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Daily reviewers > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

0
Q

What is the most common extraintestinal form of a parasite presenting with an anchovy like aspirate?

A

Amebic liver abscess

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1
Q

Dysentery without fever, flasked shaped ulcers, Charcot-Leyden crystals on fecal smears. What is the treatment of this pathogen?

A

Cyst: Diloxanide furoate
Trophozoites: Metronidazole

Entamoeba histolytica

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2
Q

This parasite has an acute and chronic phase. Acute: abdominal pain, diarrhea, flatulence, smelling like rotten eggs.
Chronic: Constipation, weight loss, and steatorrhea.

What is the motility pattern of this parasite

A

Giardia Lambia: Falling leaf motility

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3
Q

Treatment for this organism which presents with a foul-smelling greenish vaginal discharged accompanied by itching and burning. Strawberry cervix is a clinical feature.

A

Metronidazole
treatment for
Trichomonas Vaginalis

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4
Q

Recurrence of symptoms after a temporary abatement (2-4) weeks. What do you call this clinical outcome and which organism is it noted in?

A

Recrudescence could be cause by P. Falciparum and P. Malariae

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5
Q

Return of a disease after its apparent cessation (1-6 months) due to reactivation of hyponozoites is seen in which organisms?

A

Relapse is seen in P. ovale and in P. Vivax

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6
Q

What kind of stains and smear do you use for Malaria?

A

Thick smears to screen for the presence of organism. Thin smear is for species identification. Giemsa stain is the stain used.

Highest yield when blood samples are taken during fever or 2-3 hours after peak.

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7
Q

Punctate granulations present in red bood sell invaded by P. Ovale and P. Vivax

A

Schuffner dots

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8
Q

Coarse granulations present in red blood cells invaded by P. falciparum

A

Maurer dota

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9
Q

Fine dots present in red blood cells invaded by P. malariae

A

Ziemann dots

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10
Q

What is a finding seen in cerebral malaria?

A

Durke granuloma

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11
Q

Acute renal failure in malaria is called?

A

Blackwater Fever

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12
Q

High endemicity areas of malaria

A

Palawan, Kalinga-Apayao, Ifugao, Agusan del Sur

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13
Q

Areas of chloroquine-resistance in Malariae

A

Palawan, Davao del Norte, Compostela Valley

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14
Q

Immunocompetent individuals present with heterophil-negative mononucleosis, whereas immunocompromised patients will present with encephalitis with ring enhancing lesions.

A

Toxoplasma gondii

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15
Q

Periorbital edema and a nodule near the bite is seen in this disease.

A

Romana sign and Chagoma are both seen in acute Chagas disease by the Trypanosoma Cruzi.

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16
Q

Myocarditis, megacolon, megaesophagus (achalasia) are seen in the chronic form of this organism.

A

Chronic disease of Trypanosoma Cruzi

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17
Q

Indurated skin ulcer or chancre with intermittent weekly fever and LAD, excessive somnolence, Winterbottom sign, encephalitis, Hypersthesia or Kerandel sign are all seen in?

A

Trypanosoma Brucei complex

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18
Q

Species commonly associated with red tide poisoning?

A

Pyrodinium bahamense var. compresum

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19
Q

Shellfish poisoning syndromes that is paralytic is seen in which kind of toxin?

A

Saxitoxin

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20
Q

A neurotoxic presentation of shellfish poisoning syndrome which includes slurred speech, ataxia, facial paresthesia, and diarrhea are seen in which toxin?

A

Brevetoxin

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21
Q

Diarrhea, Nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain are seen in which toxin for the shellfish poisoning syndromes?

A

Okadaic acid

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22
Q

Shellfish poisoning syndrome which includes short-term memory loss, diarrhea and seizures are produced by which Toxin?

A

Domoic acid

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23
Q

Eating of undercooked pork presents with mild intestinal symptoms and could sometimes lead to seizures. In addition, it is possible to see worms in vitreous humor with these organisms. What is the organism?

A

Neurocysticercosis by Taenia Solium

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24
Q

Abdominal pain and diarrhea occurs and may sometimes lead to megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency. What is the causative agent?

A

Diphyllobotrium latum

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25
Q

Ruptured hydatid cysts could lead to a life-threatening anaphylaxis. What is the treatment of this parasite prior to the anaphylaxis?

A

Albendazole to treat Echinococcus granulosus

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26
Q

What do you call systemic hypersentivity resembling serum sickness which is caused Schistosoma japonicum?

A

Katayama fever

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27
Q

Swimmer’s itch and Katayama fever are caused by this organism

A

Schistosoma japonicum

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28
Q

Chronic cough with bloody sputum, this parasite closely resembles TB and has a ring-shadowed opacity in the chest x-ray. What is the animal that harbors this organism?

