Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 2a Annie Evans > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Vinblastine

A

Conventional chemotherapy. It is an antimicrotubule agent; it binds to mitotic spindles so the cells can’t divide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Etoposide

A

Conventional chemotherapy. Binds to topoisomerase 2 so the DNA can’t split and the cells cannot divide and replicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ifosamide

A

Conventional chemotherapy. Binds directly to DNA and inhibits DNA synthesis by cross-linking so the cells can’t divide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cisplatin

A

Conventional chemotherapy. Binds directly to DNA and inhibits DNA synthesis by cross-linking so the cells can’t divide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cetuximab

A

Targeted chemotherapy. A monoclonal antibody against epidermal growth factor. It competitively inhibits EGFR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Herceptin

A

Targeted chemotherapy for breast cancer. A monoclonal antibody against Her-2. It prevents her-2 molecules coming into contact with each other and proliferating. It binds to her-2 and transports it into the cell through endocytosis where it is then destroyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Gleevec

A

Targeted chemotherapy. It is a small molecular inhibitor of C-kit tyrosine kinase. Can be used in chronic myeloid leukaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Etanercept

A

TNF blocker. A fusion of IgG-Fc and the extra cellular domain of TNFR2. The dimer binds to TNF, and the monomer has no useful affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Infliximab

A

TNF blocker. A recombinant antibody. It is a chimeric human-mouse anti-human TNF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Adalimumab

A

TNF blocker. A recombinant antibody. An entirely human IgG anti-human TNF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Abatacept

A

A selective co-stimulation modulator. It blocks early activation of T cells by masking CD80/86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Omeprazole

A

Proton pump inhibitor. Irreversibly inhibits acid secretion by interacting with the proton pump. Used in peptic ulcers, GORD, gastrinoma, prevention of NSAID-induced ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Simvastatin

A

Statin. Lipid-lowering drug. Prevention of CVS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Enalapril

A

ACE inhibitor. Used as hypertensives. Mimics angiotensin 1 and competitively inhibits ACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Paracetamol

A

COX inhibitor. Analgesic, anti-pyretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Salbutamol

A

Short-acting bronchodilator. Beta-2-adrenoreceptor agonist. Use in asthma and COPD. Activates adenylyl cyclase, which increases c-AMP, relaxes smooth muscle and causes mast cell stabilisation and inhibits histamine release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Atenolol

A

Beta-1-adrenoreceptor blocker. Used in angina,, arrhythmias, heart failure and hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Amlodipine

A

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker. It sits on top of the calcium channel and stop calcium from entering the cell, stopping vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Amoxicillin

A

Broad spectrum antibiotic. Used to treat pneumonia. Used in H.pylori positive peptic ulcers to treat the H.pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tramadol

A

Opiate analgesic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

NSAIDs

A

Analgesic, anti-pyretic, anti-inflammatory group of drugs. They inhibit COX, so prostaglandin H2 is not produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ibuprofen

A

An NSAID. Inhibits COX by competitively inhibiting it and binding to arachadonic acid. An analgesic and anti-pyretic and anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Beta-lactam antibiotics

A

Inhibits transpeptides and inhibits cell wall biosynthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Furosemide

A

Diuretic. Inhibits Na, K, 2Cl transporter in the ascending loop of Henle. Reduces the reabsorption of salt. Loop diuretic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Thiazide

A

Diuretic. Inhibits the Na, K, Cl co-transporter in the distal tubule in the kidney. Inhibits the reabsorption of water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fluoxetine

A

Selective serotonin uptake inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Lidocaine

A

Local anaesthetic. Inhibits pain by sitting on the underside of the sodium channel and forming a plug so the sensory impulse is stopped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Botulinum toxin

A

Used for blepharospasm (twitching eyelids), spasticity, strabismus and urinary incontinence. Blocks ACh release at neuromuscular junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pancuronium

A

Used as a muscle relaxant in general anaesthesia, it is a competitive nAChr antagonist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Neostigmine

A

Reversible cholinesterase. Used at the end of general anaesthesia to wake people up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pilocarpine

A

Used in the eye during glaucoma. Muscarinic partial agonist. Contracts constrictor muscle and ciliary muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ipratropium

A

Bronchodilator used in COPD and asthma. Muscarinic antagonist inhibits vagal reflex activity. Non-selective, slow response, 6-8 hours. Competitively inhibits ACh so causes relaxation of airway smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tiotropium

A

Bronchodilator used in COPD and asthma. Muscarinic antagonist inhibits vagal reflex activity. M1/M3 selective, long acting. Competitively inhibits ACh so causes relaxation of airway smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Amphetamine

A

Adrenergic agonist. Stimulates noradrenaline release at synaptic cleft. Delays fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Naloxene

A

Reverses opioid induced respiratory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Polyene

A

Treats systemic and topical fungal infections by inhibiting ergosterol biosynthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Allylamine

A

Treats superficial fungal infections by inhibiting ergosterol biosynthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Echinocandin

A

Treats systemic fungal infections by inhibiting the formation of the cell wall glucan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pyrimidine

A

Treats systemic fungal infections by inhibiting DNA and RNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cefotaxime

A

Antibiotic that treats meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ceftriaxone

A

Antibiotic that treats meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Clavulanic acid

A

Beta-lactamase inhibitor. Used in conjunction with beta-lactam antibiotics when dealing with resistant bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Tazobactam

A

Beta-lactamase inhibitor. Used in conjunction with beta-lactams antibiotics when dealing with resistant bacteria

44
Q

Azteonam

A

Monobactam anti-biotic. Only active against gram negative bacilli

45
Q

Vancomycin

A

Glycopeptide antibiotic. Gram positive agents only. IV only, reserved for resistant/serious bacteria eg MRSA

46
Q

Erythromycin

A

Macolide antibiotic. Good strep and staph activity (gram positive). Used as an alternative to penicillin in patients who are allergic

47
Q

Clarithromycin

A

Antibiotic. Good strep and staph activity (gram positive). Can be used instead of penicillin/amoxicillin. Used in peptic ulcers to treat H.pylori

48
Q

Gentamycin

A

Antibiotic. Active against enterobacteriaceae , pseudomonas and staph (including MRSA). Very toxic so monitor well.

49
Q

Fusidic acid.

A

Mainly an anti-staph agent. Must not use alone to prevent resistance.

50
Q

Linezolid

A

Inhibitor of bacterial protein synthesis. Active against gram positive only, including MRSE and VRE. Expensive

51
Q

Rifampicin

A

Used primarily for TB but can be used against staph. Resistance develops rapidly so use in combination. Can be used to treat cholecstatic itching but can damage the liver.

52
Q

Rituximab

A

A monoclonal antibody. Binds to the CD29 receptor on B cells. Used in lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukaemia.

53
Q

Clopidogrel

A

An irreversible P2Y12 antagonist that affects platelet function. Inhibits ADP induced platelet aggregation. Anti-platelet, similar to aspirin

54
Q

Ticagrelor

A

A reversible P2Y12 oral antagonist. Doesn’t require metabolic conversion so has a fast onset of action and anti-platelet effect

55
Q

Tirofiban

A

A GP2b3a inhibitor. Has a rapid onset and rapid reversibility of anti platelet effect

56
Q

Ramipril

A

ACE inhibitor. Used in hypertension, heart failure and diabetic nephropathy. Adverse effects include hypotension and renal failure

57
Q

Perindopril

A

ACE inhibitor. Used in hypertension, heart failure and diabetic nephropathy. Adverse effects include hypotension and renal failure

58
Q

Enalapril

A

ACE inhibitor. Used in hypertension, heart failure and diabetic nephropathy. Adverse effects include hypotension and renal failure

59
Q

Trandolapril

A

ACE inhibitor. Used in hypertension, heart failure and diabetic nephropathy. Adverse effects include hypotension and renal failure

60
Q

Candesartan

A

Angiotensin 2 receptor blocker. Used for hypertension, diabetic nephropathy and heart failure.

61
Q

Valsartan

A

Angiotensin 2 receptor blocker. Used for hypertension, diabetic nephropathy and heart failure.

62
Q

Telmisartan

A

Angiotensin 2 receptor blocker. Used for hypertension, diabetic nephropathy and heart failure.

63
Q

Losartan

A

Angiotensin 2 receptor blocker. Used for hypertension, diabetic nephropathy and heart failure.

64
Q

Irbesartan

A

Angiotensin 2 receptor blocker. Used for hypertension, diabetic nephropathy and heart failure.

65
Q

Amlodipine

A

Calcium channel blocker. Used for hypertension, IHD, arrhythmias, angina. Preferentially affect vascular smooth muscle and vasodilate peripheral arteries

66
Q

Nifedipine

A

Calcium channel blocker. Used for hypertension, IHD, arrhythmias, angina. Preferentially affect vascular smooth muscle and vasodilate peripheral arteries

67
Q

Felodipine

A

Calcium channel blocker. Used for hypertension, IHD, arrhythmias, angina. Preferentially affect vascular smooth muscle and vasodilate peripheral arteries

68
Q

Lacidipine

A

Calcium channel blocker. Used for hypertension, IHD, arrhythmias, angina. Preferentially affect vascular smooth muscle and vasodilate peripheral arteries

69
Q

Verapamil

A

Calcium channel blocker. Used for hypertension, IHD, arrhythmia, angina. Mainly affects the heart, it is negatively chronotopic and inotropic.

