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POS > Diagnostic imaging/clinical pathology > Flashcards

Diagnostic imaging/clinical pathology Flashcards

1
Q

blood smears are used to

A

protect blood cell morphology

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2
Q

blood smear storage

A

room temp

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3
Q

2 areas of blood smear

A
  • feathered edges

- monolayer

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4
Q

manual estimate of cell numbers on smear how to

A

count 10 fields then average results

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5
Q

ghost cells

A
  • RBC without haemoglobin, so its empty

- indicates immune mediated anaemia

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6
Q

2 reasons for regenerative anaemia

A
  • hameolysis

- haemorrhage

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7
Q

agglutination of RBC indicates

A

immune mediated anaemia

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8
Q

rouleaux

A

an artefact where RBCs are stacked on the slide (not agglutination)

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9
Q

microcytosis define

A

small RBC

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10
Q

leptocyte

A
  • thin or flattened RBC with donut shaped pigment in the middle
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11
Q

leptocytosis

A

leptocytes in blood

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12
Q

with decreased iron you will see 2 things

A

leptocytosis

microcytosis

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13
Q

acanthocytes

A

RBC with club like projections from membranes

- indicates damage in circulation

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14
Q

heinz bodies

A
  • membranes of RBS that are fused causing bulging

- caused by onions, paracetamol

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15
Q

leukocyte left shift

A
  • younger less segmented lymphocytes that enter circulation

- regenerative

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16
Q

right shift leukocyte

A
  • older hypersegmentation

- as cant leave circulation

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17
Q

biochemistry shows

A

organ function

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18
Q

for biochemistry analysis use

A

serum

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19
Q

plasma will have a higher …. then serum

A

total protein

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20
Q

increased protein indicates (3)

A
  • dehydration
  • inflammation
  • neoplasia
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21
Q

decreased protein indicates (3)

A
  • protein loss
  • decreased syntheses
  • dilution
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22
Q

increased albumin indicates

A

dehydration

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23
Q

decreased albumin indicates (3)

A
  • increased loss
  • decreased synthesis
  • escape into 3rd spaces
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24
Q

how are globulins seperated

A

electrophoresis

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25
Q

a polyclonal increase (all types) in blobulins indicates

A

inflammation

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26
Q

a monoclonal (one type) increase in globulins indicates

A

neoplasia

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27
Q

3 liver enzymes

A
  • ALT
  • ALP
  • GLDH
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28
Q

where ALT is usually found

A

hepatocytes

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29
Q

where ALP is usually found

A

biliary ducts

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30
Q

what an increase in ALT indicates

A

liver injury

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31
Q

what ALP indicates

A

bile duct obstruction

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32
Q

what GLDH indicates

A

large animal hepatic cell damage

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33
Q

an increase in amylase and lipase in the dog indicates (2)

A
  • pancreatitis

- renal insufficiency

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34
Q

where are amylase and lipase produced

A

pancreas

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35
Q

what do urea and creatinine indicate

A

glomerular filtration

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36
Q

whats creatinine made from

A

creatine in muscles

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37
Q

azotemia can be 3 things

A
  • pre renal
  • renal
  • post renal
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38
Q

USG of dog with azotemia

A

1.030

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39
Q

USG of cat with azotemia

A

1.035

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40
Q

USG of horse with azotemia

A

1.025

41
Q

distinguishing between pre renal/ post renal and renal azotemia

A

look to see if the USG is appropriate for an animal with azotemia. if its low then is due to renal failure

42
Q

cause of pre renal azotemia

A

dehydration

43
Q

cause of post renal azotemia

A

obstruction

44
Q

what you look at in ruminants for indicator of kidney function

A
  • creatinine

- urea isnt reliable in ruminants

45
Q

sodium is the main ion in…

A

extracellular fluid

46
Q

normonatraemia

A

normal sodium in water

47
Q

hypernatraemia

A

increased sodium in water

48
Q

hyponatraemia

A

decreased sodium in water

49
Q

potassium is the main ion in..

A

intracellular spaces

50
Q

increase in potassium indicates (3)

A
  • renal failure
  • hypoadrenocortcism
  • leaks from cells due to tissue damage
51
Q

decreased potassium indicates (2)

A
  • loss

- decreased intake

52
Q

chloride changes with..