A

Crabs are hosts for Paragonimus westermani

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29
Q

The chronic phase produced by this parasite could lead to hepatobiliary disease, pancreatitis, neurocirculatory dystonia, and cholangiocarcinoma.

A

Clonorchis Sinensis

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30
Q

Loeffler’s syndrome, acute intestinal obstruction, malabsorption syndrome. What are the two common drugs used against this parasite?

A

Albendazole (has more larvicidal)

Mebendazole

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31
Q

Serpiginous tracks, eosinophilic pneumonia during transpulmonary phase, chronic disease, microcytic anemia, hypoalbuminemia are seen in the acute phase of this parasite infection.

A

Necator and ancylostoma

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32
Q

Recatal prolapse from increased persistalsis to expel the worms are noted in this organism. It has a barrel shaped egg with bipolar plugs. What is the treatment for this organism?

A

Mebendazole for Trichuris trichura

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33
Q

Pruritus ani, eosinophilic enterocolitis, vulvovaginitis, appendicitis are seen in this parasite easily diagnosed with the Graham test.

A

Enterobius vermicularis

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34
Q

Treatment for a parasite which produces an eosinophilic pneumonia in its acute phase and serpiginous, duodenitis, paradoxical asthma, hyperinfection syndrome in its chronic phase.

A

Ivermectin

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35
Q

This parasite produces borborygmus in its acute disease. On its chronic disease, it produces a chronic watery diarrhea, protein-losing enteropathy, and hypogammaglobinemia. What is this organism?

A

Capillaria philippinensis

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36
Q

In filarial fever, what bodies are found in nocturnal wheezing (Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia)

A

Meyers-Kuvenaar bodisea

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37
Q

In Filariasis which species is linked to hydrocele and which species is seen presenting with elephantiasis.

A

Wuchereria (Water)

Brugia (Binti)

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38
Q

Fever, muscle pain, periorbital edema, eosinophilia, and hemorrhagic phenomena are seen in the acute phases of this parasite.

Myocarditis, encephalitis, pneumonia, respiratory myosits is seen in the chronic phase of this disease.

A

Teichinella spiralis

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39
Q

Hypopigmented areas

Spaghetti / meatballs appearance on 10% KOH

A

Malasezzia furfur

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40
Q

Associated occupation is for gardener for this organism

A

Spirothrix schenckii

41
Q 
Lung infiltrates, adenopathy, or effusions
erythema nodosum (dessert bumps)
arthralgia
Meningitis
Spherules with endospores
A

Coccidiodes immitis

42
Q

Closely mimics TB
CHronic pneumonia
erythema nodosum
Tongue ulcerations in AIDS patients

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

43
Q 
Dimorphic yeast
Broad-based bud
chronic pneumonia
ulcerated granulomas
lytic bone lesions
prostatitis
A

Blastomyces dermatidis

44
Q 
Oral thrush
vulvovaginitis
skin infections
onychomycosis
esophagitis
A

Candida albicans

45
Q

Primary infection: Asymptomatic pneumonia
Meningitis
Encephalitis
Pigeon droppings

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

46
Q

Fungus ball in lung cavities

A

Asperigillus fumigatus

47
Q

Rhino-orbital-cerebral infection with eschar formation

patients with DKA, burns, or leukemia

A

Mucormycosis

Rhizophus oryzae and Mucor spp

48
Q

Occurs when CD4 < 200
This is the most common AIDS defining illness
diffuse interstitial pneumonia with ground glass infiltrates bilaterally
100% mortality if untreated

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

49
Q

Bacterial culture media for Clostridium perfringens

A

Egg yolk agar

50
Q

Bacterial culture media for Corynebacterium diphteriae

A

Tellurite

51
Q

Bacterial culture media for Group D Streptococci

A

Bile eschulin

52
Q

Bacterial culture media for Staphylococci

A

Mannitol Salts

53
Q

Bacterial culture media for Neisseria spp.

A

Chocolate agar

54
Q

Bacterial culture media for N. gonnorhea from non sterile sites

A

Thayer Martin

55
Q

Bacterial culture media for H. influenzae

A

Chocolate agae with Factor X & V

56
Q

Bacteria isolated from Lowenstein-Jensen

A

M. Tuberulosis

57
Q

Bacteria isolated from Thiosulfate Citrate Bile salts (TCBS)

A

Vibrio cholerae

58
Q

Bacteria isolated from Bordet-Gengou & Regan Lowe

A

Bordatella Pertussis

59
Q

Bacteria isolated from Charcoal-yeast extract

A

Legionella

60
Q

Bacteria isolated from Skirrow agar

A

Campylobacter jejuni & Helicobacter pylori

61
Q

Bacteria isolated from Barbour-Stoenner-Kelly (BSK)

A

Borrelia Burgdoferri

62
Q

Bacteria isolated from Eaton agar

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

63
Q

Bacteria isolated from Cetrimide agar

A

Pseudomonas Aeroginosa

64
Q

Bacteria isolated from Xylose-Lysine-deoxycholate (XLD)

A

Salmonella & Shigella

65
Q

Ellinghausen-McCullough-Johnson-Harris (EMJH)

A

Leptospirosis interrogan, Spirochete

66
Q 
Normal flora of the:
Skin
Nose
Mouth
Dental plaque
Colon
Vagina
A 
Skin: S. epidermidis
Nose: S. aureus
Mouth: Viridans Streptococci
Dental plaque: S. mutans
Colon: Bacteroides, E. coli
Vagina: Lactobacillus, E. Coli, Group B Streptococci
67
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters
Catalase positive
Coagulase positive

A

Staph aureus

68
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters
Catalase positive
coagulase negative
Novobiocin sensitive

A

Staph epidermidis

69
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters
Catalase positive
coagulase negative
Novobiocin resistant

A

Staph Saphrophyticus

70
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains
Catalase negative
Alpha hemolytic
Bile-optochin-sensitive

A

S. pneumoniae

71
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains
Catalase negative
Alpha hemolytic
Bile-optochin-resistant

A

Viridans

72
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains
Catalase negative
Beta hemolytic
Bacitracin sensitive

A

S. pyogenes

73
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains
Catalase negative
Beta hemolytic
Bacitracin resistant

A

S. agalactiae

74
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains
Catalase negative
gamma hemolytic

A

Group D strep / enterococci

75
Q

Spore-forming gram positive rods

Aerobic, nonmotile, box-car shaped

A

Bacillus anthracis

76
Q

Spore-forming gram positive rodsAerobic, motile, reheated fried rice

A

Bacillus Cereus

77
Q

Spore-forming gram positive rods

Anaerobic, tennis-racket-like

A

C. tetany

78
Q

Spore-forming gram positive rods, anaerobic, bulging cans

A

C. Botulinum

79
Q

Spore-forming gram positive rods, Anaerobic, lecithinase, gas-forming

A

C. perfringens

80
Q

Spore-forming gram positive rodsAnaerobic, pseudomembranes

A

C. Difficile

81
Q

Non-spore forming, gram positive rods, aerobic, non-motile, curved, chinese characters

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

82
Q

Non-spore forming gram positive rods, aerobic, curved, tumbling motility

A

Listeria monocytogenes

83
Q

Gram negative diplococci, encapsulated, ferments, maltose, and glucose

A

N. MeninGitidis

84
Q

Gram negative diplococci, insignificant capsule, ferments glucose only

A

N. Gonorrhea

85
Q

Gram negative rodds, enriched chocolate agar, polyribitol phosphate capsule

A

Hib

86
Q

Gram negative rods, bordet gengou agar, whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

87
Q

Gram negative rods, poorly gram staining, silver stain, charcoal yeast agar, airconditioning

A

Legionella

88
Q

Non-lactose fermenting, gram negative rods, motile oxidase negative, H2S producer

A

Salmonella

89
Q

Non-lactose-fermenting, gram negative rods, non-motile, oxidase negative, H2S non-producer

A

Shigella

90
Q

Non-lactose-fermenting, gram negative rods, warming, oxidase negative, H2s producer, urease

A

Proteus Mirabilis

91
Q

Non-lactose-fermenting, gram negative rods, oxidase positive positive, H2S non producer, obligate aerobe

A

Pseudomonas aeroginosa

92
Q

Gram negative rods, lactose fermenter, gree sheen

A

Escherichia Coli

93
Q

Gram negative rods, lactose fermenter, urease positive, ESBL

A

Klebsiella pneumonia

94
Q

Gram negative rods, comma-shaped, motile, oxidase positive

A

Vibrio cholera

95
Q

Gram negative rods, comma-shaped, microaerophilic, skirrows agar

A

Campylobacter jejuni

96
Q

Gram-negative rods, comma-shaped, urease positive

A

Helicobacter

97
Q

All viruses are haploid EXCEPT

A

retrovirus

98
Q

All DNA viruses have double-stranded DNA EXCEPT

A

Parvovirus

99
Q

All RNA viruses have single-stranded RNA EXCEPT

A

Reovirus

100
Q

All double-stranded DNA viruses are icosahedral EXCEPT

A

Poxvirus

Daily reviewers (7 decks)

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