Pharmacology cheat sheet

Question 1

pyrantel

Answer 1

cholinergic agonist that binds to nicotinic receptors to depolarize and act as a neuromuscular-blocking agent to paralyze susceptible parasites
small animals: rounds and hooks
horses: strongyles, pinworms, large rounds

Question 2

fenbendazole

Answer 2

benzimidazole antiparasitic that disrupts intracellular mircotubular transport systems by binding tubulin, preventing tubulin polymerization, and inhibiting microtubule formation
broad dewormer: rounds, hooks, whips, tapes excluding Dipylididum caninum

Question 3

ivermectin

Answer 3

avermectin antiparasitic
macrocyclic lactone binds glutamate-gated chloride ion channels within invertebrate nerve and muscle cells resulting in cell hyperpolarization causing paralysis. and death of the parasite
heartworm preventative and skin/ear mites in small animals
MDR1 (ABCB1) mutation causes CNS toxicity
DONT USE: chelonians, indigo snakes, crocodilians, skinks

Question 4

praziquantel

Answer 4

anticestodal antiparasitic
causes irreversible focal vacuolization with subsequent cestodal disintegration at specific sites of the integument to cause susceptibility to digestion
used in horses, sheep, goats, camelids, birds, small mammals, reptiles

Question 5

piperazine

Answer 5

thought to paralyze susceptible nematodes
primarily used for ascarids
limited efficacy, not usually used today
OTC

Question 6

sulfa/trimethoprim sulfadiazine

Answer 6

potentiated sulfonamides
sulfa is bacteriostatic and when used with trimethoprim is bacteriocidal
good efficacy against many bacteria resistant to other common antibiotics
side effects: KCS, hematuria, hemolytic anemia, polyarthritis
used in small animals, horses, birds, ferrets, reptiles

Question 7

milbemycin oxime

Answer 7

macrolide antiparasitic used as heartworm preventative, hookworm control and removal of adult roundworms and whipworms
extra label for skin mites
can cause CNS signs in MDR1 mutant species or overdose situations
used in dogs and cats

Question 8

moxidectin

Answer 8

macrocyclic lactone antiparasitic
milbemycin-class antiparasitic used in small and large animals
safe for MDR1 mutants but may cause CNS toxicity, anaphylaxis, or immune-mediated reactions at higher doses or when given with vaccines
can be used in combo for broader spectrum treatment, used for roundworms and hookworms

Question 9

selamectin

Answer 9

topical antiparasitic in small animals
potential MDR1 mutant breed concerns
combo products improve efficacy
labeled for fleas, heartworm, ear mites, scabies in dogs, and cat rounds and hooks
used in small animals and exotics

Question 10

afoxolaner, sarolaner, fluralaner, lotilaner

Answer 10

isoxazoline ectoparasites
oral/topical flea/tick treatment and preventatives for dogs and cats
extra label: demodex, scabies, ear mites
starts killing fleas within 3 hours of administration, kills most ticks within 48 hours, and maintains for 30 days
caution in animals with history of seizures or overdose

Question 11

imidacloprid

Answer 11

acts on nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on the post-synaptic membrane causing CNS impairment and death
OTC oral tablets, topicals, and collars
oral labeled for dog fleas only, starts killing within 1 hour
topically used on cats for long duration

Question 12

fipronil

Answer 12

phenylpyrazole antiparasitic that interferes with the passage of chloride ions in GABA-regulated chloride channels in invertebrates disrupting CNS activity and causing death
labeled for flea, tick, and chewing lice
used in combo with Permethrins and Pyriproxyfen

Question 13

nitenpyram

Answer 13

neonicotinoid insecticides
binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in the postsynaptic membranes and blocks acetylcholine-mediated neuronal transmission causing paralysis and death of fleas
used in cats and dogs, extra label in reptiles
Rx and OTC
comboed with Lufenuron and Milbemycin
starts working in 30 minutes and can be repeated up to once daily
oral and rectal forms, or crushed in a wound for maggots

Question 14

spinosad

Answer 14

oral macrocyclic lactone
contains spinosyn A and spinosyn D
nicotinic acetylcholine D-alpha receptor agonist causing involuntary muscle contractions and tremors secondary to motor neuron activation, prolonged exposure causes paralysis and death
starts working in 30 minutes
monthly dosing for dogs and cats
combined with milbemycin oxime for dogs

Question 15

lufeneron

Answer 15

IGR-Chitin synthesis inhibitor
prevents flea eggs from hatching, doesn’t kill adults
combined with milbemycin oxime, praziquantel, and nitenpyram

Question 16

permethrins/pyrethrins

Answer 16

OTC
permethrins are a synthetic pyrethyroid insecticide
very toxic to cats, don’t use on dogs that live with cats
signs of toxicity: hyperesthesia, generalized tremors, muscle fasciculation, hyperthermia, seizures
used in flea shampoos

Question 17

IGRs

Answer 17

OTC often combined with permethrins and other OTC insecticides

Question 18

aminoglycoside/aminocyclitol antibiotics

Answer 18

primarily used for gram negative aerobes
mostly topical formulations
oto and nephrotoxic
should only be used systemically when necessary with culture/sensitivity results with monitoring

Question 19

quinolones

Answer 19

effective against a variety of pathogens except anaerobes
avoid use in young animals due to negative impact on cartilage development
higher doses (> 5mg/kg/day) of enrofloxacin can cause blindness in cats
caution in renal/hepatic insufficiency or. dehydration patients
pradofloxacin oral suspension approved for use in cats

Question 20

cephalosporins

Answer 20

1st generation typically effective against most gram positive pathogens, variable coverage against gram negative pathogens but used for UTIs
2nd and 3rd generations retain gram positive pathogen activity with enhanced gram negative pathogen activity
often cause GI effects that can be minimized with some labeled once daily formulations
caution in renal insufficiency

Question 21

macrolides

Answer 21

useful for treating a variety of bacterial, rickettsial, and protozoal infections
possesses a broad spectrum with in vitro activity against gram positive and greater gram negative activity
long tissue half-lives in dogs and cats
caution in hepatic dysfunction

Question 22

aminopenicillins

Answer 22

time-dependent, bactericidal agent that acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis
susceptible to inactivation by beta-lactamase-producing bacteria
neurotoxicity associated with high doses or prolonged use

Question 23

potentiated aminopenicillins

Answer 23

sulbactam combined with aminopenicillins to enhance their spectrum to bacteria that produce beta-lactamases that would otherwise render them ineffective
good choice for beta-lactamase-producing gram positive aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Question 24

tetracyclines

Answer 24

many bacteria are resistant
doxycycline and minocycline are preferred due to more favorable dosing frequency and adverse effect profile
use with niacinamide to help control sterile inflammatory skin conditions in dogs
can cause staining of developing teeth and bones

Question 25

lincosamides

Answer 25

broad-spectrum coverage against many anaerobes, gram positive aerobic cocci, and toxoplasma spp. contraindicated in hindgut fermenters caution in renal/hepatic dysfunction patients follow dosing with water to prevent esophageal strictures after administration

Question 26

metronidazole

Answer 26

good anaerobic activity used for GI symptoms and to treat Giardia high doses can cause neurological symptoms very bitter tasting

Question 27

chloramphenicol

Answer 27

broad spectrum antibiotic with good tissue penetration including the eye, CNS, and prostate caution in preexisting hematologic disorder patients and hepatic failure patients can cause aplastic anemia in humans

Question 28

amphotericin B

Answer 28

antifungal injectable systemic formulation used for serious mycotic infections nephrotoxic

Question 29

fluconazole

Answer 29

oral particularly used for CNS infections long duration of treatment caution in renal/hepatic dysfunction patients

Question 30

itraconazole

Answer 30

used for systemic and cutaneous mycoses caution in hepatic/renal impairment patients

Question 31

terbinafine and miconazole

Answer 31

used in many OTC athletes foot cream, jock itch cream, or shampoos

Question 32

famciclovir

Answer 32

rapidly converted to penciclovir which inhibits herpesvirus DNA polymerase and eventually inhibiting viral DNA synthesis caution in patients with renal dysfunction

Question 33

lysine/ L-lysince

Answer 33

amino acid that is believed to compete with arginine for incorporation into many herpes viruses believed that arginine is required for producing infective viral particles and when lysine is incorporated the virus becomes less infective

Question 34

oseltamivir

Answer 34

neuraminidase inhibitor that has been suggested as a treatment for canine parvovirus infections or other mixed bacterial/viral infections

Question 35

lokivetmab

Answer 35

monoclonal antibody neutralizes interleukin-31 that is produced by activated T helper cells in dogs with atopic dermatitis, binds to receptors in the spinal cord that send signals to the brain to stimulate peripheral nerves to cause pruritus dogs only

Question 36

frunevetmab

Answer 36

monoclonal antibody felinized immunoglobin G that binds to nerve growth factor that is responsible for noxious stimuli that. produces peripheral sensitization, neurogenic inflammation, and increased perception of pain cats only

Question 37

bedinvetmab

Answer 37

monoclonal antibody limited information on mechanism of action but should be similar to Frunevetmab only for dogs

Question 38

CPMA (canine parvovirus monoclonal antibody)

Answer 38

synthetic antibody that binds to canine parvovirus neutralizing it before it can enter the cell

Question 39

maropitant

Answer 39

neurokinin-1 receptor antagonist that acts in the CNS by inhibiting the binding of substance P which is the key neurotransmitter involved in vomiting contraindicated if GI obstruction is suspected can cause prolongation of the QT interval because of cardiac potassium channel blockage caution in hepatic dysfunction patients stings when given SQ which can be minimized with refrigerated storage

Question 40

meclizine and dimenhydrinate

Answer 40

antihistamines with sedative and antiemetic effects used for motion sickness and vestibular disease

Question 41

metoclopramide

Answer 41

stimulates upper GI motility without stimulating gastric, pancreatic, or biliary secretions contraindicated with GI hemorrhage, obstruction, and perforation

Question 42

apomorphine

Answer 42

rapidly acting centrally mediated emetic used in dogs, ineffective in cats compounded tablets can be crushed or mixed with saline for use as eye drops or whole tablets via subconjunctival route contraindicated in species that cannot vomit

Question 43

hydrogen peroxide

Answer 43

induces vomiting by gastric irritation, may require large volumes recommend administering in bathtub or outside to minimize need for cleanup

Question 44

xylazine

Answer 44

can be used for both cats and dogs to induce vomiting rarely used in small animal medicine sedative effects can be reversed with yohimbine caution in patients with pre-existing cardiac dysfunction

Question 45

antineoplastics

Answer 45

chemotherapy, often dosed in a mg/m2 instead of mg/kg handle with caution, use appropriate PPE, and biohazard disposal

Question 46

NSAIDs

Answer 46

exhibit analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic effects by cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibition caution in renal/hepatic dysfunction patients GI related side effects

Question 47

meloxicam

Answer 47

considered COX-2 preferential (not specific) because at higher doses its COX-2 specificity is diminished

Question 48

firocoxib

Answer 48

predominantly inhibits COX-2 and spare COX-1 (maintain normal GI, platelet, and renal function)

Question 49

carprofen

Answer 49

COX-2 inhibition specificity depends on species COX-1 sparing considered better than older COX-2 sparing NSAIDs

Question 50

grapiprant

Answer 50

prostaglandin E2 EP4-receptor antagonist doesn't inhibit COX decreases inflammatory effects of PGE2 which lessens pain transmission at sensory neurons not antipyretic elevated ALP and ALT reported with use of drug

Question 51

flunixin

Answer 51

potent inhibitor of COX used in large animal caution in patients with pre-existing GI ulcers or renal/hepatic/hematological diseases

Question 52

ketoprofen

Answer 52

non-selective inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2 labeled for large animal use but used extra-label in small animal and exotics

Question 53

phenylbutazone

Answer 53

proposed mechanism of action is COX inhibition used mostly in horses additional pharmacologic actions include reduced renal blood flow, decreased glomerular filtration rate, decreased platelet aggregation, and gastric mucosal damage

Question 54

diclofenac and fluriprofen

Answer 54

inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 used in ophthalmic formulations

Question 55

azathioprine

Answer 55

purine-antagonist used for a variety of autoimmune conditions adverse effect: myelosuppression caution in patients with hepatic dysfunction may take weeks of treatment before immunosuppression occurs

Question 56

cyclosporine

Answer 56

calcineurin inhibitor that focuses on cell-mediated immune responses with some humoral immunosuppressive action, it binds to T cell cyclophilin and blocks calcineurin-mediated T-cell activation used for dogs to control atopic dermatitis and for cats to control allergic dermatitis extra-label for immune-mediated disorders in dogs and cats, and to prevent rejection of kidney transplant in cats

Question 57

glucocorticoids

Answer 57

have effects on almost every cell type and system in mammals contraindicated with any disease process where suppressing the immune system will allow condition to become worse side effects: PUPD, polyphagia, panting iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism can occur from prolonged use used for various conditions from allergic reactions to auto-immune diseases oral and injectable methylprednisolone or prednisOLONE used in cats due to their decreased ability to absorb or convert prednisone into prednisolone

Question 58

phenobarbital

Answer 58

barbiturate that causes CNS depression side effects: lethargy, ataxia, PUPD, polyphagia, hepatotoxicity dose frequency: q12 hours, peaks between 4-8 hours monitoring bloodwork is usually drawn 6-8 hours after giving, monitor liver enzymes oral and injectable C-IV controlled substance

Question 59

bromides

Answer 59

primary or adjunctive therapy for seizures long half life requires loading dose then transition to maintenance after monitoring indicated appropriate concentrations, monitoring bloodwork is not time specific due to long half life very salty toxic effects: profound sedation to stupor, ataxia, tremors, hindlimb paresis, CNS signs

Question 60

benzodiazepines

Answer 60

depress CNS subcortical levels producing anxiolytic, sedative, skeletal muscle relaxation, and anticonvulsant effects IV, rectal, intranasally for status epilepticus and cluster seizures relatively short acting, usually followed by phenobarbital C-IV controlled substances

Question 61

levetiracetam

Answer 61

broad spectrum anticonvulsant that can be used as adjunct therapy for canine epilepsy or when phenobarbital or bromides are not tolerated dogs may become refractory over time may be used as a second-line option when phenobarbital doesn't control seizure in cats dosing frequency: q8 hours

Question 62

pimobendan

Answer 62

inodilator with both positive inotropic and vasodilatory effects decreases heart rate in animals with CHF, enhances cardiac contractility without an increase in myocardial oxygen consumption

Question 63

antitussives

Answer 63

butorphanol has 15-20 times the oral antitussive effects of codeine or dextromethorphan used mostly for analgesia or sedation

Question 64

hydrocodone combinations

Answer 64

combined with homatropine to prevent abuse exhibits characteristics of other opioid agonists yet it tends to have a slightly higher antitussive effect than codeine because of direct suppression of the cough reflex in the medullary cough center

Question 65

SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)

Answer 65

may take 3-4 weeks before efficacy is noted or may need to increase dose adverse effects: anorexia, lethargy, GI effects, anxiety/restlessness, vocalization, seizures, aggression

Question 66

tricyclic antidepressants

Answer 66

used for behavior disorders, neuropathic pain, and pruritus in small animals may reduce seizure thresholds in epileptic animals side effects: sedation, anticholinergic effects (risk for serotonin syndrome) may take a few weeks to see effects and need to taper when discontinuing baseline CBC, serum chemistries, urinalysis, and baseline thyroid testing prior to therapy, 1 month after starting therapy, and then yearly as well as baseline ECG due to possible widening of QRS complexes, prolonged PR intervals, and inverted/flattened T waves

Question 67

Trazodone (SARI)

Answer 67

used for behavior disorders, phobia related anxiety, postoperative confinement, transport, or examination phobia side effects: GI disturbances, ataxia, sedation, tachycardia, increased anxiety, behavior disinhibition, aggression, mydriasis caution in patients with severe cardiac disease or hepatic or renal impairment