Pharmacology Flashcards
Which antibiotics act on the 30s Ribosome?
Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, tigecycline
Which antibiotics act on the 50s ribosome?
Chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, macrolides, streptogramins
Which antibiotics act on the metabolic pathways (aka folate synthesis)?
Sulphonamides, trimethoprim
Which antibiotics act on nucleic acid synthesis?
Fluoroquinolones, metronidazole, rifamycins
Which antibiotics act on membrane stability?
Polymyxin, daptomycin
Which antibiotics act on cell wall synthesis?
Beta-lactams (penicillin’s, cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactams), bacitracin, glycopeptides
What are the SEs of drinking alcohol whilst taking metronidazole? How long should you wait after finishing a course before drinking?
N+V, skin flushing, headaches, abdo pain, tachycardia.
48 hours.
Ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin are what class of antibiotic?
Fluoroquinolones: act on nucleic acid synthesis.
Why is nitrofurantoin CI in G6PD pts?
Can trigger a haemolytic crisis
Why do pts on long term nitrofurantoin require lung function monitoring?
Can cause pulmonary fibrosis with long-term use.
Under what eGFR is nitrofurantoin CI? What should you give instead?
<45: give them trimethoprim
Why does trimethoprim cause a false rise in creatinine? What electrolyte may rise?
It competes with creatinine for excretion in the kidney causing it to rise in the absence of AKI.
K+ can also go up: this is true do not ignore.
What is co-trimoxazole a combination of? What are the possibly drug reactions?
Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole.
ADRs: pancreatitis, nephrotoxicity, haemolysis in G6PD pts.
Gentamicin is what type of antibiotic? What should be measured between 18-24 hours after dose? How does this affect management?
Aminoglycosides: measure trough levels.
If trough is high increase time between doses, if peak is high decrease dose.
What is a key SE of gentamicin?
Ototoxicity
How does demeclocycline (tetracycline) affect the collecting duct?
Decreases responsiveness to ADH (nephrogenic DI)
What is 1st line for cholera?
Doxycycline
What macrolide is associated with dyspepsia?
Clarithromycin.
In the case of ESBL producing bacteria, which antibiotic should be used?
Carbepenems such as meropenem
How might co-amoxiclav affect LFTS?
ALP, bilirubin and transaminases may be raised
What is 1st line for septic arthritis?
Flucloxacillin IV: good penetration of joints and treats staph.A which is the most common cause
At what point do you measure the trough levels of vancomycin? How does this affect doasage?
From the 3rd dose: if too low increase dose, if too high increase time between doses
What route is vancomycin given by?
IV unless treating C.Diff
When do you measure teicoplanin trough levels?
6-8 days after starting so less relevant to those on short courses.
What are the side effects of isoniazid?
peripheral neuropathy, liver toxicity
Why would someone who has been treated with chloramphenicol present with bleeding/bruising and recurrent illness?
Chloramphenicol can cause aplastic anaemia and other blood dyscrasias.
What are the side effects of rifampicin?
Orange secretions, haemolysis, p450 inducer, liver toxicity
What are the side effects of ethambutol?
loss of visual acuity, colour blindness (especially red and green), kidney toxicity,
What are the side effects of pyrazinamide?
Most likely (out of TB drugs) to cause liver toxicity, hyperuricaemia (>7), arthralgia, can trigger gout
What is first line for athlete’s foot?
Terbinafine
What is the MOA of oseltamivir? When is it used?
Neuraminidase inhibitor used to help the sx of flu in pts with significant comorbidities.
Diarrhoea is a SE of which commonly used T2DM medication?
Metformin
How do sulfonylureas work? What is a major SE?
Stimulate the release of insulin from beta cells. Therefore can cause hypoglycaemia.
‘zides’ e.g., glipizide
Pioglitazone is is associated with what SE which leads to SOB?
Fluid retention
What is 1st line for diabetic neuropathy?
Pregabalin, duloxetine, or gabapentin.
How do manage insulin dosage in pts around surgery?
stop short acting insulin once pt is NBM, continue long acting at a reduced rate such as 80%.
How do you manage a severe hypoglycaemic episode where the pt is unconscious and you have IV access?
100ml of 20ml glucose
How do you manage a severe hypoglycaemic episode where the pt is unconscious and you DO NOT have IV access?
IM glucagon
How do you manage a hypoglycaemic episode where the pt is conscious?
Buccal gluogel if not able to eat or any fast acting carb if they can eat
What is the difference between a mineralocorticoid and a glucocorticoid?
M: mimic aldosterone, regulate blood volume and pressure.
G: mimic cortisol, aka corticosteroids, regulate immune cells and glucose response
Long-term effects of steroids?
Osteoporosis, aseptic joint necrosis, adrenal insufficiency, gastro/hepatic/ophthalmological effects, hyperlipidaemia, growth suppression.
Corticosteroids can cause disfunction of what immune cells?
Leucocytosis: increased WCC not related to infection
How do you define steroid-induced diabetes? Mx?
Glucose >12mmol/L twice over 24 hours whilst taking steroids.
Mx- gliclazide
What is 1st line for absence seizures?
Ethosuximide
What is 1st line for tonic-clonic seizures?
Na Valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam if this is not appropriate.
What are the SEs of Na Valproate?
VALPROATE:
- Vomiting
- Anorexia
- Liver toxicity
- Pancytopenia and pancreatitis
- Retention of fat (weight gain)
- Oedema
- Alopecia
- Tremor
- Enzyme inhibition
What is 1st line for Myoclonic Seizures?
Na Valproate or levetiracetam if this is not appropriate.
Which seizure medications can worsen absence and myoclonic seizures?
Carbamazepine, gabapentin, lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, pregabalin, tiagabine, vigabatrin.
What is 1st line for atonic seizures?
Na Valproate or lamotrigine if this is not appropriate.
What is the MOA for levetiracetam?
Binds to SV2A vesicle in protein in the brain and modulates synaptic NTM release.
What is the MOA for lamotrigine? What severe complication should be monitored for when first starting the drug?
Na channel blocker.
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome.
What is first line for focal seizures?
Levetiracetam or lamotrigine
What is the MOA of carbamazepine? When is it used?
Stabilises electric signals and reduces glutamate release.
Used for trigeminal neuralgia, bipolar I disorder, and epilepsy syndromes:
- Partial seizures
- Generalised tonic clonic (grand mal) seizures
- Some mixed seizure patterns
When should pharmacotherapy be commenced during seizures?
> 5 minutes (when status is reached)
What is first, second, and third line for status epilepticus?
1) benzodiazepine (lorazepam) which can be given twice
2) IV phenytoin infusion
3) General anaesthetic (Propofol or thiopental)
What medication can be used post traumatic brain injury to prevent seizures?
Phenytoin (often 7 days post TBI).
Measure plasma levels throughout 7 days and if it doesn’t meet therapeutic threshold then increase dose.
What is the MOA of Phenytoin?
Voltage gated sodium channel inhibitor.
What medications can lower the seizure threshold?
Antis:
- Antibiotics: imipenem, penicillin’s, cephalosporins, metronidazole, isoniazid
- Antipsychotics
- Antidepressants: bupropion, tricyclics, venlafaxine
- Antihistamines
Pain:
- Fentanyl
- Ketamine
- Lidocaine
- Tramadol
Psych:
- lithium
Why must a quantiferon test be completed before commencing biologics?
They can reactivate latent TB
What is the MOA of colchicine? SEs?
Reduced inflammation by reducing microtubule assembly.
SEs: GI (N, V, D)
What cytotoxic therapy is associated with haemorrhagic cystitis?
Cyclophosphamide
Which chemotherapy agent is associated with peripheral neuropathy?
Vinblastine
Which chemotherapy agent is associated with dilated cardiomyopathy and subsequent heart failure?
Doxorubicin
Which chemotherapy agent is associated with pulmonary fibrosis?
Bleomycin
Which chemotherapy agent is associated with neurotoxicity?
Asparaginase
MOA of imatinib? What is it used for?
TKI (tyrosine kinase inhibitor) used for CML and GI stromal tumours.
What is PD-1 and PDL-1 therapy?
Programmed cell death receptor/ligand is targets. The monoclonal antibody binds to these, initiating cell death of these cells
How long do patch medications take to reach the required dose?
24 hours
How long does it take for a syringe driver (SC) to reach desired systemic concentration?
4 hours
What is used for rapid tranq in Parkinson’s pts? What is CI?
PR/PO lorazepam.
Haloperidol is CI!!
What are the SEs of dopamine precursors such as levodopa?
N+V, orthostatic hypotension, vivid dreams, and hallucinations.
Which Parkinson’s drug is CI in those with pre-existing impulse control disorders?
Dopamine agonists such as pramipexole.
What is Co-careldopa composed of? Why is this beneficial?
Levadopa + carbidopa.
The carbidopa increases bioavailability of levadopa, reducing peripheral breakdown.
How do you manage Hypokalaemia? At what rate can you replace K+?
When K+ falls below 2.5mmol/L give 0.9% NaCL + 4 mmol KCL and check magnesium as a low K+ is associated with a low magnesium.
You can replace at 10mmol/hr
How do you manage Hyperkalaemia?
- Calcium carbonate
- Insulin/dextrose
- Lokelma?
- Salbutamol?
How do you manage malignant hypercalacaemia?
- Fluids
- Bisphosphonates (e.g., pamidronate)
How do you manage hypocalcaemia? What needs monitoring?
Calcium carbonate and calcitriol.
Monitor ECG as can cause prolonged QT/arrhythmias.
How/ when do you manage hyponatreamia?
<125 mmol/L: hypertonic saline (slowly)
How do you manage hypernatremia in the context of dehydration or excessive salt intake? What rate of correction should not be exceeded?
hypernatremia is >145mmol/L.
Dehydration: NaCl or Hartmann’s
Excessive salt intake: hypotonic fluid such as dextrose.
Do not exceed correction of >10mmol/L over 24 hours.
What are the sx of lithium toxicity? Mx?
Disturbance to CNS: dysarthria, seizures, impaired coordination.
IV fluid therapy.
What are the sx of clozapine toxicity? By what mechanism does this happen?
Confusion, agitation, drowsiness, ataxia, tachycardia.
It is metabolised by CYP450 so anything causing downregulation of this will lead to a build up.
What are the signs/sx of Tricyclic antidepressants OD? Mx?
Anticholinergic sx: tachycardia, hypotension, flushing, decreased urinary/bowel retention, blurred vision, respiratory depression, coma.
You also get QRS widening due to Na channel blockade.
Mx- IV Na bicarb to raise serum pH and alkalisation favours the neutral form of the drug.
What is 1st and 2nd line for pharmacological management of ADHD?
1) Methylphenidate
2) Atomoxetine
What are the SEs of methylphenidate?
Appetite suppression causing growth suppression.
What is more likely to cause SEs: 1st or 2nd generation antipsychotics?
Second (olanzapine, quetiapine, clozapine, risperidone).
Why do SSRIs cause a euvolaemic hyponatraemia?
Can cause SIADH so you get low serum osmolality, high urine osmolality, and a high urinary sodium.
Which SSRI is associated with priaprism?
Trazadone due to a-adrenergic blocking activity.
What changes can SSRIs make to ECGs?
QT prolongation
Why may someone on an SSRI present with maleena?
They carry a risk of peptic ulcer disease and therefore upper GI bleeding.
How often should methotrexate pts have a FBC done? Why?
Every 1-2 weeks until therapy is stabilised, then every 2-3 months after that.
Can cause bone marrow suppression.
What are the SEs of ciclosporin?
Hypertrophy of the gums, hypertrichosis, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hyperglycaemia (diabetes).
Why are pts who carry an epipen CI to have labetalol?
Combined would mean unopposed alpha adrenergic effects which causes a hypertensive crisis.