Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

TRANSITION BLOCK > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What drugs are used for secondary prevention following an MI?

A

Aspirin

Statins

B-blockers

ACE- Inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What drug/ class is associated with causing hyperkalaemia?

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Clopidogrel is often co-prescribed with proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for the treatment of oesophageal reflux/ The combination of which PPI and clopidogrel should be avoided?

A

Omeprazole and clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which drugs need to be used with caution in patients with renal impairment?

A

Allopurinol

ACE inhibitors

(allopurinol and ACE Inhibitors are both excreted by the kidneys)

Simvastatin (largely metabolised by the liver but should still be used in caution in patients with renal conditions)

Metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is steady-state plasma concentration achieved?

A

When rate of administration equals the rate of elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Highly lipophilic drugs tend to have a large or low volume of distribution?

A

Highly lipophilic drugs tend to have a large volume of distribution

(this is due to the partitioning into fat which reduces the plasma concentration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In first order elimination kinetics, the half-life of a drug is independent of the dose (until saturation occurs). T/F?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is meant by the loading dose?

A

The loading dose is an initial higher dose of a drug given at the beginning of a course of treatment before stepping down to a lower maintenance dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sildenafil (viagra) interacts with isorbide mononitrate to cause what adverse effect?

A

Too much vasodilation - may lead to collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What medication is associated with exacerbating gout?

A

Diuretics - bendroflumethiazide and furosemide

This is because competition between the diuretics and urate for transport by OATs elevates the plasma levels of urate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What fruit should be avoided in patients taking statins?

A

Grapefruit

This is because grapefruits are p450 inducers which prolong the effects of statins. This can present with adverse effects related to statins such as muscle pains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The effectiveness of which drug class may be decreased by impaired renal function?

A

Diuretics e.g furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How are acute flares of gout managed?

A

NSAIDs/ colchicine are first line

Possible NSAIDs include naproxen but these should not be given in cases involving renal impairment

PO/IM/ Intra-articular steroids can be given

If the patient is already taking allopurinol this should be continued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the first line medication for urate lowering therapy (long-term gout management)?

A

Allopurinol

Febuxostat can be given to patients who cannot tolerate allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is gout?

A

Form of microcrystal synovitis caused by monosodium urate deposition in the synovium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some of the possible causes of gout?

A

Drugs (diuretics)

Chronic kidney disease

Lead toxicity

Myeloproliferative disorders

Severe psoriasis

17
Q

Which drug is most suitable for pain management in patients on warfarin?

A

Paracetamol

18
Q

Why are NSAIDs not recommended in patients on warfarin?

A

NSAIDs increase the blood thinning effect

19
Q

Give 4 examples of NSAIDs

A

Aspirin

Diclofenac

Ibuprofen

Naproxen

20
Q

How long should warfarin be stopped before surgery?

A

5 days before surgery

21
Q

How is paracetamol overdose treated?

A

IV N-acetylcysteine

22
Q

How is aspirin overdose treated?

A

Alkaline diuresis

23
Q

What is Ephedrine used for?

A

Ephedrine is a medication used to bring the blood pressure back up if a patient becomes hypotensive following spinal anaesthetic

24
Q

How does Ephedrine work?

A

Ephedrine has mixed effects on both alpha 1 and beta receptors.

It is also an indirectly acting sympathomimetic which causes release of noradrenaline

25
Q

Is volume of distribution higher in men or women?

A

Volume of distribution is higher in women

this is because they have more body fat :(

26
Q

How is volume of distribution affected by BMI?

A

Volume of distribution is increased by BMI

27
Q

Vd may exceed the total volume of the body. T/F

A

True

28
Q

How does spinal anaesthesia most commonly cause hypotension?

A

Blockage of sympathetic transmission to blood vessels causing vasodilation

29
Q

Which drugs must be avoided in renal failure?

A

Allopurinol

Rampril

Metformin

Simvastatin

30
Q

Clopidogrel shouldn’t be co-prescribed with which PPI?

A

Omeprazole

31
Q

What secondary prevention should be given post MI?

A

2x antiplatelets

Statin

ACE inhibitor

B-blocker

32
Q

What effect do ACE inhibitors have on potassium levels and what effect do loop diuretics have?

A

ACE Inhibitors - HYPERkalaemia

Loop diuretics (e.g furosemide) - HYPOkalaemia

TRANSITION BLOCK (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions