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MRCP - Part 1 > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What S/E does lithium commonly cause

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

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2
Q

What main S/E does carbamazepine cause and what are other S/Es

A

SIADH
N + V
Drowsiness
Dizziness
Headache

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3
Q

How is nifedipine metabolised

A

CYP3A4 cytochrome P450 isoenzyme

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4
Q

What type of juice is contraindicated in drugs metabolised by the CYP34A P450 isoenzyme (such as nifedipine and simvastatin)

A

Grapefruit juice
It inhibits the enzyme

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5
Q

What is the pharmacological mechanism of tolterodine and what is this drug used for

A

Bladder instability
Muscarinic antagonist

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6
Q

What is the action of celecoxib and when would an example of this be used

A

Sodium retention by inhibiting secretion
Reduces risk of heterotopic ossification in patients post fracture and surgical fixation

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7
Q

Primary action of allopurinol

A

Inhibits urate production

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8
Q

In the context of a drug overdose, what does activated charcoal do

A

Reduce further absorption of overdosed substances

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9
Q

What strongly indicates a need for repeated oral activated charcoal administration

A

In cases where the drug circulates through the enterohepatic circulation

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10
Q

Major pharmacological mode of aspirin

A

cycloxygenase 1 and 2 inhibition

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11
Q

Causes of drug induced lupus

A

Hydralazine
Procainamide
Phenytoin
Ethosuximide

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12
Q

What can reduce the chance of tumour lysis syndrome pre chemotherapy

A

Pre hydration
Allopurinol or rasburicase (latter in high risk patients)

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13
Q

Treatment of mycoplasma

A

Clarithromycin
Doxycycline

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14
Q

Action of haloperidol

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone

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15
Q

Drugs that act at the chemoreceptor trigger zone

A

Haloperidol
Promethazine
Domperidone

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16
Q

Mechanism of action of cyclizine

A

Blocks cholinergic pathways

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17
Q

S/e carbimazole

A

Nausea
Rash / Itchiness
Arthalgia
Alopecia
Agranulocytosis
Jaundice

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18
Q

What is carbimazole used to treat

A

Hyperthyroidism

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19
Q

Mechanism of action of terlipressin in hepatorenal syndrome

A

Decreases plasma renin activity

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20
Q

Features of phenytoin pharmacology

A

Has very high protein binding
(phenytoin levels measure both free and protein binded levels)
So is subject to slow elimination of the drug

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21
Q

Features of ethambutol toxicity

A

Hyperuricaemia
Visual disturbance (optic neuropathy - fundoscopy often normal)

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22
Q

What is indometacin

A

NSAID

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23
Q

What liver picture can augmentin cause

A

Obstructive

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24
Q

Treatment of hypertensive crisis

A

IV sodium nitroprusside

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25
Q

S/Es of long term use of phenyotin

A

Gum hypertrophy
Folate deficiency
Osteomalacia
Coarse facial features
Neuropathy
Aplastic anaemia (rarely)

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26
Q

Features of theophylline toxicity

A

Severe N + V
Seizures
Myoclonus
Hyperthermia
Rhabdomyolysis
AKI

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27
Q

S/E metoclopramide

A

Extrapyramidal effects (especially in children and young adults)
Hyperprolactinaemia
Tardive dyskinesia
Drowsiness
Restlessness
Diarrhoea
Depression
Neuroepileptic malignant syndrome
Rashes
Puritis
Oedema

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28
Q

Drug causes of galactorrhoea

A

Metoclopramide
Chlorpromazine
Haloperidol
a-methyldopa
Opioids
Fluoxetine
Ranitidine

29
Q

Effects of rifampicin on INR and how

A

Lowers INR
Powerful enzyme inducer

30
Q

Drugs that cause an increased INR

A

Ciprofloxacin
Metronidazole
Allopurinol
Cimetidine

31
Q

What chemotherapy agents are known to promote the effects of radiation therapy

A

Dactinomycin
Metronidazole
5-fluorouracil
Gemcitabine
Cisplatin
Hydroxyurea
Paclitaxel
Mitomycin C
Topotecan

32
Q

Treatment of bacterial overgrowth syndrome

A

Co-amoxiclav

33
Q

How does azathioprine work

A

Inhibits purine synthase
Suppresses lymphocyte numbers and function

34
Q

Drug interactions with statins

A

Macrolides
Antacid
Antifungals
Cyclosporin
Nicotinic acid
Fibrate therapy

35
Q

Against which receptor does rituximab have its main activity

A

CD20

36
Q

Antibiotics that work by disruption of bacterial wall synthesis or intergrity

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems
Vancomycin

37
Q

Antibiotics that work by disruption of bacterial ribosome function

A

Tetracyclines
Gentamicin
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Clindamycin
Chloramphenicol

38
Q

Antibiotics that work by disruption of nucleic acid synthesis

A

Folate synthesis - TMP and sulfoxamethazole
Ciprofloxacin
Rifampicin (RNA polymerase)

39
Q

Causes of drug induced hepatitis

A

Fenofibrate
Methyldopa
Carbamazepine
Nitrofurantoin
Isoniazid

40
Q

Treatment of enteomeaba histolytica

A

Metronidazole

41
Q

S/Es ciclosporin

A

Hyperuricaemia
Hypertrichosis
Gum hypertrophy

42
Q

Mechanism of action of warfarin

A

Vitamin K antagonist

43
Q

How does LMWH work

A

Activates antithrombin III which binds to and inhibits factor Xa

44
Q

How does dalbigatran work

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor

45
Q

How does rivaroxaban / edoxaban / apixaban work

A

Inhibits activated factor Xa

46
Q

anti-emetic to be used in intracranail disease

A

cyclizine

47
Q

anti-emetic to be used in vestibular / movement induced vomiting

A

cyclizine

48
Q

anti emetic used in gastric stasis

A

metoclopramide

49
Q

anti emetic used in drug induced vomiting

A

haloperidol

50
Q

anti emetic used in metabolic induced vomiting

A

haloperidol

51
Q

anti emetic to be used in pregnancy

A

Promethazine

52
Q

Treatment of beta blocker overdose

A

Consider activated charcoal if wihtin one hour
IV sodium bicarb if
- QRS > 120
- Hypotension not responsive to fluids
IV glucagon in scenarios where refractory to fluid resuscitation and atropine

53
Q

Features of cyanide poisoning

A

Cherry red skin
Bitter almond odour on breath

54
Q

Treatment of mild cyanide poisoning

A

IV sodium thiosulphate

55
Q

Treatment of moderate cyanide poisoning

A

IV hydroxoycobalamin

56
Q

Treatment of severe cyanide poisoning

A

IV hydroxycobalamin +/- IV sodium thiosulphate

57
Q

Treatment of ethylene glycol ingestion

A

fomepizole or ethanol

58
Q

S/E amiodarone

A

Photodermatitis
Greyish blue discolouration on sun exposed areas
Hypo or hyperthyroidism

59
Q

S/E ciclosporin

A

Chronic interstitial nephritis

60
Q

Mechanism of action of flecanide

A

Slows the upstroke of the action potential

61
Q

How does tamoxifen work

A

Functions as a selective oestrogen receptor modulator

62
Q

S/Es rifampicin

A

N + V / diarrhoea
Loss of apetitie
Bodily fluids turn orange

63
Q

S/Es isoniazid

A

Transaminitis
Peripheral neuropathy

64
Q

Which anti-TB drugs increase the risk of gout

A

Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

65
Q

Mechanism of action of clopidogrel

A

ADP receptor inhibitor

66
Q

Mechanism of action of Dipyridamole

A

Phosphodiresterase inhibitor

67
Q

1st line treatment for both acute and chronic schizophrenia

A

Risperidone

68
Q
A

MRCP - Part 1 (20 decks)

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