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POS > Pharmacology and Therapeutics > Flashcards

Pharmacology and Therapeutics Flashcards

1
Q

gastrin is produced by..

A

G-cell

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2
Q

gastrin stimulates what receptor

A

CCKbeta receptor

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3
Q

where find CCKbeta receptor

A
  • enterochromaffin like cell

- parietal cell

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4
Q

histamine stimualtes what receptor

A

H2 receptor

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5
Q

histamine is produced by

A

enterochromaffin-like cell

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6
Q

what receptor responds to the peripheral nervous system

A

M1 receptor

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7
Q

where are H2 receptors found

A

parietal cell

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8
Q

what does the parietal cell produce

A

H+

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9
Q

epinephrine has what effect on GIT function

A

inhibits it

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10
Q

Acetylcholine has what effect on GIT function

A

stimulates it

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11
Q

when does gut smooth muscle fire

A

spontaneously with slow activity waves

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12
Q

what nerve stimulation increases sphincter tone

A

sympathetic

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13
Q

what does parasympathetic stimulation do to sphinctal tone

A

inhibits it

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14
Q

metaclopramide actions

A

increases Ach release by dopamine antagonism

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15
Q

metaclopramide is a

A

prokinetic drug

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16
Q

carbachol is a

A

prokinetic drug

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17
Q

carbachol action

A

M1 receptor agonist

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18
Q

5 treatments for constipation

A
  • laxitive
  • lubricate with liquid paraffin
  • give wheat bran or something to bulk up poo and draw water in
  • draw water into large intestine
  • give irritant to stimulate movement
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19
Q

drugs that draw water into large intestine

A
  • lactulose

- magnesium sulphate

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20
Q

vomiting is stimulated by

A

chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in the medulla of the brain

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21
Q

HCl is secreted in response to

A
  • gastrin

- vagal stimulation

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22
Q

pepsin comes from

A

chief cells

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23
Q

pepsin is secreted in response to

A
  • gastrin

- vagal stimulation

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24
Q

mucous is secreted from

A

goblet cells

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25
Q

3 phases gastric secretion

A
  • cephalic
  • gastric
  • intestinal
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26
Q

cephalic phase start

A

conditioned reflex to smell etc via vagus nerve

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27
Q

cephalic phase actions

A

HCl, pepsinogen secretion and increased stomach motility

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28
Q

gastric phase actions

A

chemo and mechano receptors in the stomach release gastrin and histamine

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29
Q

how low pH affects gastric phase

A

sympathomimetic somatostatin is released which inhibits gastrin secretion

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30
Q

intestinal phase actions

A

chyme in duodenum causes release of secretin, GIP and CCK which inhibit acid secretion and motility of stomach

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31
Q

prostaglandin analogues inhibit secretion of what in stomach

A

H+

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32
Q

3 anthelmintic classes based on target parasites

A
  • nematodicide
  • cestodicide
  • trematodicide
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33
Q

5 broard spectrum anthelmintics

A
  • group 1 - benzimidazoles
  • group 2 - imidazothiazoles
  • group 3 - macrocyclic lactones
  • group 4 amino acetonitrille derivatives
  • group 5 - spiroindoles
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34
Q

colour benzimidazoles

A

white

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35
Q

colour imidazothiazoles

A

yellow

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36
Q

colour macrocyclic lactones

A

clear

37
Q

benzimidazoles actions

A
  • bind to beta-tubulin
  • causing inhibition of glucose uptake
  • parasite starves to death
38
Q

imidazothiazoles action

A
  • cholinergic agonist

- rapid and reversible spastic paralysis

39
Q

example imidazothiazole

A

levamisole

40
Q

macrolytic lactones action

A
  • modulate glutamate-gated chloride channels in post synaptic membrane
  • flaccid paralysis
41
Q

metaphylaxis define

A

used to protect animals grazing on infected pasture

42
Q

prophylaxis define

A

used to prevent animals from contaminating pasture

43
Q

5 groups of narrow spectrum drugs

A
  • salicylanilides
  • pyrazinoisoquinolones phenylisothiocyanates
  • depsipeptides
  • arsenicals
  • piperazines
44
Q

salicylanilides

A

fluke drenches

45
Q

pyrazinoisoqunolines phenylisothiocyanates

A

tape wormers

46
Q

arsenicals

A

heart wormers

47
Q

narrow spectrum flukicides how work

A

decrease availability of high energy phosphate to the fluke and blood feeding nematodes

48
Q

main 5 PGE causing nematodes in sheep

A
  • teladorsagia circumcincta
  • trichostrongylus spp.
  • nematodirus battus
  • haemonchus contortus
  • cooperia ss
49
Q

main cow worm

A

ostertagia ostertagi

50
Q

main horse worms

A

strongyles

51
Q

2 groups strongyles (horse)

