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NBDE II Random Facts > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Sulfonamides mechanism of action:

A

folate synthesis inhibitors, create a folic aid deficiency that damages bacterial DNA

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2
Q

Penicillin mechanism of action:

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis

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3
Q

Macrolides and Lincosamides mechanism of action:

A

attack the 50s ribosomal subunit

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4
Q

Tetracyclines mechanism of action:

A

attack the 30s ribosomal subunit

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5
Q

Broadest spectrum antibiotic?

A

tetracycline

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6
Q

Taking tetracycline with ____ and ____ makes it less effective.

A

Dairy, antacids

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7
Q

Penicillin ___ is sensitive to stomach acid and given via IV.

A

G (Guys can’t stomach it)

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8
Q

How is Pen G removed from the body?

A

Renal tubular secretion

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9
Q

Pen V is given via ___ route and has a ___ half-life.

A

oral, 30 minute

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10
Q

Which antibiotic has the broadest gram-negative spectrum?

A

Ampicillin

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11
Q

These 3 drugs are used against pseudomonas infections.

A

Carbenicillin, Ticarcillin, Ciprofloxacin

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12
Q

____ is cross allergenic with penicillin.

A

Cephalosporins

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13
Q

Cephalosporins mechanism of action:

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis

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14
Q

“Linc and Clind hide Mice”

A

Lincosamides end in -mycin, includes Clindamycin

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15
Q

“Mac likes to Throw Mice”

A

Macrolides end in -thromycin

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16
Q

ECSTATiC for bacteriostatic:

A 
Erythromycin
Clindamycin
Sulfonamides
Tetracyclines
Azithromycin
Trimethoprim
Chloramphenicol
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17
Q

“Very Proficient At Cell Murder”: the bactericidals

A 
Vancomycin
Penicillin
Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
Metronidazole
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18
Q

Conditions requiring antibiotic prophylaxis (4)

A
  1. Prosthetic heart valve
  2. history of endocarditis
  3. heart transplant with valve defects
  4. congenital heart problems
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19
Q

Antibiotic Prophylaxis doses:

A

Amoxicillin 2 grams 1 hour pre-op for adults
Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg 1 hour pre-op for kids

If Penicillin allergy:
Clindamycin 600 mg 1 hour pre-op for adults
Clindamycin 20 mg/kg 1 hour pre-op for kids (NOT to exceed the adult dose)

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20
Q

Which antibiotic causes upset GI and p. colitis?

A

Clindamycin

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21
Q

Which antibiotic is associated with aplastic anemia?

A

Chloramphenicol

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22
Q

Which antibiotic is associated with allergic cholestatic hepatitis?

A

Erythromycin

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23
Q

Which analgesia is recommended for feverish kids and why?

A

Acetaminophen.

Aspirin can cause Reye’s syndrome

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24
Q

Aspirin mechanism of action:

A

irreversible COX 1 and 2 inhibitor

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25
Q

Celecoxib and meloxicam mechanism of action:

A

COX 2 inhibitors only

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26
Q

Aspirin can cause adverse ___ effects.

A

GI

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27
Q

Ibuprofen can cause adverse ___ effects.

A

Kidney

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28
Q

Acetaminophen mechanism of action:

A

inhibits pain in CNS, still not entirely understood

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29
Q

Acetaminophen can cause adverse ___ effects.

A

Liver

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30
Q

Aspirin:

  1. analgesic and anti-inflammatory mechanism:
  2. anti-pyretic mechanism:
  3. bleeding mechanism:
A
  1. COX 1 and 2 inhibition -> inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
  2. inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in hypothalamus
  3. inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis, inhibiting platelet aggregation
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31
Q

Corticosteroids:

1. analgesic and anti-inflammatory mechanism:

A
  1. inhibits phospholipase A2 which inhibits arachidonic acid synthesis
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32
Q

Corticosteroid “rule of 2s”

A

If a patient has taken 20 mg of steroids for 2 weeks, they are at risk of acute adrenal insufficiency for 2 years after when at the dentist (?)

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33
Q 
Morphine effects:
M
O
R
P
H
I
N
E
A 
Miosis
Out of It (sedation)
Respiratory depression (lose CO2 sensitivity)
Pneumonia
Hypotension
Infrequency (urinary retention, constipation)
Nausea and vomiting (CTZ stimulation)
Euphoria/dysphoria
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34
Q

What is pilocarpine’s mechanism of action? What is it used to treat?

A

direct muscarinic agonist (cholinergic alkaloid) - xerostomia and glaucoma

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35
Q

Neostigmine and Physostigmine action:

A

REVERSIBLE AChE inhibitor (indirect muscarinic agonist)

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36
Q

Organophosphates, insecticide action:

A

IRREVERSIBLE AChE inhibitor (indirect muscarinic agonist)

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37
Q

What drug reverses organophosphate poisoning?

A

Pralidoxime

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38
Q

What drug reverses opioid overdose?

A

Naloxone

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39
Q

What drug reverses benzodiazepine overdose?

A

Flumazenil

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40
Q

Atropine, scopolamine action:

A

anti-muscarinic

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41
Q

Succinylcholine action:

A

nicotinic antagonist

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42
Q

ACE Inhibitors mechanism of action: (-pril)

A

block formation of angiotensin 2 (potent vasoconstrictor) to treat hypertension

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43
Q

ARBs mechanism of action: (-sartan)

A

angiotensin 2 receptor inhibitors

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44
Q

Which medications are given for Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)?

A

cardiac glycosides (Digoxin, Digitalis)

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45
Q

Digoxin:

  1. Mechanism of action
  2. Effect
  3. Type of drug
  4. Given for what?
  5. Notable side effect
A
  1. Inhibits Na/K ATPase, increasing intracellular Ca++
  2. Promotes positive ionotropy (increase contractile force of the heart)
  3. Cardiac glycoside
  4. CHF
  5. Blurry vision
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46
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia is treated with:

A

anti-convulsants like carbamazepine

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47
Q

Cross allergy between what 2 local anesthetics has been observed?

A

Lidocaine and mepivicaine

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48
Q

What local anesthetic AND drug are associated with methemoglobinemia?

A

Prilocaine, prolonged amyl nitrite

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49
Q

H2 receptor antihistamines act on what structure to do what? Common H2 antagonists?

H1 receptors are located where ? Common H1 receptor antagonists and mechanism of action?

A

Parietal cells, reduce gastric secretions - cimetidine, famotidine

Smooth muscle, endothelial cells - fexofenadine, loratidine (LORaX)

50
Q

Which bacteria are commonly associated with dental-related endocarditis?

A

alpha hemolytic strep (strep viridans, strep pneumoniae)

51
Q

Heparin mechanism of action:

A

prevents conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

52
Q

Patients taking Warfarin/coumadin should have a recent ___ OR ___.

A

INR or prothrombin time

53
Q

Which analgesic is recommended for pregnant patients?

A

Acetaminophen

54
Q

What induces thrombophlebitis?

A

Propylene glycol

55
Q

What is an absolute contraindication for opioids?

A

Severe cranial trauma

56
Q

What drug is used to treat HIV?

A

Zidovudine

57
Q

This tetracycline has a long half-life and therefore only needs to be taken once a day.

A

Doxycycline

58
Q

What opioid can cause serious, life threatening side effects if given to a patient on an MAOI?

A

Meperidine (M & M)

59
Q

Isoniazid is a treatment for ____.

A

TB

60
Q

Which oral antibiotic is most likely to cause birth control inactivation? Why?

A

Rifampin; induces cytochrome P450 enzyme so BC is metabolized faster.

61
Q

Flouroquinolones ending:

A

-floxacin

62
Q

___ has high concentration in GCF.

A

Tetracyclines

63
Q

____ has high concentration in bone.

A

Clindamycin

64
Q

Taking which antibiotic can cause a c. diff infection?

A

Clindamycin

65
Q

The post-ganglionic neuron in the PNS releases ___ onto muscarinic receptors.

A

Acetylcholine

66
Q

The post-ganglionic neuron in the SNS releases ___ onto end organ.

A

NE

67
Q

What happens when alpha-2 receptors are stimulated?

A

stimulated negative feedback -> blocked sympathetic response

68
Q

What type of drug is Verapamil?

A

Calcium channel blocker

69
Q

These classes of drugs are linked to drug-induced gingival enlargement.

A

Calcium channel blockers
Anticonvulsants (Dilatin)
Immunosuppressants (cyclosporin)

70
Q

What class of drugs used to treat hypertension and arrhythmia cannot be given to a patient with CHF?

A

Calcium channel blockers

71
Q

Clonidine is what type of drug?

A

alpha-2 agonist (Clones = 2, and cloning is negative (negative feedback))

72
Q

Prazosin is what type of drug?

A

alpha-1 blocker

73
Q

This drug is a sedative hypnotic that is used to alleviate anxiety but does NOT cause depression of the CNS or impair cognition or motor coordination.

A

Buspirone

74
Q

This drug is used to treat seizures and abrupt stopping will cause increased risk of this.

A

Valproic acid; increased risk of bleeding

75
Q

Which drug used to treat hypertension inhibits release of renin from the kidney?