70
Q

Diltiazem

A

Calcium channel blocker. Used for hypertension, IHD, arrhythmia, angina. Intermediate heart/peripheral vascular effects

71
Q

Bisoprolol

A

Beta-1 selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker. Used for IHD, heart failure, arrhythmia and hypertension.

72
Q

Metoprolol

A

Beta-1 selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker. Used for IHD, heart failure, arrhythmia and hypertension.

73
Q

Carvedilol

A

Non-selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker. Used for IHD, heart failure, arrhythmia and angina.

74
Q

Propranolol

A

Non-selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker. Used for IHD, heart failure, arrhythmia and angina.

75
Q

Nadolol

A

Non-selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker. Used for IHD, heart failure, arrhythmia and angina.

76
Q

Atenolol

A

Partially beta-1 selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker. Used for IHD, arrhythmia, heart failure and angina

77
Q

Aspirin

A

Inhibits platelet aggregation. COX inhibitor, irreversibly inactivates COX binding to it. Analgesic, anti-pyretic.

78
Q

Bendroflumethiazide

A

Thiazide and related diuretic. Works in the distal tubule. Used for hypertension and heart failure. Inhibits the reabsorption of water.

79
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide

A

Thiazide and related diuretic. Works in the distal tubule. Used for hypertension and heart failure. Inhibits the reabsorption of water.

80
Q

Bumetanide

A

Loop diuretic. Used for hypertension and heart failure. Works in the loop of Henle. Reduced the reabsorption of salt

81
Q

Benzylpenicillin

A

Beta-lactam antibacterials. Treats many streptococcal, meningococcal infections, Lyme disease

82
Q

Amoxicillin

A

Beta-lactam antibiotic. Treats chronic bronchitis and middle ear infections.

83
Q

Cefalexin

A

Cephalosporin. Inhibits bacterial wall synthesis. Used for septicaemia, pneumonia, meningitis, biliary tract infection, peritonitis, UTIs

84
Q

Aluminium hydroxide

A

Antacid used for dyspepsia and peptic ulceration

85
Q

Ranitidine

A

H2-receptor antagonist. Used for gastric and duodenal ulceration, GORD

86
Q

Cyclizine

A

Antihistamine used in nausea and vomiting caused by motion sickness, drug-induced, vestibular disorders

87
Q

Metoclopramide

A

Used in post-op and GORD.

88
Q

Ferrous sulphate

A

Oral iron. Treatment of iron deficiency, prophylaxis in high risk patients

89
Q

Hydroxocobalamin

A

Vitamin B12 used for Vitamin B12 deficiency

90
Q

Warfarin

A

Oral anticoagulants. Rapid anticoagulation in venous thromboembolism

91
Q

Alteplase

A

Fibrinolytic drug. Used in acute MI, massive PE, acute Ischaemic stroke

92
Q

Diclofenac

A

NSAID

93
Q

Alendronic acid

A

Bisphosphonate. Prophylaxis and treatment of osteoporosis in combination with calcium and vitamin D

94
Q

Disodium pamidronate

A

Bisphosphonate. Hypercalcaemia of malignancy and osteolytic lesions

95
Q

Spironolactone

A

Aldosterone antagonist diuretic. Treats heart failure, Ascites in chronic liver disease

96
Q

Adenosine

A

IV injection used for arrhythmias

97
Q

Amiodarone hydrochloride

A

Oral or IV. Used for arrhythmias

98
Q

Flecainide

A

Anti-arrhythmic drug

99
Q

Digoxin

A

Anti-arrhythmic drug

100
Q

Levothyroxine sodium

A

Thyroid hormone used for hypothyroidism, thyroid carcinoma

101
Q

Carbimazole

A

Antithyroid drugs. Interferes with synthesis of thyroid hormones

102
Q

Prednisolone

A

Corticosteroid. Used in primary adrenal insufficiency.

103
Q

Hydrocortisone

A

Corticosteroid. Used in primary adrenal insufficiency.

104
Q

Dexamethasone

A

Corticosteroid. Used in primary adrenal insufficiency.

105
Q

Metformin

A

Oral antidiabetic drug

106
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Antiepileptic drug. Used in adults

Phase 2a Annie Evans (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions