pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

where are preganglionic and postganglionic neurones found?

A

preganglionic neurones = found in brainstem

postganglionic neurones = found in walls of bronchi and bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the two types of postganglionic neurones?

A

cholinergic and noncholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does stimulation of cholinergic fibres cause in parasympathetic division?

A
  • bronchial smooth muscles contract mediated by M3 muscarinic ACh receptors on airway smooth muscle cells.
  • increased mucus secretion mediated by M3 muscarinic ACh receptors on gland (goblet) cells.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does stimulation of postganglionic noncholinergic fibres cause in the parasympathetic division?

A

bronchial smooth muscle relaxation mediated by nitric oxide and vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does stimulation of postganglionic fibres cause in sympathetic division?

A

-B2 adrenoreceptors on airway smooth muscle are activated by adrenaline causing bronchial smooth muscle relaxation.
-there is decreased mucus secretion
-increased mucociliary clearance
-vascular smooth muscle contraction
( all stages activated by B2 adrenoreceptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the process of contraction in smooth muscle due to calcium.

A

Transmitter or hormone (parasympathetic) activates GPCR >which activates Gq11 and therefore phospholipase C > IP3 makes its way to IP3 receptor/calcium channel – allowing calcium to leave and enter the cytoplasm > cell depolarises >more calcium is able to enter via voltage gated calcium channels > causes contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is contraction initiated by ca2+ in smooth muscle?

A

ca2+ > ca2+ calmodium > activates MLCK (myosin light chain kinase) > phosphorylates myosin cross bridges which bind to actin > generation of contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how does relaxation of smooth muscle occur?

A

adrenaline binds to beta receptors> activates G5 > activates AC > converts ATP to cAMP > activates PKA > either phosphorylates and inhibits MLCK or phosphorylates and stimulates myosin phosphatase > relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
- PDE determines duration of response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe the relationship between myosin phosphatase and MLCK.

A

dephosphorylation of MLCK causes myosin phosphatase to change to MLCK(myosin light chain kinase) and phosphorylation returns it to myosin phosphatase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the pathological changes to bronchioles that result from long standing inflammation in asthma?

A
  • increased mass of smooth muscle
  • accumulation of interstitial fluid (oedema)
  • increased secretion of mucus
  • epithelial damage
  • sub-epithelial fibrosis
  • epithelial damage, exposing sensory nerve endings contributes to increased sensitivity of airways to bronchochonstriction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the different types of hypersensitivity in asthma?

A

type 1 hypersensitivity = early phase, bronchospasm and acute inflammation
- type 4 hypersensitivity = late phase, bronchospasm and delayed inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do nonatopic individuals respond to an allergen?

A
  • phagocytosis by dendritic cells > low level Th1 cells mediated immune response involving IgG and macrophages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how do atopic individual respond to an allergen?

A

phagocytosis by dendritic cells> strong Th2 response, antibiody mediated immune response involving IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does allergic asthmas develop?

A

the allergen is processed by and antigen presenting cell > present to T CD4+ cells > differentiate into Th0 then Th1 and Th2 cells > Th2 cells activate B cells by binding to them and IL-4 production > B cells mature into IgE secreting P cells
- eosinophils are also produced in response to IL-5 released from Th2 cells and mast cells express IgE receptors in response to IL-4 and IL-13.
= stimulation of calcium entry into mast cells and release from intracellular stores > releases secretory granules containing histamine and other substances to cause smooth muscle contraction > release of substances causing inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what drugs are used as relievers in asthma?

A

(act as bronchodialators)

  • short acting B2 adrenoreceptor agonists (SABAs)
  • long acting B2 adrenoreceptor agonists (LABAs)
  • cycLT1 receptor antagonists
  • methyxanthines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what drugs are used as controllers/ preventers in the treatment of asthma?

A
  • glucocorticoids
    -cromoglicate
    -humanised monoclonal IgE antibodies
    (all act as anti-inflammatory agents that reduce airway inflammation)
    -methyxanthines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describe the aerosol use of drugs for asthma.

A
  • slow absorption from lung surface and rapid systemic clearance
  • low dose delivered rapidly to target
  • low systemic concentration
  • low adverse affects
  • distribution reduced in severe airway disease
  • compliance good with bronchodialators, less with anti-inflammatory drugs
  • difficult for some people to use
  • effective in mild to moderate disease
18
Q

Describe oral use of drugs in treatment of asthma.

A
  • good oral absorption and slow systemic clearance
  • high systemic dose necessary to achieve appropriate lung conc.
  • high systemic conc.
  • high incidence of adverse effects
  • distribution unaffected by airway disease
  • good compliance
  • effective in severe disease
19
Q

what are bronchodialators?

A
  • B2 adrenoreceptor agonsits

- act as physiological antagonists of all spasmogens.

20
Q

what are SABAs?

A
  • short acting agonists
  • salbutamol aka albuterol, terbutaline
  • first line for mild intermittent asthma
  • relievers taken as needed
  • act rapidly via inhalation
  • increase mucus clearance and decrease mediator release from mast cells and monocytes
  • have few adverse affects (fine tremor, tachycardia, cardiac dysrhythmia, hypokalaemia)
21
Q

what are LABAs?

A
  • long acting B2 adrenoreceptors
  • NOT recommended for acute elief of bronchospasm
  • useful for nocturnal asthma
  • should not be used as monotherapy, can be used as an add on
  • MUST BE CO-ADMINISTERED WITH A GLUCOCORTICOID
  • should be selective
22
Q

what do cysteinyl leukotriene (CystLT1) receptor antagonists do?

