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Phase 2a Annie Evans > Definitions > Flashcards

Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

Organisation

A

Reorganising a tissue, the growth of capillaries and fibroblasts to change it from one thing to another, typically filling a cavity

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2
Q

Resolution

A

When the initiating factor is removed and the tissue is undamaged or able to regenerate

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3
Q

Repair

A

When the initiating factor is still present, the tissue is damaged and unable to regenerate

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4
Q

Healing by 1st intention

A

There is no gap between skin edges, the skin heals straight away and there is no infection

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5
Q

Healing by 2nd intention

A

There is a loss of tissue, you get granulation before a big scar forms

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6
Q

Stasis

A

A period of inactivity

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7
Q

An embolus

A

A mass of material in the vascular system. It can be lodged in a vessel and block it

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8
Q

Ischaemia

A

Lack of blood and reduction in blood flow

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9
Q

Infarction

A

When the cells have died from reduced blood flow

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10
Q

End artery supply

A

When only one artery supplies an organ

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11
Q

Congenital disorder

A

Disorders present at birth, could be developed in utero or inherited

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12
Q

Inherited disorder

A

Disorders caused by inherited genetic abnormality

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13
Q

Acquired disorders

A

Disorders caused by non-genetic environmental factors, they can be congenital (feral alcohol syndrome)

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14
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Increase in size of tissue caused by an increase in size of constituent cells

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15
Q

Hyperplasia

A

Increase in size of tissue caused by an increase in number of constituent cells

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16
Q

Atrophy

A

Decrease in size of tissue caused by a decrease in number or size of constituent cells

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17
Q

Metaplasia

A

Change in differentiation of a cell from one fully-differentiated type to a different fully-differentiated type

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18
Q

Dysplasia

A

Imprecise term for the morphological changes seen in cells in the progression to becoming cancer

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19
Q

Dermal elastosis

A

Wrinkles

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20
Q

Carcinoma in situ

A

A neoplasm that hasn’t broken through the basement membrane

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21
Q

Invasive carcinoma

A

A neoplasm that has broken through the basement membrane

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22
Q

Micro-invasive carcinoma

A

A neoplasm that has partly broken through the basement membrane

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23
Q

Tumour

A

Any abnormal swelling, including a neoplasm, inflammation, hyper trophy and hyperplasia

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24
Q

Neoplasm

A

A lesion resulting from the autonomous abnormal growth of cells, which persists after the initiating stimulus is removed. A new growth.

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25
Q

Screening

A

The process of identifying apparently healthy people who may be at an increased risk of a disease or condition

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26
Q

Sensitivity

A

How successful was the test at identifying all those with cancer in the group studied

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27
Q

Specificity

A

How well did the test identify all those without cancer in the group studied

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28
Q

Clonal selection hypothesis

A

The body that produces lots and lots of different types of B cells and it’s just luck that they fit with the bacteria

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29
Q

Primary lymphoid tissue

A

Where lymphocytes reach maturity (bone marrow/thymus). Also known as central lymphoid tissue

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30
Q

Secondary lymphoid tissue

A

Where lymphocytes are activated by antigens (spleen/lymph nodes). Also know as peripheral lymphoid tissue

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31
Q

Antimicrobial peptide

A

Secreted PRR that binds to the outside of a pathogen to make it easier for phagocytes to find

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32
Q

Lectins and collectins

A

Carbohydrate-containing proteins (secreted PRR) that bind to microbe walls, activate complement and improve phagocytosis by making the cell more obvious

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33
Q

Toll-like receptor

A

Cell associated (on the cell surface) PRR that binds to lipopolysaccharides and signals an immune response

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34
Q

Mannose receptor

A

Cell-associated PRR present on macrophages that detect fungi

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35
Q

Dectin-1

A

Cell associated PRR receptor present on phagocytes that detects fungi, it is more widespread that mannose receptor because it is on more cells

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36
Q

Nod-like receptor

A

Intracellular PRR that detects intracellular microbial pathogens

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37
Q

Hypersensitivity reaction

A

When an altered state of immunological responsiveness causes an inappropriate or excessive immune response

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38
Q

Rig-like receptor

A

Intracellular PRR that detects intracellular double-stranded viral RNA and DNA

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39
Q

PRR

A

Pathogen recognition receptor

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40
Q

PAMP

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns

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41
Q

Natural killer cells

A

A lymphocyte (not phagocytic) that recognises ‘altered self’, kills unless they recognise a self-protein

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42
Q

Defensins

A

Positively charged peptides made by neutrophils. Insert into bacterial membranes and cause apoptosis of bacteria

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43
Q

Interferons

A

Produced by virally infected cells and T helper 1 cells. Combat viruses by interfering with cell replication and activated other immune responses

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44
Q

Cytokine

A

Small molecules secreted during an immune response that helps to signal and activate responding cells

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45
Q

Chemokines

A

Small molecules secreted during an immune response, these often signal cells to migrate to areas of inflammation

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46
Q

Perforin

A

Aids in delivering contents of cytotoxic T cell granules into the cytoplasm of target cell

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47
Q

Granzymes

A

Granules in cytotoxic T cells that are serine proteases, which activate apoptosis once in the cytoplasm of target cell

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48
Q

Granulysin

A

Granule in cytotoxic T cell that has anti-microbial actions and can induce apoptosis of target cell

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49
Q

Treg cells

A

T cells which can negatively regulate immune responses. High Treg count has bad patient prognosis

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50
Q

Natural Treg cells

A

Derived in the thymus, have CD4CD25 receptors

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51
Q

Adaptive Treg cells

A

Conventional T cells that are induced to turn into Treg cells in the periphery

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52
Q

Human leukocyte antigen

A

A group of proteins encoded within the MHC that the body uses to identify ‘self’

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53
Q

Cancer immunosurveillance

A

When the immune system can recognise and destroy nascent transformed cells all the time, normal control

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54
Q

Cancer immunoediting

A

Tumours tend to be genetically unstable, thus the immune system can kill and also induce changes in the tumour resulting in tumour escape and recurrence

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55
Q

Tumour escape

A

Immune responses change tumours such that the tumours will no longer be seen by the immune system

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56
Q

Tumour evasion

A

Tumours change the immune response by promoting immune suppressor cells

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57
Q

Immunotherapy

A

Learning how to harness the immune system to kill tumours

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58
Q

Adaptive immunotherapy

A

Inducing an immune response against the tumour that would discriminate between the tumour and normal cells

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59
Q

Active immunotherapy

A

Augmentation of host immunity to tumours with cytokines and co-stimulators or vaccinations

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60
Q

Passive immunotherapy

A

Adaptive cellular therapy (T cells) or anti-tumour antibodies

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61
Q

Allergy

A

Abnormal response to harmless foreign material

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62
Q

Atopy

A

A tendency to develop allergies

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63
Q

Tumour necrosis factor

A

Proinflammatory Cytokine with many functions, it causes death, mediates inflammation, maturation of dendritic cells, activation of T helper 1 cells

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64
Q

IL-6

A

An inflammatory cytokine, to function naked IL-6 requires gp130 and IL-6 receptor to be displayed on a cell

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65
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

Describes how the body affects the drug

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66
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

Describes how the drug affects the body

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67
Q

Potency

A

How well the drug works, described in EC50 (concentration that gives maximal response)

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68
Q

Full agonist

A

An agonist that gives maximal response

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69
Q

Partial agonist

A

An agonist that will never give you the full response. The Emax value describes the maximal response

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70
Q

Competitive agonist

A

Occurs when it can give maximal response is given by both the agonist and the antagonist

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71
Q

Non-competitive antagonist

A

When the maximal response of the agonist is reduced

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72
Q

Affinity

A

How well the ligand binds to the molecule, it is shown by agonists and antagonists.

73
Q

Efficacy

A

How well the ligand activates a cell, it is just shown by agonists

74
Q

Receptor reserve

A

A partial agonist has no receptor reserve, even with 100% occupancy maximal response is not seen. It varies from tissue to tissue

75
Q

Signal transduction

A

Receptor is activated, other things (kinases etc.) get activated, lots of different steps leading to a response (transduction cascade)

76
Q

Allosteric modulation

A

An allosteric ligand binds to the allosteric site on the agonist and affects the affinity in either a positive or negative way.

77
Q

Drug tolerance

A

Reduction in drug effect over time. Needs continuous, repeated, high concentration drugs

78
Q

Drug desensitisation

A

Receptors become uncoupled, internalised or degraded

79
Q

Anti-pyretic

A

Reduce body temperature

80
Q

Chimeric antibodies

A

Mostly human but Fab region is mouse antibody

81
Q

Humanised antibodies

A

Almost all human but has 3 hypervariable mouse antibody sections

82
Q

Compliance

A

The extent to which the patients behaviour coincides with medical or health advice (very professional based, not patient based)

83
Q

Pain

A

Unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

84
Q

Invasins

A

Invade ileal and colonic epithelial cells causing local acute inflammatory response/tissue damage

85
Q

Virulence determinants

A

A product or strategy that determines a bacteria virulence

86
Q

CDT

A

Cytolethal distending toxin. Arrests cell cycle, target cells swell and lyse.

87
Q

Urease

A

Hydrolyses urea to generate ammonia in order to buffer gastric acid

88
Q

Protein A

A

A defensive protein, binds the Fc part of antibody so it can’t bind to immunological cells

89
Q

Haemagglutinin

A

A sticky protein, sticking RBCs together and also to the epithelium

90
Q

Pyogenic

A

Puss-forming

91
Q

Cytotoxin

A

Several proteins that form a ring structure on cell membrane, causing a hole to form

92
Q

Streptokinase

A

An enzyme released by strep. pyogenes, it breaks down clots that would walk off infection

93
Q

Pre-patent period

A

The interval between infection of worms and the appearance of eggs in the stool

94
Q

Nematodes

A

Roundworms

95
Q

Trematodes

A

Flatworms, flukes

96
Q

Cestodes

A

Tapeworms

97
Q

Infectivity

A

The ability to become established in host, can involve adherence and immune escape

98
Q

Virulence

A

The ability to cause a disease once established in a host

99
Q

Invasiveness

A

The capacity of a pathogen to penetrate mucosal surfaces to reach normally sterile sites

100
Q

Microbiome

A

Describes the totality of micro-organisms, their genetic element and their environmental interactions in an environment

101
Q

Metagenomomics

A

Uses the genetic approach to describe the diversity of the microorganisms in an environment

102
Q

Adhesins

A

Help bacteria binds to mucosal surfaces

103
Q

Biofilms

A

Bacteria can stick together on a surface by secreting an extracellular polymeric substance of protein, polysaccharides and DNA

104
Q

Superantigens

A

Bacteria and viruses can produce antigens that bind outside the peptide groove of the T-cell receptor, stimulating large numbers of T cells

105
Q

Prophylaxis

A

Preventative healthcare

106
Q

Kernig’s sign

A

As you straighten out the leg you pull the meninges and it’s very painful if the patient has meningitis

107
Q

Brudzinski’s neck sign

A

When you lift the head and the patient reflexively lifts the knees to stop the meninges stretching if the patient has meningitis

108
Q

Septicaemia

A

When an infection is found in the circulating blood this is septicaemia a.k.a. Blood poisoning

109
Q

Antimicrobial

A

Agents produced by microorganisms that kill or inhibit the growth of other microbes in high dilution

110
Q

ROTI

A

Related organ or tissue impairment

111
Q

End of life care

A

If you are likely to die in the next year

112
Q

Medical ethics

A

Critical evaluations of assumptions and arguments

113
Q

Clinical truth

A

Clinical truth is contextual, personal and circumstantial. The cannot ignore objective truth but it mustn’t be relegated to it either

114
Q

Deontology

A

Based on the belief that we have a duty of care to others. People are never treated as a mean to an end, they are the end. Tell the whole truth ignoring consequences. What would happen if everyone did this?

115
Q

Consequentialism

A

Consequences are the most important thing, the way you get there isn’t important

116
Q

Virtue ethics

A

A good person will act in a good way

117
Q

Cardiac failure

A

Failure to transport blood out of the heart

118
Q

Absolute risk

A

The risk of developing or dying from a condition over a specific period of time

119
Q

Relative risk

A

A comparison between different risk levels

120
Q

Attributable risk

A

Proportion of total risk that is due to a particular factor

121
Q

Number needed to treat

A

The number of patients who need to take the treatment for one person to benefit from it

122
Q

BME

A

An umbrella term used to describe people form minority social groups who share the common experience of discrimination of inequality because of their ethnic origin, language, culture or religion

123
Q

Population attributable fraction (PAF)

A

The proportion of the incidence of a disease in the exposed and non-exposed population that is due to the exposure

124
Q

Psychosocial factors

A

Factors influencing psychological responses to the social environment and pathophysiological changes

125
Q

LVSD

A

Heart failure due to left ventricle systolic dysfunction

126
Q

HFPEF

A

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (diastolic failure)

127
Q

Syncope

A

Passing out

128
Q

Spirometry

A

Fill lung as much as possible, blow the air out as fast and for as long as possible

129
Q

Obstructive lung disease

A

Airways diseases, long time to exhale, FEV1/FVC

130
Q

Restrictive lung disease

A

Interstitial or chest wall diseases. Lung volume is small so FEV1/FVC >80%

131
Q

Transfer co-efficient

A

Measure of ability of oxygen to diffuse across the alveolar membrane

132
Q

Occupational medicine

A

Branch of medicine concerned with the interaction of work and health

133
Q

Epidemiology

A

The study of how often and why

134
Q

Outbreaks

A

2 or more linked cases

135
Q

Epidemic

A

More cases in the region/country

136
Q

Pandemic

A

Epidemics that span international boundaries

137
Q

Mast cell degranulation

A

Release of granule contents out of the cell. They release pre-formed mediators (histamine and enzymes) and newly synthesised mediators (cysteinyl leukotrienes and prostaglandin D2)

138
Q

Epithelial degranulation

A

Losing epithelium (in asthma due to toxic proteins, major basic protein and eosinophil cationic protein)

139
Q

Orthodromic impulses

A

Impulses in the correct direction

140
Q

Chvostek’s sign

A

Tapping over the facial nerve in the region of the parotid gland causes twitching of the ipsilateral facial muscles

141
Q

Trousseau’s sign

A

Carpopedal spasm induced by inflation of the sphygmomanometer cuff to a level about systolic blood pressure

142
Q

Kussmaul’s respiration

A

Deep rapid breathing

143
Q

Tinnel’s sign

A

Tapping on the carpal tunnel may reproduce the pain of carpal tunnel syndrome

144
Q

There is progressive onset of limb weakness that reaches its nadir within 4 weeks. Reflexes are lost early in the illness. There are often sensory symptoms, parasthesiae. Disability ranges from mild to very severe, with involvement of the respiratory and facial muscles. Autonomic features, such as postural hypotension, cardiac arrhythmias, ileus and bladder atony are sometimes seen

A

Guillian-barre syndrome

145
Q

Fatiguability of muscle on sustained or repeated activity that improves after rest. The ocular muscles are the first to be involved in about 65% of patients. The extraocular progression of weakness usually from top down leading to difficulty in talking, chewing, swallowing and respiratory difficulties

A

Myasthenia gravis

146
Q

Erythema in the involved area, with poorly demarcated margins, swelling, warmth and tenderness. There may be a low-grade fever. In erysipelas the area is raised and erythematous and sharply demarcated from normal skin

A

Cellulitis

147
Q

Muscle necrosis with sever pain and tissue swelling, gas production and sepsis with rapid progression to shock

A

Gas gangrene

148
Q

Blackheads, whiteheads, inflammatory papules and pustules. Maybe hypertrophic or keloidal scarring and hyperpigmentation, which occurs predominantly in patients with darker complexions

A

Acne

149
Q

Well-demarcated, salmon-pink silvery scaling lesions occur on the extensor surfaces of the limbs, particularly the elbows and knees. Scalp involvement is common

A

Chronic plaque psoriasis

150
Q

Red glazed non-scaly plaques confined to flexures such as the groin, natal cleft and sub-mammary areas

A

Flexural psoriasis

151
Q

Psoriasis occurs most commonly in children and young adults. An explosive eruption of very small circular or oval plaques appears over the trunk about 2 weeks after a strep throat infection

A

Guttate

152
Q

Itchy, erythematous scaly patches, especially in the flexures such as in front of the elbows and ankles, behind the knees and around the neck. Scratching can produce excoriations and repeated rubbing produces skin thickening with exaggerated skin markings

A

Atopic eczema

153
Q

An unusual pattern of rash with clear-cut demarcation or odd-shaped areas or erythema and scaling.

A

Exogenous eczema

154
Q

A shiny pearly nodule which may go on to ulcerate.

A

Basal cell carcinoma

155
Q

Ill-defined nodules that ulcerate and grow rapidly.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

156
Q

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

A

Dry eyes

157
Q

Xerostomia

A

Dry mouth

158
Q

Hydronephrosis

A

Dilation of the renal pelvis or calyces

159
Q

Obstructive uropathy

A

Functional or anatomic obstruction of urine flow at any level of the urinary tract

160
Q

Supravesical obstruction

A

Above the level of the bladder

161
Q

Infravesical obstruction

A

Below the level of the bladder

162
Q

Bacteriuria

A

The presence of bacteria in the urine, can be symptomatic or asymptomatic

163
Q

Pyruria

A

Presence of leukocytes in the urine, associated with infection.

164
Q

Define epileptic seizure

A

Paroxysmal event in which changes of behaviours, sensation or cognitive processes are caused by excessive, hypersynchronous neuronal discharges in the brain

165
Q

Define syncope

A

Paroxysmal event in which changes in behaviour, sensation and cognitive processes are caused by an insufficient blood or oxygen supply to the brain

166
Q

Define a non-epileptic seizure

A

Paroxysmal event in which changes in behaviour, sensation and cognitive function caused by mental process associated with psychosocial distress occurs

167
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A

Slippage of one vertebrae over the one below

168
Q

Spondylosis

A

Degenerative disc disease

169
Q

Myelopathy

A

Spinal cord disease

170
Q

Radiculopathy

A

Spinal nerve root disease

171
Q

What is autoinflammatory?

A

Describes a group of conditions with heritable systemic inflammation syndromes without circulating autoantibodies

172
Q

What is base excess?

A

The amount of acid or base required to return 1 litre of blood to ‘normal’ mean standard bicarbonate of 22.9mEq/L

173
Q

Puberty

A

The process of physical changes through which a child’s body matured into an adult body capable of sexual reproduction to enable fertilisation

174
Q

Adrenarche

A

Adrenal maturation with increased adrenal androgens

175
Q

Gonadarche

A

Gonadal maturation secondary to increased GnRH activity

176
Q

Pubarche

A

The development of pubic hair

177
Q

Thelarche

A

The development of breasts

178
Q

Precocious puberty

A

Early puberty, girls before 8, boys before 9

179
Q

Delayed puberty

A

Girls after 13, boys after 14

Phase 2a Annie Evans (6 decks)

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