A

sodium

53
Q

what is the active form of calcium

A

free calcium

54
Q

how does albumin affect calcium

A

if albumin decreases then so will calcium

55
Q

test sensitivity

A

the percentage of the animals that have the disease that the test picks up as positive
- so if the percentage is high, if you test negative then it is unlikely you have the disease

56
Q

test specificity

A

the percentage out of all the animals that dont have the disease that test negative
- so if you have a high specificity then if you test positive you are unlikely to be false positive

57
Q

diagnostic accuracy

A

the percentage of correct diagnosis the test makes out of the whole population

58
Q

predictive value of +ve or -ve tests

A

the probability that if test says that you have or haven’t got the disease that it is true

59
Q

2 collection methods of cytology samples

A
  • aspiration

- imprint

60
Q

FNA how to

A

get open needle and poke into mass several times, then get air filled syringe and blow stuff onto slide

61
Q

how to take an imprint

A

blot tissue with paper towel then roll it firmly onto slide. air dry

62
Q

appearance of degenerate neutrophils (3)

A
  • swollen nuclei
  • pale
  • loss of lobulation
63
Q

how to differentiate stain precipitate from bacteria (2)

A
  • bacteria will all be on one plain

- stain will be the same colour as nuclei

64
Q

mycobacterium cause (type of inflammation and cells)

A
  • granulomatous inflammation

- increased macrophages

65
Q

increased neutrophils and macrophages indicate

A

pyogranulomatous inflammation caused by fungal infection

66
Q

round cell appearance (4)

A
  • round to oval cells
  • round to oval nuclei
  • well defined border
  • small to medium size
67
Q

4 round cell tumours

A
  • lymphoma
  • plasmacytoma
  • histiocytoma
  • mast cell tumour
68
Q

epithelial cell appearance (5)

A
  • found in sheets
  • large cells
  • oval/angular shape
  • round central nuclei
  • lots of cytoplasm
69
Q

mesenchymal cell appearance (4)

A
  • individual or clumps
  • small to medium size cell
  • indistinct cell border
  • elongated nuclei
70
Q

adenoma

A

benign epithelial tumour

71
Q

carcinoma

A

malignant epithelial tumour

72
Q

fibroma

A

benign mesenchymal tumour

73
Q

fibrosarcoma

A

malignant mesenchymal tumour

74
Q

anisocytosis

A

variety of cell sizes

75
Q

anisokaryosis

A

variety of nuclear sizes

76
Q

macrokaryosis

A

large nuclei

77
Q

macrocytosis

A

large cells

78
Q

define serology

A

evaluation of immune function

79
Q

3 serology uses

A
  • to see if an animal has been exposed to a pathogen
  • to see if there is response to vaccine
  • diagnose immune mediated disease
80
Q

define immunoassay

A

use of antibodies as detection regents

81
Q

3 immunoassay uses

A
  • look for pathogen
  • measure biomarkers
  • immunophenotyping
82
Q

serological markers of innate immunity

A

acute phase proteins

83
Q

2 acute phase proteins

A
  • serum amyloid A

- fibrinogen

84
Q

3 uses of measuring immunoglobulins

A
  • look for failure of passive transport in foals
  • specific Ig deficiencies
  • monoclonal/polyclonal gammopathies
85
Q

serological markers of adaptive immunity

A

antibodies

86
Q

ELISA

A

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

87
Q

ELISA uses

A

detect antigen or antibody

88
Q

2 types of ELISA

A
  • sandwich

- indirect

89
Q

use of an indirect ELISA

A

detection of antibody

90
Q

use of sandwich ELISA

A

detect antigen

91
Q

how indirect ELISA works

A
  • antigen glued to bottom
  • serum put across and antibodies attach
  • HRP detection antibodies put across and attach to antibody
  • substrate put across and changes colour if HRP detection antibody is there
92
Q

how sandwich ELISA works

A
  • antibody glued to bottom
  • serum containing antigen put across and antigen attaches
  • HRP detection antibodies put across and attach to antigen
    substrate changes colour in presence of HRP detection enzyme
93
Q

immunoflourescence assay how work

A

IFA

- detection antibody labelled with a flourescent marker

94
Q

virus neutralisation assay how work

A
  • VN
  • cultured cells are mixed with the serum and virus
  • you then look down microscope to see how many cells are infected or if antibody present and done its job
  • can titre to see when serum stops working
95
Q

VN assay pros

A

it indicates biologically active antibodies

96
Q

evaluation of CD4+ Tcell response how to

A

measure cytokine release after stimulation with specific antigen

97
Q

immunoflourescence is done on (2)

A
  • smears

- tissue sections

98
Q

define immunophenotyping

A

antibodies against specific cell markers are used to identify cell types that are present

99
Q

2 tests to determine prescence of nucleic acid

A
  • PCR

- quantitative PCR

POS (13 decks)

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