A

Ketoconazole

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70
Q

Prophylaxis and treatment of candidiasis and cryptococcus

A

Fluconazole

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71
Q

Interferes with fungal microtubules

SE: Potent CYP450 inducer

A

Griseofulvin

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72
Q

Treatment fo candidiasis (oropharyngeal, esophageal, vaginal), swish and swallow of suppository preparations

A

Nystatin

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73
Q

Treatment of HSV and VZV, requires activation by viral thymidine kinase

SE: Crystalluria

A

Acyclovir

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74
Q

Treatment of CMV, requires activation by viral thymidine kinase

A

Gangciclovir

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75
Q

Treatment of HSV, VZV, CMV. Does NOT require thymidine kinase activation

A

Foscarnet

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76
Q

Prevents viral uncoating, influenza A coverage

SE: cerebellar dysfunction, livedo reticularis

A

Amantadine

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77
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitor

DOC for Influenza

A

Oseltamivir

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78
Q

Hepatitis B infection treatment

A

Lamivudine

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79
Q

Hepatitis C infection and RSV infection

A

Ribavirin

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80
Q

Amantadine blocks ___ and ___ causes problems with the ___.

A

Influenza A, rubellA, cerebellA

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81
Q

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
requires phosphorylation
primary drug for HIV
prevents vertical transmission of HIV

SE: Lactic Acidosis

A

Zidovudine (AZT)

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82
Q

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), No phosphorylation required

A

Delavirdine

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83
Q

Indinavir

A

Protease inhibitor SE: Fat redistribution syndrome, hyperlipidemia, insulin resistance

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84
Q

Fusion inhibitor which binds to the gp41 subunit

A

Enfuvirtide *

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85
Q

Binding inhibitor, CCR5 antagonist

A

Maravirol

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86
Q

Nonnucleoside reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)

A

Never Ever Deliver Nucleosides: Nevirapine, Efavirenz, Delavirdine

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87
Q

Protease Inhibitors

A

All protease inhibitors end with -navir. NAVIR every TEASE a PROTEASE

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88
Q

Primary drug for malaria. Prevents heme polymerization into hemozoin SE: Retinal Damage, hearing loss

A

Chloroquine

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89
Q

Chloroquine-resistance
severe malaria
DOC for pregnant patients with malaria

SE: Hypoglycemia, Blackwater fever, Cinchonism

A

Quinine

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90
Q

Drug to eradicate hyponozoites of P. Vivax and Ovale

A

Primaquine

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91
Q

Chemoprophylaxis (Chloroquine-resistant areas)

A

Mefloquine, Malarone

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92
Q

Chemoprophylaxis (Multi-drug resistant Malaria drug areas)

A

Doxycycline

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93
Q

DOC for Malaria in the the Philippines (P. Falciparum)

A

Co-artem

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94
Q

Treatment for Asymptomatic cyst carries of E. Histolytica

A

Diloxanide Furoate

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95
Q

Treatment for amebic dysentery, trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

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96
Q

Treatment for Cryptosporidium parvum infection

A

Nitaxoxanide

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97
Q

Treatment for Toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimethamine Sulfadiazine

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98
Q

Treatment for African sleeping sickness

A

Suramin & Melosoprol

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99
Q

Treatment for Chagas diase

A

Nifurtomix

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100
Q

Treatment for Leishmaniasis

A

Stibogluconate

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101
Q

Inhibits helmithic microtubules, ovicidal

A

Mebendazole

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102
Q

Inhibits helmithic microtubules, ovicidal, larvicidal, DOC for hydatid disease (echinococcus)

A

Albendazole

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103
Q

DOC for Filaria and Loa Loa

SE: Filarial Fever

A

DEC

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104
Q

DOC for Strongyloides and Onchocerca

SE: Mazotti reaction

A

Ivermectin

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105
Q

DOC for enterobius Vermicularis

A

Pyrantel Palmoate (Combantrin)

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106
Q

DOC for Trichinosis

A

Thiabendazole

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107
Q

DOC for Trematodes and Cestodes EXCEPT Echinococcus

A

Praziquantel

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108
Q

Back up drug for Praziquantel

A

Niclosamide

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109
Q

Sedative hypnotic drug, acute anxiety attacks, anesthesia induction, preoperative sedation

A

Midazolam

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110
Q

Seizure disorders (Status epilepticus), alcohol withdrawal, Tranquilizer

A

Diazepine

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111
Q

Date rape drug

A

Flunitrazepam

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112
Q

Antidote to benzodiazepine overdose

A

Flumanezil

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113
Q

Anesthesia induction, Lethal unjection, truth serum

A

Thiopental

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114
Q

Seizure disorders in children, SE: Precipitates porphyria, potent inducer of CYP450

A

Phenobarbital

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115
Q

Gaba receptor effects which increases frequency of GABA channel opening? Duration?

A

FREnzodiazepines (Frequency), BarbiDURATes (Duration)

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116
Q

Abnormal sleep pattern resulting from benzodiazepine use

A

Decreased REM Sleep

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117
Q

Which benzodiazepine has the longest half-life?

A

Chlordiazepoxide (36-200 hour halflife)

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118
Q

Drugs considered as date-rape drugs

A

Alcohol, Flunitrazepam, Gamma hydroxybutyrate

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119
Q

Shortest acting sedative hypnotic

A

Thiopental (TAYO agad)

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120
Q

Sleep disorder drugs

A

Zolpidem, Zalepion

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121
Q

Drug for always anxious people

A

BUSpirone for BUSy people

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122
Q

Sedative hypnotic poisoning symptoms

A

Hot Hot Hot DeCisioN: Hypothermia, hypotension, hypoactive bowel sounds, disinhibition, coma, nystagmus

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123
Q

Most frequently abused drug, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in overdose, delirium tremens in withdrawal

A

Ethanol

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124
Q

Prevention of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

A

Thiamine (Vitamin B1)

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125
Q

Treatment for Alcohol Withdrawal

A

Diazepam

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126
Q

Wood Alcohol SE: Visual dysfunction due to formaldehyde accumulation

A

Methanol

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127
Q

Antifreeze SE: Nephrotoxicity, dye to oxalic acid accumulation

A

Ethylene Glycol

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128
Q

Alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor

A

Fomepizole

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129
Q

Aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor

A

Disulfiram

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130
Q

Disulfiram reaction drugs

A

Clara took the Pre-Medical Test in the PM: Chlorpropamide, Cefo (Perazone, Mandole, Tetan, Procarbazine,), Metronidazole

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131
Q

Anti-serizure drug that is a potent CYP450 inducer SE: gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, fetal hydantoin syndrome

A

Phenytoin

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132
Q

Potent CYP450 inducer, DOC for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia SE: Blood dyscracias

A

Carbamazepine

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133
Q

Potent CYP450 inhibitor, DOC for seizures in children and pregnant women SE: Teratogen (Porphyria)

A

Phenobarbitals

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134
Q

Potent CYP450 inhibitor, DOC for GTC, and myoclonic seizures SE: Teratogen (Spina Bifida)

A

Valproic Acid

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135
Q

DOC for absence seizures

A

Ethoxsuximide

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136
Q

DOC for status epilepticus

A

Diazepam

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137
Q

Treatment for neuropathic pain

A

Gabapentin

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138
Q

Anti-seizure drug which cayses SJS as its side effect

A

Lamutrigine

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139
Q

Summary Anti-seizure drugs DOC for GTC

A

Valproic acid, Phenytoin, carbamazepine

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140
Q

Summary Anti-seizure drugs DOC for Partial Seizure

A

Carbamazepine, Lamotrigine, Phenytoin

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141
Q

Summary Anti-seizure drugs DOC for Absence Seizures

A

Ethosuximide, Valproic Acid

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142
Q

Summary Anti-seizure drugs DOC for Myoclonic and Atypical Absence Syndromes

A

Valproic Acid

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143
Q

Summary Anti-seizure drugs DOC for Status Epilepticus

A

Lorazepam, Diazepam, Phenytoin, Phenobarbital

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144
Q

Highest MAC (lowest potency) SE: Euphoria

A

Nitrous oxide

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145
Q

Not clearly described MOA SE: Pulmonary irritant

A

Desflurane

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146
Q

Not clearly defined MOA, postoperative hepatitis, malignant hyperthermia

A

Halothane

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147
Q

Lowest MAC (highest potency) slowest induction and recovery

A

Methoxyflurane

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148
Q

Dissociative anesthesia, NMDA receptor blocker SE: Emergence Delirium

A

Ketamin

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149
Q

Anesthesia for patients with limited cardiopulmonary reserve SE: Adrenal suppression

A

Ethomidate

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150
Q

Prolonged sedation, Milk of magnesia SE: Hypotension

A

Propofol

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151
Q

How to distinguish local anesthetics if they are esters or amides?

A

esters one I (tetracaine, procaine, benzocaine); amides to ii (Bupivacaine, Ropivacaine, Lidocaine)

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152
Q

Which local anesthetics have the shortest and longest half-lives?

A

A PRO finishes the race fastest (Procaine 1-2 mins), at the end of the long ROPe (Ropivacaine 4.2 hours)

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153
Q

Why should we not inject Licodaine in to absecesses

A

won’t work due to acidic environment

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154
Q

What is the toxic dose of Lidocaine

A

5mg/kg, 1% = 10mg/ml

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155
Q

Skeletal muscle relaxant that is a prototype non-depolarizine neuromuscular blocker se: orthostatic hypotension

A

Tetradotoxin

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156
Q

Skeletal muscle relaxant that undergoes Hoffman elimination SE: Bronchospasm, most frequently used nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Atracurium

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157
Q

Skeletal muscle relaxant that is used for lethal injection, strychnine poisoning

A

Pancuronium

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158
Q

Reversal agent for non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockage

A

neostigmine

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159
Q

Skeletal muscle relaxant that is the only depolarizing neuromuscular blocker SE: Malignant Hyperthermia, affected by pseducholinesterase activity

A

Succinylcholine

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160
Q

Treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia

A

Dandrolene

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161
Q

Drug of choice for Parkinson’s disease

A

Levodopa + Carbidopa

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162
Q

Bromocriptine

A

Treatment of hyperprolactenemia SE: Erythromelalgia, pulmonary fibrosis

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163
Q

Entacapone

A

Adjnctive drug for wearing off phenomenon

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164
Q

Antiparkinsonism drug with antiviral properties, SE: Livedo reticularis, cerebellar ataxia

A

Amantadine

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165
Q

Improves tremor and rigidity but has no effect of bradykinesia, atropine like effects

A

Benztropine

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166
Q

Parkinson’s disease symptoms

A

It’s a TRAP: Tremor, Rigidity, Akinesia, Postural instability

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167
Q

Livedo reticularis causing drugs

A

A man reads FHM and GQ! Amantadine, Hydroxyurea, Minocycline, Gemcitabine, Quinidine

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168
Q

Prototype atypical antipsychotic drug SE: Corneal and lens deposits, failure of ejaculation

A

Chlorpromazine

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169
Q

Treatment of Floridly psychotic patients SE: Major EPS (Neuroleptic Malignant syndrome)

A

Haloperidol

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170
Q

DOC for suicidal and refractory schizophrenics SE: Agranulocytosis

A

Clozapine

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171
Q

2nd generation antipsychotic SE: Marked with gain, hyperglycemia

A

Olanzapine

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172
Q

2nd generation antipsychotic SE: Priaprism, hypnagogic hallucinations

A

Quetiapine

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173
Q

Anti-psychotic for schizophrenia in the youth SE: Marked prolactinemia

A

Risperidone

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174
Q

Drug for Mania SE: Nephrogenic DI, Teratogen (Ebstein’s Anomaly)

A

Lithium

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175
Q

Features of Neuroleptic Malignant syndrome

A

FEVER! Fever, Encephalopathy, Vitals unstable, Elevated CPK, Rigidity

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176
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressant, Treatment of enuresis SE: Atropine-like effects, Cardiotoxicity

A

Imipramines

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177
Q

SSRI, First line for MDD SE: Erectile dysfunction, serotonin syndrome

A

Fluoxetine,

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178
Q

SNRI SE: Hypertension

A

Venlafaxine

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179
Q

Serotonin Antagonist SE: Priparism

A

Trazodone

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180
Q

Tetracyclic antidepressant, smoking cessation SE: Weight loss, priaprism, seizures

A

Bupropion

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181
Q

MAOi SE: Hypertensive crisis when taken with tyramine (cheese), serotonin syndrome

A

Phenelzine

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182
Q

Features of TCA overdose

A

CCC: Coma, convulsion, cardiotoxicity

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183
Q

Erectile dysfunction drugs

A

A SORE Penis can’t Fuck Hard! SSRIs, Opiates, Risperidones, Ethanol, Propanolol, Estrogens, Spironolactone, Finasteride, Hydrochlorothiazide

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184
Q

Priaprism causing drugs

A

Tigas Penis Qu AyaW Bumaba! Trazodone, Papaverine, Sildenafil, Quetiapine, Alprostadil, Warfarin, Bupropion

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185
Q

Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome

A

FAT CHD! Fever Agitation Tremor Clonus Hyperreflexia Diaphoresis

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186
Q

Prototype Opiod (Full agonist) SE: Miosis, respiratory depression, constipation

A

Morphine

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187
Q

Drug for Severe Pina, Breakthrough Cancer pain, available in lollipop form or transdermal patch

A

Fentanyl

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188
Q

Opiod of choice for acute pancreatitis, does NOT cause miosis SE: Seizures

A

Meperidine

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189
Q

Replacement therapy for opiod dependence

A

Methadone

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190
Q

Cough suppression drug

A

dextrometorphan

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191
Q

Balanced anesthesia, frequently abused by healthcare professionals

A

Nalbuphine

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192
Q

Antidote for opiod overdose

A

Naloxone

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193
Q

Treatment for opiod depence

A

Naltrexone

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194
Q

Opiods with the longest and shortest half-lives

A

REMIFENTANIL: Shortest (3-4 mins), Buprenorphine: Longest (4-8 hours)

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195
Q

Opiod overdose triad

A

Miosis, coma, respiratory depression

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196
Q

Opiod receptor functions

A

Mu (Mubagal huminga, delTa (Tolerance), Kappa (Konstipation)

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197
Q

Drug of abuse which causes euphoria, sleeplessness, self-confidence

A

Amphetamine

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198
Q

Drug of abuse which causes sexual enhancement, hyponatremia

A

MDMA

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199
Q

Drug of abuse which causes mydriasis, crack lung, teratogen (cystic cortical lesions)

A

Cocaine

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200
Q

Most dangerous hallucinogen, psychotomimetic effects, nystagmus

A

Phenylcycline

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201
Q

Psychedelic effect drug of abuse which causes out of body experiences, mind raveling effects, bad trips

A

LSD

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202
Q

Drug of abuse which causes a dream like state, red conjunctiva, tachycardia, dry mouth

A

Marijuana

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203
Q

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, lowers LDL SE: Hepatotoxicity, rhabdomyolysis, myopathy

A

Statin

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204
Q

Bile acid binding resin, lowers LDL SE: Constipation & Steatorrhea

A

Cholestyramine ***

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205
Q

Cholesterol absorption blocker, lowers LDL

A

Ezetimide

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206
Q

Reduces all building blocks of hyperlipidemia, increases HDL, lowers LDL and TG SE: Flushing, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia

A

Niacin

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207
Q

PPAR-a activator, upregulates lipoprotein lipase, lowers TF SE: Gallstones, additive myopathy

A

Gemfibrozil

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208
Q

Why are statins used in the management of coronary artery disease?

A

Stabilizes atherosclerotic plaque

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209
Q

Drugs that cause flushing

A

Vancomycin, adenosin, niacin, CCB

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210
Q

Treatment of genetic short stature, failure to thrive

A

Somatropin

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211
Q

Treatment of acromegaly, variceal bleeding

A

Octreotide

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212
Q

Treatment of hyperprolactenemia, prolactinoma

A

Bromocriptine

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213
Q

Labor induction and augmentation, control of PPF SE: Fluid retendion

A

Oxytocin

214
Q

Treatment for Central DI

A

Desmopressin

215
Q

Treatment of hypothyroidism, myxedema coma

A

Levothyroxine

216
Q

Inhibits thyroid peroxidase, blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 SE: Aganulocytosis, DOC in pregnant hyperthyroid patients

A

PTU

217
Q

Inhibits Thyroid Perocidase SE: Agranulocytosis, Teratogen (Aplasia Cutis)

A

Methimazole

218
Q

Preferred treatment for hyperthyroidism SE: Permanent hypothyroidism

A

Radioactive Iodine

219
Q

Reduces size and vascularity of thyroid gland

A

Lugol’s Solution or SSKI

220
Q

Symptomatic treatment of hyperthyroidism, decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

A

Propanolol

221
Q

Difference between Wolf-Chaikoff effect from Jod-Basedow phenomenon?

A

WC: Iodine Ingestion leads to hypothyroidism JB: leads to hyperthyroidism

222
Q

Anti-thyroid drugs that inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

A

Propanolol, PTU, Hydrocortisone

223
Q

Drugs that cause drug-induced hyperthyroidism

A

Clofibrate, Amiodarone, Methadone?*

224
Q

Acute Adrenal Insufficiency, Status Asthmaticus, Thyroid Storm

A

Hydrocortisone

225
Q

Prototype oral glucocorticoid SE: Adrenal suppresion, cushing syndrome

A

Prednisone

226
Q

Hastens fetal lung maturation

A

Betamethasone

227
Q

Mineralocorticoid replacement for chronic adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)

A

Fludrocortisone

228
Q

Two steroids you have to give for hypoadrenalism

A

Prednisone and Fludrocortisone

229
Q

Most frequently used synthetic estrogen in OCPs SE: Hypertension, DVT/PE, endometrial CA, CI in women AGE >35, who are heavy smokers

A

Ethynyl estradiol

230
Q

Female gonadal hormone drug which has this SE: Clear cell vafinal adenoCA in daughter

A

Diethylsilbestrol

231
Q

Prevents estrogen-induced endometrial CA

A

Norgestrel

232
Q

OCP of choice in lactating women

A

DMPA

233
Q

Emergency contraception, Yuzpe Regimen

A

Levonorgestrel

234
Q

Hormone-reponsive breast CA SE: Endometrial CA

A

Tamoxifen

235
Q

Ovulation induction SE: Multiple pregnancies

A

Clomiphen

236
Q

Treatment for endometriosis

A

Danazol

237
Q

Medical Abortion

A

Mifepristone

238
Q

Treatment of male hypogonadism SE: Virilization, paradoxical feminization

A

Testosterone

239
Q

Anabolic steroids, illegal performance enhancers

A

Oxanprolone

240
Q

treatment of prostate cancer, coadministered to prevent acute flareups of tumor

A

Flutamide + Leuprolide, FLUtangina it’s a FAKE androgen

241
Q

5-a-reductase inhibitor, treatment for BPH and male pattern baldness

A

Finasteride

242
Q

Most efficatious antidiabetic drug which activates tyrosine Kinase SE: Hypoglycemia, lipodystrophy

A

Insulin

243
Q

1st generation SU SE: Hypoglycemia, weight gain, Disulfiram reaction

A

Chlorpromaide

244
Q

2nd generation SU SE: Hypoglycemia, weight gain, disulfiram reaction

A

Glipizide

245
Q

Newer insulin secretagogue, no hypoglycemia

A

Repaglinide

246
Q

First line antidiabetic drug, decreases gluconeogenesis SE: Lactic acidosis, weight loss, GI upset

A

Metformin

247
Q

TZC, Acts on PPAR-gamme, insulin sensitizer SE: CHF

A

Pioglitazone

248
Q

a-glucosidase inhibitor SE: Flatulence

A

Acarbose

249
Q

Insulin noteable drugs

A

LISpro (mabiLIS), gLARGine (Go Large), LANTus (LANTa na sa sobrang tagal!)

250
Q

Which patients are more prone to developing hypoglycemia with insulin use?

A

Advanced renal disease, elderly, children younger than 7 years

251
Q

Inactive Vitamin D, treatment for Rickets and osteomalacia

A

Ergocalciferol

252
Q

Active Vitamin D, Tx of 2 Hyperparathyroidism

A

Calcitriol

253
Q

Treatment of Paget’s disease of bone, hypercalcemia, Tumor marker for medullary thyroid Carcinoma

A

Calcitonin

254
Q

Supresses osteoclast activity, treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone and osteoporosis SE: Esophagitis

A

Alendrolate

255
Q

Phosphate-binding resin

A

Sevelamer

256
Q

PTH Function

A

Phosphate trashing hormone

257
Q

Symptoms of Excess PTH

A

Painful bones, renal stones, abdominal groans, psychic overtones

258
Q

Function of calcitonin

A

Tones down calcium in the body

259
Q

Neutralizes stomach acids SE: Diarrhea-constipation (Cancels each other)

A

Maalox

260
Q

Greatly suppresses nocturnal acid secretion, H2 blocker SE: Gynecomastia

A

Cimetidine

261
Q

Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase, DOC for PUD and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

Omeprazole

262
Q

Prokinetic agent, antiemetic DOC for diabetic gastroparesis

A

Metoclopromide

263
Q

Osmotive Laxatice, treatment of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose

264
Q

Stimulant Laxative SE: Melanosis Coli

A

Senna

265
Q

Opiod antispasmodic, DOC for noninfectious diarrhea SE: Paralytic ileus (in children)

A

Loperamide

266
Q

Magnesium hydroxide vs Aluminum Hydroxide differences

A

MAGtatae ka! (Diarrhea) vs Ayaw LUMabas (Constipation)

267
Q

Taxanes

A

M-phase: Albumin bound paclitaxel, Docetaxel, Paclitaxel

268
Q

Vinca alkaloids

A

M-phase: Vinblastine, Vincristine, Vinorelbine

269
Q

Antimicrotubules inhibitor

A

M-phase: Ixabepilone

270
Q

Antitumor antibiotics (G2-M Phase)

A

Bleomycin

271
Q

Anthracyclines

A

Daunorubicin, doxorubicin, epirubicin, idarubicin, mitoxantrone

272
Q

Antitumor abtibiotics

A

dactinomycin, mitomycin

273
Q

Camptothecins (Topoisomerase I inhibitors)

A

Irinotecan, Topotecan

274
Q

Platinum Analogs

A

Carboplatin, Cisplatin, Oxaliplatin

275
Q

Antimetabolites (S-phase)

A

5-flurouracel, 6-merceptopurine

276
Q

Alkylating Agents

A

Busullfan
Carmustine
Cyclophosphamide
Dacarbazine

277
Q

Treatment of Lymphomas is using the alkylating agent SE: Hemorrhagic systitis. What is its Rescue agent?

A

Cyclophosphamide (Rescue: Mesna)

278
Q

Alkylating agent side effect of this drug is marked vesicant actions (Skin blistering)

A

Mechlorethiamine

279
Q

Alkylating agent used for the treatement of Colon Cancer SE: Ototoxicity, Nephrotoxicity. What is its rescue agent?

A

Cisplatin (Rescue: Amifox)

280
Q

This alkylating agent’s SE are Disulfiram reaction and Leukemogenesis

A

Procarbazine

281
Q

Side effect of this alkylating agent is Pulmonary Fibrosis, bone marrow sparing

A

Bulsulfan

282
Q

Alkylating agent used in the treatment of brain tumors SE: CNS Toxicity

A

Carbustine

283
Q

Which drugs cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

BBBAN ME! Bleomycin, Busulfan, Bromocriptine, Amiodarone, Nitrofurantoin, Methotrexate

284
Q

Antimetabolite used for the treatment of lymphomas and GTN SE: Myelosuppression, pulmonary fibrosis. What is its rescue agent?

A

Methotrexate (Leucovorin or Folinic acid)

285
Q

Antimetabolite. Treatment of acute leukemia. SE: Myelosuppression, hepatotoxicity, metabolism inhibited by allopurinol

A

6-mercaptopurine

286
Q

Treatment of colorectal and skin cancer, causes thymine-less death of cells. SE: Myelosuppression

A

5-Flurouracil

287
Q

Treatment of CML in blast crisis, most specific for the S phase of the cell cycle. Antimetabolite.

A

Cytarabine

288
Q

Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, treatment of pancreatic cancer

A

Gemcitabine

289
Q

Vinca alkaloid. Prevents microtubule assembly. SE: Peripheral neuropathy

A

Vincristine

290
Q

Podophyllotoxin, inhibits DNA topoisomerase II, Treatment of lung cancer, Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma and GTN

A

Etoposide

291
Q

Camptothecin, inhibits DNA topoisomerase I, treatment of small cell lung cancer

A

Topotecan

292
Q

Taxane, prevents mictrotubule disassembly, advanced breast and ovarian cancers

A

Paclitaxel

293
Q

Intercalating agent SE: dilated cardiomyopathy. What is its rescue agent?

A

Doxorubicin (Rescue agent: Dexrazoxane)

294
Q

Treatment of testicular cancer SE: Pulmonary fibrosis, most specific for the G2 phase of the cell cycle

A

Bleomycin

295
Q

Treatment of melanoma, Wilms tumor and GTN

A

Actinomycin D

296
Q

Tyrosine Kinase inhibitor, Treatment of CML SE: Fluid retention, multiple drug interaction

A

Imatinib

297
Q

Treatment of metastatic breast cancer, active against cells expressing HER-2/neu

A

Transtuzumab

298
Q

Inhibits VEGF, Treatment of metastatic cancers

A

Bevacizumab

299
Q

Differentiation therapy, treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia, only vitamin that can cure cancer

A

All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)

300
Q

Acute arsenic poisoning, acute mercury poisoning, chronic severe lead poisoning SE: Hypertension

A

Dimercaprol

301
Q

Pica, ingestion of flakes of paint, abdominal colic, acute encephalopathy, wrist drop, mental retardation

A

Lead

302
Q

Chronic Lead poisoning (oral treatment)

A

Succimer

303
Q

Chronic severe lead poisoning SE: Hypocalcemia

A

EDTA

304
Q

Rice-water stools, garlicky breath, Mee’s lines, raindrop pigmentation, milk and roses complexion

A

Arsenic

305
Q

Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis, renal failure, loosening of gums and teeth, erethism

A

Inorganic Mercury

306
Q

Minamata disease (Cerebral palsy, deafness, blindness, mental retardation)

A

Organic Mercury

307
Q

Severe GI Necrosis, hemosiderosis, restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Iron

308
Q

Acute iron poisoning, hemochromatosis

A

Deferoxamine

309
Q

Hepatotoxicity, Kayser-Fleisher rings, sunflower cataracts

A

Copper

310
Q

Copper poisoning, Wilson’s disease SE: Drug induced lupus

A

Penicillamine

311
Q

Anti-neoplastic drug known for its nephrotoxicity and acoustic nerve damage

A

Cisplatin and carboplatin

312
Q

Anti-neoplastic drug known for its Peripheral Neuropathy

A

Vincristine

313
Q

Anti-neoplastic drug known for Pulmonary Fibrosis

A

Bleomycin

314
Q

Anti-neoplastic drug known for Hemorrhagic Cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide (Rescue: Mesna)

315
Q

Anti-neoplastic drug known for its Severe Myelosuppressive effects

A

Methotrexate, 5-flurouracil, 6-mercaptopurine

316
Q

Refers to the amount of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation

A

bioavailability

317
Q

used to determine the safety and efficacy of generic drugs vs the innovator drug

A

bioequivalence

318
Q

Measures the dose oir concentration required to bring about 50% of the drug’s maximal effect

A

potency

319
Q

dose at which 50% of the individuals exhibit the specified quantal effect

A

Median effective dose

320
Q

dose at which 50% of the animals manifest a particular toxic effect

A

Median Toxic dose

321
Q

Transfer of drug from site of administration to blood stream

A

Absorption

322
Q

Refers the apparent volume into which the drug is able to distribute

A

Volume of distribution

323
Q

Eliminination of a drug at a constant rate

A

Zero order kinetics

324
Q

Elimination at a rate that is proportional to the serum concerntraion of the drug

A

First order kinectic

325
Q

Addition of a polar moiety (sulfate, acetate, or glucoronate)

A

Phase II Metabolism

326
Q

Use of CYP450 system (oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, or deamination)

A

Phase I Metabolism

327
Q

Describes the rate at which a specific drug is cleared from the system

A

Clearance

328
Q

Refers to the amount of time required for the amount of the drug in the body to decrease to half of its value after the administration of the drug has been stopped.

A

Half-life

329
Q

Defined ast the single amount of drug that is needed to achieve a desired plasma concentration quickly

A

Loading dose

330
Q

Amount of drug that must be given over time in order to maintain a desired plasma concentration

A

Maintenance dose

331
Q

Used as a measure of drugs safety

A

Therapeutic dose

332
Q

Formula for therapeutic index

A

TD50 / ED50

333
Q

Refers to the dosage range between the minimum effective therapeutic concenration of dose and minimum toxic concentration or dose

A

Therapeutic window

334
Q

Substance that shifts the graded dose-response curve to the right

A

Competitive antagonists

335
Q

Substance that does not produce the same maximum effect and is exhibited by a decrease in the Emax

A

Partial agonist

336
Q

Substance that depress the graded-dose response curve

A

Irreversible antagonist

337
Q

An agonist that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all or only incidentally with the receptor

A

Chemical antagonist

338
Q

The action of the drug on the body

A

Pharmacodynamics

339
Q

The action of the body on the drug

A

Pharmacokinetics

340
Q

Permeation that is governed by Fick’s Law

A

Aqueous diffusion, Lipid Diffusion

341
Q

Permeation that is saturable and inhibitable

A

Carrier Transport

342
Q

Adverse effect that is infrequently observed in most patients.

A

Idiosyncratic

343
Q

Responsiveness decreases as a consequence of continued drug administration

A

Tolerance

344
Q

Responsiveness diminishes rapidly after drug administration

A

Tachyphylaxis

345
Q

Induction of developmental defects in the fetus

A

Teratogenesis

346
Q

Induction of malignant characteristics in cells

A

Carcinogenesis

347
Q

Induction of changes in the genetic material of animals of any age

A

Mutagens

348
Q

Cytochrome P450 Inducers

A

Ethyl Booba takes Phen-Phen and Refuses Greasy Carb Shakes: Ethanol Barbituates Phenytoin, Rifampicin, Griseofulvin, Carbamazepine, St. John’s Wort / Smoking

349
Q

Cytochrome P450 Inhibitors

A

Queen Victoria’s SICK GEAR: Quinidine, Valproic Acid, Sulfonamide, Isoniazid, Carbamazepine, Ketoconazole, Grapefruit Juice, Erythromycin, Amiodarone, Rifampicin

350
Q

Route of drug administration with 100% bioavailability

A

IV

351
Q

Route of drug administration with First pass effect

A

Oral

352
Q

Route of drug administration with partial avoidance of first pass effect

A

Rectal

353
Q

Route of drug administration with application to skin for local effect

A

Topical

354
Q

Route of drug administration with appllication to skin for systemic effect (80% bioavailability; prolonged absorption)

A

Transdermal

355
Q

Phase of drug study with a small number of volunteers

A

I

356
Q

Phase of drug study which answers the question “does it work in patients?”

A

II

357
Q

Phase of drug study when a randomized, double blind, controlled trial is done

A

IIII

358
Q

Phase of drug study with post-marketing surveillance

A

IV

359
Q

A drug for rare diseases

A

Orphan drug

360
Q

How do you hasten extretion of an overdose with a weak base like Diphenhydramine

A

Acidyfying agent: Ammonium Chloride

361
Q

How do you hasten extretion of an overdose with a weak acid like Aspirin

A

Alkalynyzing agent: Sodium Bicarbonate

362
Q

Located in the Smooth muscles binding to these receptors promote vasoconstriction (Epi>NE»Isoprotenol)

A

Alpha 1

363
Q

Located in the presynaptic NT binding to these receptors inhibits relase of Neurotransmitters (EPI>NE)

A

Alpha 2

364
Q

Located in the heart binding to these receptors increase rate and contractility (Isoprotenon>Epi>NE)

A

Beta 1

365
Q

Located in the respiratory Smooth Muscles binding to these receptors promote bonchoconstriction / vasodilation (Isoprotenol>epi>NE)

A

Beta 2

366
Q

Located in the splanchnic and renal vessels binding to these receptors promote vasodilation of renal blood vessels

A

Dopamine 1

367
Q

Located in the nerve terminals of the CNS binding to these receptors regulate neurotransmitters

A

Dopamine 2

368
Q

Bowel and bladder atony

A

Betanechol (Direct acting muscarinc action M2-M3)

369
Q

Treatment for Sjoren Syndrome

A

Pilocarpine (Direct acting muscarinic M1,M2,M3)

370
Q

Diagnosis of myesthenia gravis, differentiation of myasthenic and cholinergic crisis

A

Edrophonium (Indirect acting cholinomimetic, hydrolysis of cholinesterase)

371
Q

Treatment of myasthenia gravis

A

Neostigmine (Cholinimimetic, indirect acting)

372
Q

Reversal of non-depolarizing neuromuscular block

A

Neostigmine

373
Q

Treatment of glaucoma

A

Physostigmine

374
Q

Diagnosis of bronchial hyperreactivity

A

Methacoline (direct acting)

375
Q

Treatment of Alzheimer’s disease (Cholinergic Drug)

A

Donepezil (acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)

376
Q

Components of Sjogren Syndrome

A

Autoimmune triad of: Xerostomia, Xerophthalmia & Rheumatoid Arthritis

377
Q

Components of Myasthenia Gravis

A

Autoimmune destruction of nicotinic Ach receptors characterized by fluctuating muscle weakness (ocular symptoms, bulbar symptoms, proximal muscle weakness)

378
Q

Differentiate myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis

A

Myasthenic crisis (acute worsening of symptoms due to infection, stress, or UNDER medication) Cholinergic crisis (excessive activation of cholinoreceptors due to OVER medication)

379
Q

How does Edrophonium differentiate myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis?

A

Edrophonium IMPROVES muscle strength in myasthenic crisis and WEAKENS muscle strength in cholinergic crisis

380
Q

Small cell cancer may present with a myasthenia like paraneoplastic syndrome. What is this condition called?

A

Lambert-Eaton syndrome: Destruction of presynaptic voltage gate Ca Channels by antibodies

381
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of organophosphate poisoning?

A

DUMBBELSS: Diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation (skeletal muscle and CNS), sweating, salivation

382
Q

Cholinergic antagonist that leads to induction of mydriasis and cycloplegia

A

Tropicamide

383
Q

Treatment for Sinus bradycardia

A

Atropine

384
Q

Cholinergic antagonist for Parkinson’s disease

A

Benztropine

385
Q

Cholinergic antagonist for COPS

A

Ipratropium (M3 antagonist)

386
Q

Cholinergic antagonist for motion sickness, sea sickness

A

Scopolamine

387
Q

Gastrointestinal Spasms

A

Hyoscyamine

388
Q

Treatment for organophosphate poisoning/ nerve gas poisoning

A

Atropine & Pralidoxime

389
Q

Muscarinic antagonists for Parkinsons disease

A

TRI to park your BENZ and make BIP BIP: TRIhexyphenidyl, BENZtropine, BIPeriden

390
Q

Why is ipratropium the preferred bronchodilator in patients with comorbid COPD and heart disease?

A

Ipratropium is less likely to cause tachycardia and cardiac arryhthmias

391
Q

Signs of atropine toxicity?

A

HOT as a hare, DRY as a bone, RED as a beet, BLIND as a bat, MAD as a hatter

392
Q

DOC for anaphylactic shock, adjunct to local anesthesia, cardiac arrest, croup

A

Epinephrine

393
Q

Acute CHF, cardiac stress testing

A

Dobutamine

394
Q

Acute CHF, Shock (Cardiogenic, septic)

A

Dopamine

395
Q

Drug of last resort for shock

A

Norepinephrine

396
Q

Nasal congestion, mydriasis WITHOUT cycloplegia

A

phenylephrine

397
Q

SE: Rebound hypertension of this antihypertensive on discontinuation

A

Clonidine

398
Q

Drug for preeclampsia SE: Hemolytic anemia (positive coombs test)

A

Methyldopa

399
Q

Bronchial asthma, COPS

A

Salbutamol (B2-agonist)

400
Q

Tocolysis for preterm labor

A

Terbutaline (B2-agonist)

401
Q

Preoperative treatment for pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

402
Q

Treatment for rebound hypertension

A

Phentolamine

403
Q

BPH SE: First dose orthostatic hypotension

A

Prazosin (Give before bed time)

404
Q

Angina prophylaxis, hyperthyroidism, masks hypoglycemia in diabetics

A

Propanolol

405
Q

Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

A

Pindolol

406
Q

Beta-1 selectivity

A

Atenolol

407
Q

Treatment for glaucoma adrenergic antagonist which decreases production of aquaeous humor

A

Timolol

408
Q

Combined alpha and beta blockade

A

Labetalol

409
Q

What are drugs used to control blood pressure in pheochromocytoma?

A

Phenoxybenzamine, Phentolamine, Labetalol

410
Q

What is the pharmacologic advantage of a1 selectivity?

A

Reflex tachycardia is less common and less severe

411
Q

Isisoproterenol a beta blocker?

A

Is a ISOproterenol is NOT a beta blocker it is a nonselective beta agonist

412
Q

What drugs have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?

A

Pindolol, Acebutolol

413
Q

Adrenergic antagonist with the longest half life

A

Nadolol (NAsaDOLO)

414
Q

Adrenergic antagonist with the shortest half life

A

Esmolol (Esmol)

415
Q

What is the formula for blood pressure?

A

BP = COxSVR

416
Q

What is the expanded formula for your blood pressure?