A

Beta blockers

76
Q

Amphetamines, ephedrine, and cocaine are all classified as:

A

indirect sympathomimetics

77
Q

____ and ____ must be obtained to determine if a patient is a candidate for GA.

A

Complete blood count (CBC) and urinalysis

78
Q

Ethambutol is a treatment used for?

A

TB

79
Q

Emergency treatment for grand Mal seizure?

A

Dilatin (phenytoin)

80
Q

Emergency treatment for status epilepticus?

A

Diazepam (valium)

81
Q

Treatment for a TCA overdose?

A

activated charcoal

82
Q

Seizures induced by lidocaine can be treated with?

A

diazepam

83
Q

Ciprofloxacin is effective against ___.

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

84
Q

If a patient is allergic to both penicillin and clindamycin, they can be prescribed ___.

A

clarithromycin OR azithromycin

85
Q

How is diazepam metabolized?

A

cytochrome P450

86
Q

How is diazepam excreted?

A

urine

87
Q

___ reverses an atropine overdose.

A

physostigmine

88
Q

Eccrine sweat glands are primarily innervated by what type of neuron and neurotransmitter?

A

sympathetic, cholinergic

89
Q

How many drug testing phases occur on humans before marketing?

A

3

90
Q

What drug can reverse epinephrine?

A

phenoxybenzamine

91
Q

Where are benzodiazepine recpeptors located?

A

on chloride ion channels

92
Q

Verapamil is what kind of drug? What is it used to treat?

A

Calcium channel blocker (non-dihydropyridine)

Treats hypertension/angina and arrhythmia

93
Q

Nifedipine is what kind of drug? What is it used to treat?

A

Calcium channel blocker (dihydropyridine)

Treats hypertension/angina

94
Q

Amylodipine is what kind of drug? What is it used to treat?

A

Calcium channel blocker (dihydropyridine)

Treats hypertension/angina

95
Q

Drug Induced Gingival Enlargement is caused by what types of medications?

A

Anticonvulsants (dilantin)
Immunosuppressants (cyclosporins)
Calcium channel blockers

96
Q

Dihydropyridine Calcium channel blockers ending:

A

-dipine

97
Q

In addition to blocking conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, ACE also? How would an ACE inhibitor interfere?

A

breaks down bradykinin; pt. would experience increased levels of bradykinin

98
Q

An anesthetic with a low pKa has a ____.

A

faster onset

99
Q

Which local anesthetic is the most hydrophobic?

A

Bupivicaine

100
Q

Spironolactone mechanism of action:

A

aldosterone receptor blocker

101
Q

What is the maximum dose of Lidocaine a child can receive?

A

2 mg/lb

4.4 mg/kg

102
Q

Fanconi’s syndrome primarily affects what organ?

A

Kidney

103
Q

How deep should the needle penetrate in a PSA block?

A

1/2 the distance of the long needle, 16 mm

104
Q

Mechanism of action of Metformin:

A

activates AMP kinase, reducing liver glucose production

105
Q

Which antibiotic is only effective against anaerobes?

A

Metronidazole

106
Q

Which 2 benzodiazepines have relatively short half-lives?

A

Triazolam (1-2 hrs) and Midazolam (2-5 hrs)

107
Q

What can EDTA be used for?

A

chelating agent that dissolves inorganic materials

108
Q

Why does Articaine have a much shorter half-life than other local anesthetics?

A

It has both an ester and amide bond, and the ester bond is metabolized more rapidly than amides

109
Q

Heparin is reversed with what drug?

A

Protamine

110
Q

Amyl nitrite has what effect?

A

vasodilation

111
Q

Hallmark symptom of opioid overdose?

A

miosis

112
Q

How does erythromycin cause numerous other drug interactions?

A

it decreases cytochrome P450 metabolism of other drugs

113
Q

Isopropyl alcohol is metabolized mainly into?

A

acetone

114
Q

The combination of a schedule II drug with an antipsychotic drug produces what effect?

A

neuroleptic analgesia

115
Q

What neurotransmitter is affected by benzodiazepine and barbiturate use?

A

GABA

116
Q

Pen G is also known as?

A

Benzylpenicillin

117
Q

What is the difference between neostigmine and physostigmine?

A

Neostigmine is a QUATERNARY amide, cannot cross BBB

Physostigmine is a TERTIARY amide, CAN cross BBB

118
Q

How does succinylcholine block neuromuscular transmission?

A

depolarizing the motor-end plate of skeletal muscle

119
Q

Which beta blockers are selective?

A

A-M except carvedilol and labetalol

120
Q

Which beta blockers are non-selective?

A

N-Z PLUS carvedilol and labetalol

121
Q

The barbiturate most similar to the mechanism of action to diazepam to relax skeletal muscle is?

A

meprobamate

NBDE II Random Facts (10 decks)

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