A
  • act competitively at the CysLT1 receptor.
  • stops CysLTs infiltrating inflammatory cells causing smooth muscle contraction, mucus secretion and oedema.
  • e.g motelukast, zafirlukast
  • effective as add on therapy against early and late bronchospasm in mild persistent asthma.
  • effective against antigen-induced and exercise induced bronchospasm
  • oral
  • not recommended for severe asthma
  • can cause headaches and GI upset
23
Q

what are methyxanthines?

A
  • theophylline and aminophylline
  • combine bronchiodilator and anti-inflammatory actions, inhibit mediator release from mast cells, increase mucus clearance
  • increase diaphragmatic contractability and reduce fatigue - may improve ventilation
  • second line, used in combination with B2 adrenoreceptor agonsits and glucocorticoids
  • oral
  • very narrow therapeutic window
  • side effects; dysrhythmia, seizures, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, abdominal discomfort, headaches
24
Q

what does cortisol do?

A
  • decrease (D)inflammatory response
  • D immunological response
  • increase (I) gluconeogenesis
  • I glucose output from liver
  • D glucose utilization
  • I protein catabolism
  • I bone catabolism
  • I gastric acid and pepsin secretion
25
what are mineralocorticoids?
- regulates the retention of salt and water by the kidney | - unwanted in the treatment of inflammatory conditions
26
which forms of cortisol are frequently used to treat asthma?
- synthetic derivatives of cortisol with little or no mineralocorticoid - beclometasone, budesonide
27
how should glucocorticoids be administered?
-inhalation to minimise adverse effects of mainstay treatment
28
Describe the action of glucocorticoids.
- signal via nuclear receptors - are lipophilic molecules that enter by diffusion across the plasma membrane - within the cytoplasm they combine with GRalpha producing dissociation of inhibitory heat shock proteins. the activated receptor translocates to the nucleus aided by importins - within the nucleus activated receptor monomers assemble into homodimers and bind to glucocorticoid response elements in the promoter regions of specific genes - transcription of specific genes is either switched on or switched off to alter mRNA levels and the rate of synthesis or mediator proteins.
29
what are glucocorticoids effects on gene transcription?
- increase transcription of genes encoding anti-inflammatory proteins and decrease transcription of genes encoding inflammatory proteins - they recruit deacetylases to activated genes and switch off gene transcription - decrease formation of Th2 cytokines and cause apoptosis - reduce number of mast cells and decrease FCE expression - prevent IgE production
30
when are glucocorticoids effective?
- long term use in combination with a LABA -in mild/moderate asthma inhaler use (beclometasone, budesonide or fluticasone - side effects = dysphonia, oropharyngeal candidiasis -prednisolone used in severe or rapidly deteriorating asthma.
31
Describe cromones.
- second line drugs now infrequently used prophylactically (prevention) - weak anti inflammatory effect - sodium cromoglicate, delivered by inhalation, more effective in children and young adults.
32
what does omalizumab do?
- a monoclonal antibody directed against IgE which prevents attachment to FCE receptors, suppressing mast cell response - requires IV injection
33
what is mepolizumab?
- monoclonal antibodies directed at IL-5 - for asthma with severe eosinophilia - very expensive
34
how is COPD characterised ?
- by increased resistance to airflow during expiration
35
describe muscarinic acetylcholine receptors role in the airways
- reducing parasympathetic neuroeffector transmission with muscarinic receptor antagonists is important in the treatment of COPD - muscarinic receptor antagonists stop bronchoconstriction caused by smooth muscle M3 receptor activation in response yo ACh released from postganglionic parasympathetic fibres.
36
what are the three muscarinic acetylcholine receptors in the airways
M1 - found in the ganglia - facilitates fast neurotransmission mediated by ACh acting on nicotinic receptors. - M2 - found in postganglionic neurone terminals - acts as inhibitory autoreceptors reducing the release of ACh - M3 - found in ASM cells - mediate contraction to ACh (also present in mucus secreting cells)
37
what muscarinic receptor antagonists are used in the treatment of COPD.
``` SAMA = ipratropium LAMAs = tiotropium, glycopyrronium, aclidinium, umeclidinium ```
38
what do the muscarinic receptor antagonists used in COPD do?
- all are administered by inhalation. Quaternary ammonium group reduces absorption and systemic exposure avoiding multiple potential adverse effects . - have delayed bronchodilator action relative to a SAMA - reduce bronchospasm caused by irritant stimuli and also block ACh mediated basal tone - decrease mucus secretion - effect mainly palliative, no effect on progression of COPD - few adverse effects - ipratropium is a non-selectibe blocker of M1, M2 and M3 receptors, preferred agents with some selectivity are available.
39
why are selective M3 blockers superior to ipratropium?
- (tiotropium, glycopryrronium, aclidinium, umeclidinium) | - block of M3 (and M1) is desirable but but of M2 is not because it does an opposite job to the others.
40
when are LABA/LAMA combinations most effective?
- when both drugs are deposited in the same location in the airways.
41
what treatments can be given in COPD appart from SABA/LAMA/LABAs
- rofumilast is an inhibitor of phosphodiesterase-4 (PDE4) expressed in neutrophils, T cells and macrophages. (reduced inflammation) - glucocorticoids can be administered with LAMA/LABAs - triple inhalers