A

BP=HRxSVxSVR

417
Q

First line drug for essential hypertension

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

418
Q

Hypertension with comorbid CHF/ DM SE: cough, angioedema, CI in bilateral RAS

A

Captopril (Ace-i)

419
Q

Coughing with ACE inhibitors alternative

A

Losartan (ARBs)

420
Q

Hypertension with comobid BPH

A

Prazosin (a1-blocker)

421
Q

Pre-eclampsia (maintenance medication) SE: Hemolytic anemia (positive coombs test)

A

Methyldopa

422
Q

Pre-eclampsia (acute BP lowering) SE: Reflex tachycardia, drug induced lupus

A

Hydralazine

423
Q

Hypertensive emergency SE: Hypertrichosis

A

Minoxidil

424
Q

Hypertensive emergency SE: Cyanide poisoning

A

Nitroprusside

425
Q

Treatment of cyanide poisoning

A

Inhaled Amyl Nitrite + IV sodium nitrite + IV sodium thiosulfate

426
Q

Which portion of the electron transport chain is affected by cyanide?

A

Complex IV (Cytochrome Oxidase)

427
Q

Relief of acute anginal attacks SE: headache

A

NTG, ISDN (short onset)

428
Q

Angina maintenance (Vascular > Cardiac effect) SE: Flushing edema, gingival hyperplasia

A

Nifedipine (dihydropterydine)

429
Q

Angina maintenance (Vascular < Cardiac effect) vasospastic angina, Raynaud’s phenomenon, doest NOT cause gingival hyperplasia

A

Diltiazem (non-dihydropteryine)

430
Q

Supraventricular tachycardia (Cardiac > Vascular) SE: Gingival hyperplasia

A

Verapamil (non-DHP)

431
Q

Why do patients taking nitrates usually experience throbbing headaches?

A

Dilation of meningeal

432
Q

Why is calcium-dependent neurotransmission or hormone realease not affected by CCBs?

A

CCBs block L-type calcium channels other functions use N,P, and R types

433
Q

Drugs that cause gingival hyperplasia

A

NapaCa Pangit ng gingiVa mo! Nifedipine, Cyclosporine, Phenytoin, Verapamil

434
Q

Positive inotrope for heart failure SE arrythmias (PVC AVB) RG color blindness, yellow visual haloes

A

Digoxin

435
Q

Treatment for pulmonary edema in CHF

A

Furosemide

436
Q

First line drug for chronic CHF, cardioprotective, prevents cardiac remodelling

A

Ace-I, ARB

437
Q

Improves survival (decreases mortality) in CHF

A

Ace-I, ARB, BB, Spironolactone

438
Q

Decreases hospitalizations in CHF

A

Digoxin

439
Q

Improves survival in CHF patients of African-American descent

A

Hydralazine + ISDN

440
Q

What drugs have been shown to improve survival in cases of heart failure?

A

ABA! Buhay ka pa! ACEi, Beta Blockers, Aldosterone antagonists

441
Q

Treatment of all types of arrythmias, WPW syndrome SE: Drug induced lupus

A

Procainamide

442
Q

SE: Cinchonism (headache, tinnitus, vertigo)

A

Quinidine

443
Q

Post-MI arrythmias, digitalis arrhytmias, SE Seizures

A

Lidocaine

444
Q

CI post-MI, refractory arrythmia

A

Fleicanide

445
Q

Perioperative and thyrotoxic arrhythmias, SVT

A

Esmolol

446
Q

SE: dose-dependent torsades de pointes

A

Sotalol

447
Q

Most efficacious antiarrythmic, SE: Skin deposits, pulmonary fibrosis, hyper/ hypothyroidism

A

Amiodarone

448
Q

Outpatient management of SVT SE: Gingival hyperplasia

A

Verapamil

449
Q

What are the effects of class I antiarrythmics on action potential duration?

A

1A: prolongs AP 1B: shortens 1C: no change

450
Q

Class IA Anti-arrhythmics

A

I Am the Queen who Proclaimed Diso’s pyramid: Quinidine, Procainamide, Dysopyramide

451
Q

Class IB Anti-arrhytmics

A

I Buy Mexican Taco’s from Lili: Mexiletine, Tocainide, Lidocaine (Best post MI)

452
Q

Class IC Anti-arrhytmics

A

Chicken ay Pagkain for Enrico: IC: Propafenone, Flecainide, Encainide (IC: CI post MI)

453
Q

Drugs that causes agranulocytosis

A

CCCAPPIT! Clozapine, Co-trimoxazole, colchicine, aminopyrine, phenybutazone, PTU, ondimethacin, Tocainide

454
Q

Amiodarone Toxicity

A

Pulmonary fibrosis, paresthesias, tremors, thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, skin deposits

455
Q

Why are dihydropyridine CCBs not useful as antiarrhytmics

A

They evoke compensatory sympathetic discharge which facilitates arrhytmias rather than terminating them

456
Q

Antiarrythmics that prolong AP duration, PR interval, QRS duration, QT interval

A

1A Procainamide

457
Q

Anti-arrythmics that shorten AP duration and has NO effect on normal cells on the ECG

A

1B Lidocaine

458
Q

Anti-arrythmics that has no effect on AP duration, but prolongs QRS duration on ECG

A

1C Flecainide

459
Q

Anti-arrythmics that has no effect on AP duration, but prolongs PR interval on ECG

A

2 Propanolol

460
Q

Anti-arrythmics that prolongs AP duration, and prolongs QT interval on ECG

A

3 Dofetilide

461
Q

Anti-arrythmics that has no effect on AP duration, but prolongs PR interval on ECG

A

4 Verapamil

462
Q

This acts on the PCT, treatment of glaucoma and mountain sickness SE: NAGMA, hepatic encephalopathy

A

Acetazolamide

463
Q

Acts on TAL, treatment of pulmonary edema, most efficacious diuretic SE: ototoxicity, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia

A

Furosemide

464
Q

Acts on DCT SE: Hyper GLUC

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

465
Q

Acts on PCT, DCT, CCD, Treatment of rhabdomyolysis and increased ICP, CI in heart failure

A

Mannitol

466
Q

HAGMA drugs

A

MUDPILES

467
Q

NAGMA drugs

A

HARDUP

468
Q

Adverse effects associates with loop diuretics

A

OH DANG! Ototoxicity, Hypokelemia, Dehydration, Allergy to sulfa, Nephritis, Gout