A
  • migratory (large)

- non-migratory (cyathostomins)

52
Q

another name equine strongyles

A

red worms

53
Q

underdosing anthelmintics occurs because (4)

A
  • underestimating weight
  • inadequate maintenance of equipment
  • poor treatment technique
  • fail to follow instructions
54
Q

anthelmintic resistance is detectable when

A
  • over 25% allele frequency

- over 5% parasites are resistant

55
Q

anthelmintic resistance causes clinical failure when

A
  • allele frequency over 50%

- over 20% worms are resistant

56
Q

resistance measuring tests (2)

A
  • drench test

- faecal egg count reduction test

57
Q

drench test how to

A
  • faecal egg count of 10 samples before and after treatment
58
Q

faecal egg count reduction test how to

A
  • different groups for different drugs and a control group

- faecal egg count before and after dosing

59
Q

8 SCOPS UK guidelines

A
  • work out a strategy with your vet
  • dose only when you need to
  • measure resistance on your farm
  • reduce your dependence on anthelmintics
  • use effective quarantine strategies
  • administer anthelmintics effectively
  • select the appropriate anthelmintic
  • preserve susceptible worms
60
Q

3 ways to preserve the susceptible worm population

A
  • leave a few animals undosed before moving pasture
  • dose animals then leave on contaminated pasture for a while before moving
  • alternate sheep and cattle on pasture
61
Q

define side resistance

A

resistance to a drug of same group

62
Q

define cross resistance

A

resistance to a different drug group with no previous exposure

63
Q

define glucocorticoid

A

groups of drugs that have corticosteroid activity

64
Q

corticosteroids suppress (2)

A
  • inflammation

- adrenal activity

65
Q

glucocorticoids block synthesis of..

A

arachidonic acid

66
Q

as glucocorticoids stop arachidonic acid synthesis they

A

are better anti-inflammatories than NSAIDs

67
Q

2 most commonly used glucocorticoids

A
  • prednisolone

- dexamethasome

68
Q

the order of effects that wear of as glucocorticoid conc decreases

A

antiinflammatory effect stops before adrenal suppresion

69
Q

2 phases of treatment of immune mediated disease with glucocorticoids

A
  • induction of remission

- maintenance of remission

70
Q

side effect of glucocorticoid use

A

gastric damage

71
Q

4 quadrants of antimicrobial activity and 1 other

A
  • gram +ve aerobes
  • gram -ve aerobes
  • obligate anaerobes (gram +ve and -ve)
  • penicillinase producing staphylococci
  • atypical types
72
Q

cats haematuria tx

A

no antibiotics as unlikely to be bacterial unless cat is over 10

73
Q

dog tx haematuria

A

antibiotics always given

74
Q

MIC define

A
  • minimum inhibitory concentration

- the minimum concentration needed to inhibit cell growth

75
Q

MIC90

A

the minimum conc needed to inhibit growth in 90% of bacteria

76
Q

3 drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis

A
  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
  • bacitracin
77
Q

4 drugs that inhibit cell membrane function

A
  • polymyxins
  • amphotericin B
  • imidazoles
  • nystatin
78
Q

5 drugs that inhibit protein synthesis

A
  • chloramphenicol
  • macrolides
  • lincosamides
  • tetracycline
  • aminoglycosides
79
Q

2 drugs that inhibit protein synthesis that have toxic affects on animal as well

A
  • tetracycline

- aminoglycosides

80
Q

5 drugs that inhibit nucleic acid synthesis

A
  • sulphonamides
  • trimethoprim
  • quinolones
  • metronidazole
  • rifampin
81
Q

5 bacteriostatic drugs

A
  • chloramphenicol
  • lincosamides
  • macrolides
  • tetracyclines
  • non-potentiated sulphonamides
82
Q

bacteriostatic effectivness considerations

A

concentration needs to be maintained to be effective

83
Q

bacteriostatic actions

A

inhibits bacterial growth relying on body to kill bacteria

84
Q

6 bactericidal drugs

A
  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
  • aminoglycosides
  • fluoroquinolones
  • potentiated sulphonamides
  • metronidazole
85
Q

time dependant drug consideration

A
  • need a set amount of time above MIC to be effective

- bacteria need to be multiplying so no bacteriostatic to be used as well

86
Q

concentration dependent drugs consideration

A

need a peak concentration

87
Q

water soluble drugs have

A

poor perfusion

88
Q

potentiated sulphonamides are inactivated by

A

pus

POS (13 decks)

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