469
Q

Adverse effects of Thiazide diuretics

A

HYPER GLUC

470
Q

What drugs can cause gynecomastia

A

Some Drugs Create Awesome Knockers: Spironolactone, Digoxin, Cimetidine, Alcohol, Ketoconazole

471
Q

Treatment of iron deficiency anemia

A

Ferrous sulfate

472
Q

treatment of megaloblastic anemia, Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Cyanocobalamin

473
Q

Treatment of megaloblastic anemia, prevention of Neural tube defects (Spina Bifida)

A

Folic acid

474
Q

Anemia in chronic kidney disease

A

Erythropoetin

475
Q

Treatment of neutropenia and agranulocytosis

A

Figrastim (GMCSF)

476
Q

Treatment of chemotherapy induced thrombocytopenia

A

Opelverin (Thrombopoeitin)

477
Q

Acute treatment of DVT, PE and AMI SE: Bleeding thrombocytopenia, monitor with PTT

A

Heparin

478
Q

LMWH less risk of thrombocytopenia, no need for monitoring

A

Enoxaparin

479
Q

Treatment of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A

Lepirudin

480
Q

Antidote to heparin-induced bleeding

A

Protamine-Sulfate

481
Q

Chronic anti-coagulation SE: Bleeding skin necrosis, and many drug interactions

A

Warfarin

482
Q

Antidote to warfarin (Immediate and over time)

A

FFP, Vitamin K

483
Q

What laboratory tests will you request to assess intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways

A

PTT (intrinsic) PT (extrinsic

484
Q

In patients requiring anticoagulation, why is an overlap between heparin and warfarin usually done?

A
  1. Warfarin’s effect requires elimination of preformed clotting factors (8-60h) 2. to bypass initial prothrombic effect of warfarin (skin necrosis)
485
Q

Thrombolysis in AMI, ischemic CVD and PE SE Bleeding

A

Alteplase, R-TPA

486
Q

Bacteria-derived thrombolytic, decreased effect on subsequent uses due to antibody formation

A

Streptokinase

487
Q

Antidote to thrombolytic overdose

A

Aminocaproic Acid (Tranexamic acid)

488
Q

Irreversible COS inhibitor, instant prevention of arterial thrombosis SE: Tinnitus, hypersensitivity, Reye Syndrome

A

Aspirin

489
Q

ADP inhibitor, additive effects with Aspirin

A

Clopidogrel

490
Q

Glycoprotein IIb-IIIa inhibitor

A

Abciximab

491
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

A

Dipyridamole

492
Q

How many 500 mg aspirin tablets must be ingested to produce toxicity? death?

A

toxic dose 150mg/kg x70kg = 21 tablets, lethal dose 500mg/kg = 70 tabs

493
Q

Triad for aspirin hypersensitivity

A

Sampter’s triad: aspirin hypersensitivity, asthma, nasal polyp

494
Q

What are the signs of ASA poisoning?

A

Aspirin poisoning C-H-A-F-S (Coma, hyperventilation, Acidosis (HAGMA), Fever, Seizure

495
Q

What is the expected acid-base abnormality in salicylate poisoning?

A

Respiratory alkalosis with HAGMA

496
Q

What is the difference between an inhibitor and an uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation ?

A

Inhibitors completely halt ETC, uncouplers: dissipate proton gradient without interrupting ETC

497
Q

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, lowers LDL SE: Hepatotoxicity, rhabdomyolysis, myopathy

A

Simvastatin

498
Q

Bile acid binding resin, lowers LDL SE constipation steatorrhea

A

Cholestyramine

499
Q

Cholesterol absorption blocker, lowers LDL

A

Ezetmibe

500
Q

Reduces all building blocks for hyperlipidemia, increases HDL, lowers LDL and TG se: flushing hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia

A

Niacin (Vitamin B3)

501
Q

PPAR-a activator, upregulated lipoprotein lipase, lowers TG SE: Gallstones, additive myopathy

A

Gemfibrozil

502
Q

Why statins are used in the management of coronary artery disease?

A

For atherosclerotic plaque stabilization

503
Q

What are the drugs that cause flushing?

A

VANC: Vancomycin, Adenosine, Niacin, CCB

504
Q

Irreversibly inhibits COX 1 & 2

A

Aspirin

505
Q

Reversible inhibitor COX 1 & 2

A

NSAIDS (Ibuprofen)

506
Q

Irreversibly inhibits COX 2

A

Celecoxib

507
Q

Reversibly inhibits COX 1 and 2, antipyretic of choice in pediatric population

A

Paracetamol

508
Q

Treatment of hypersensitivity SE: Sedation

A

Diphenhydramine

509
Q

Adjunct for motion sickness, vertigo

A

Meclizine

510
Q

Treatment of hypersensitivity, non-sedating

A

Cetirizine

511
Q

Treatment of peptic ulcers SE Gynecomastia

A

Cimetidine

512
Q

Drug of choice for migraine and cluster headache

A

Sumatriptan

513
Q

Treatment for postop and postchemo vomiting

A

Ondansetron

514
Q

adjunct for migraine and cluster headache

A

Ergotamine

515
Q

Treatment of postpartum bleeding

A

Ergonovine

516
Q

SE: retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

Methylsergide

517
Q

PGE-1 analog used for erectile dysfunction and also maintains PDA patency

A

Alprostadil

518
Q

PGE-1 analog which is used for NSAID induced gastritis

A

Misoprostol

519
Q

PGEF2A analog which is used for chronic glaucoma

A

Latanoprost

520
Q

PGE2 analog which could be used as an abortifacient or cervical ripening

A

Dinoprost

521
Q

PGF2A analog which could be used as an abortifacient

A

Carboprost

522
Q

PGI2 analog which could be used for pulmnonary hypertension

A

Epoprostenol

523
Q

Drug of choice for acute asthma attacks

A

Salbutamol (B2-agonist)

524
Q

adjunct for asthma maintenance

A

Salmeterol

525
Q

Prophylaxis for nocturnal asthma SE Seizures, antidote: Propanolol

A

Theophylline (Methylxanthines)

526
Q

Bronchodilator of choice in COPD

A

Ipratropium

527
Q

Stabilizes mast cells, No bronchodilator effect

A

Cromolyn

528
Q

Drug of choice for asthma maintenance SE: oral candidiasis, growth stunting

A

Fluticasone

529
Q

Lipoxygenase inhibitor, SE: Increase AST/ALT

A

Zileuton

530
Q

Blocks slow-reacting substances of anaphylaxis (Leukotrienes C4, D4, E4)

A

Montelukast

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