Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

what are alpha blockers used for? give 4 side effects? when should caution be exercised?

A

Alpha blockers are used in the management of benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension. Examples include doxazosin and tamsulosin.

Side-effects

postural hypotension
drowsiness
dyspnoea
cough

Caution should be exercised in patients who are having cataract surgery due to the risk of intra-operative floppy iris syndrome

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2
Q

What is finasteride used for? give 4 adverse effects? what blood test does this have effect?

A

Finasteride is an inhibitor of 5 alpha-reductase, an enzyme which metabolises testosterone into dihydrotestosterone.

Indications

benign prostatic hyperplasia
male-pattern baldness

Adverse effects

impotence
decrease libido
ejaculation disorders
gynaecomastia and breast tenderness

Finasteride causes decreased levels of serum prostate-specific antigen

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3
Q

What are PDE5 inhibitors? give 3 examples?

A

Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are used in the treatment of erectile dysfunction. They are also used in the management of pulmonary hypertension. PDE5 inhibitors cause vasodilation through an increase in cGMP leading to smooth muscle relaxation in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum.

Examples

sildenafil (Viagra)
    this was the first phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor
    short-acting - usually taken 1 hour before sexual activity
tadalafil (Cialis)
    longer acting than sildenafil, may be taken on a regular basis (e.g. once daily)
vardenafil (Levitra)
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4
Q

Give 3 contraindications to give PDE5 inhibitors

A

Contraindications

patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil
hypotension
recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)
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5
Q

Gvie 6 side effects of PDE5 inhibitors

A

Side-effects

visual disturbances
    blue discolouration
    non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy
nasal congestion
flushing
gastrointestinal side-effects
headache
priapism - esp. in sickle cell
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6
Q

Verapamil: what should this not be given with

A

Angina, hypertension, arrhythmias

Highly negatively inotropic

Should not be given with beta-blockers as may cause heart block

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7
Q

Give 5 side effects of verapamil

A

Heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, flushing

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8
Q

Diltiazem - who should this be used in caution with?

A

Angina, hypertension

Less negatively inotropic than verapamil but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers

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9
Q

Give 4 side effects of diltiazem

A

Hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, ankle swelling

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10
Q

Nifedipine/amlodipine/felodipine - how does this work and what can this commonly cuase?

Give 3 side effects

A

Hypertension, angina, Raynaud’s

Affects the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium and therefore do not result in worsening of heart failure but may therefore cause ankle swelling

Shorter acting dihydropyridines (e.g. nifedipine) cause peripheral vasodilation which may result in reflex tachycardia

Flushing, headache, ankle swelling

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11
Q

Give 10 side effects of amiodarone? give 2 drug interactions

A

Adverse effects of amiodarone use

thyroid dysfunction: both hypothyroidism and hyper-thyroidism
corneal deposits
pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis
liver fibrosis/hepatitis
peripheral neuropathy, myopathy
photosensitivity
'slate-grey' appearance
thrombophlebitis and injection site reactions
bradycardia
lengths QT interval

Important drug interactions of amiodarone include:

decreased metabolism of warfarin, therefore increased INR
increased digoxin levels
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12
Q

Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism
-what is this due to?

A

The pathophysiology of amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide

Amiodarone may be continued if this is desirable

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13
Q

Amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis:
-What are the two types?
-Is a goitre present?
-what is the management of either?

A

AIT type 1:
-Excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis
-Goitre present
-Carbimazole or potassium perchlorate

AIT type 2:
-Amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis
-Goitre absent
-Corticosteroids

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14
Q

What is the mechanism of actione of digoxin? what is the monitoring requirement?

A

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside now mainly used for rate control in the management of atrial fibrillation. As it has positive inotropic properties it is sometimes used for improving symptoms (but not mortality) in patients with heart failure.

Mechanism of action

decreases conduction through the atrioventricular node which slows the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation and flutter
increases the force of cardiac muscle contraction due to inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump. Also stimulates vagus nerve
digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index

Monitoring

digoxin level is not monitored routinely, except in suspected toxicity
if toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose
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15
Q

How do you diagnose digoxin toxicity? what are the 3 features?

A

Plasma concentration alone does not determine whether a patient has developed digoxin toxicity. Toxicity may occur even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range. The BNF advises that the likelihood of toxicity increases progressively from 1.5 to 3 mcg/l.

Features

generally unwell, lethargy, nausea & vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision
arrhythmias (e.g. AV block, bradycardia)
gynaecomastia
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16
Q

What is the classical precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity? give a further 8

A

Precipitating factors

classically: -hypokalaemia
    digoxin normally binds to the ATPase pump on the same site as potassium. Hypokalaemia → digoxin more easily bind to the ATPase pump → increased inhibitory effects

-increasing age
-renal failure
-myocardial ischaemia
-hypomagnesaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypernatraemia, acidosis
-hypoalbuminaemia
-hypothermia
-hypothyroidism
-drugs: amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, diltiazem, spironolactone (competes for secretion in distal convoluted tubule therefore reduce excretion), ciclosporin. Also drugs which cause hypokalaemia e.g. thiazides and loop diuretics

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17
Q

What are the 3 management points for digoxin toxicitiy

A

-Digiband
-Correct arrythmia
-Monitor potassium

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18
Q

Potassium-sparing diuretics: how may these be divided? who should these be used in caution with?

A

Potassium-sparing diuretics may be divided into the epithelial sodium channel blockers (amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (spironolactone and eplerenone).

They should be used with caution in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they precipitate hyperkalaemia.

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19
Q

Amiloride:
-how does this work?
-who is this given to?

A

Amiloride

blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule
weak diuretic, usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation (remember that thiazides and loop diuretics often cause hypokalaemia)
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20
Q

Aldosterone antagonists:
-Where does this act?
-Give 4 indications

A

indications
-ascites: patients with cirrhosis develop a secondary hyperaldosteronism. (Relatively large doses such as 100 or 200mg are often used)
-heart failure
-nephrotic syndrome
-Conn’s syndrome

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21
Q

Give 2 common side effects of ACEI

A

Cough
• Hyperkalaemia

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22
Q

Give 4 common side effects of bendroflumethiazide

A

Gout
• Hypokalaemia
• Hyponatraemia
• Impaired glucose tolerance

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23
Q

Give 3 common side effects of calcium channel blockers

A

Headache
• Flushing
• Ankle oedema

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24
Q

Give 3 common side effects of beta blockers

A

Bronchospasm (especially in asthmatics)
• Fatigue
• Cold peripheries

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25
Q

Give 1 common side effect of doxazosin

A

postural hypotension

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26
Q

Give 4 medications that may exacerbate heart failure:

A

The following medications may exacerbate heart failure:

-thiazolidinediones
pioglitazone is contraindicated as it causes fluid retention

-verapamil
negative inotropic effect

-NSAIDs/glucocorticoids
should be used with caution as they cause fluid retention

-low-dose aspirin is an exception - many patients will have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin easily outweigh the risks

-class I antiarrhythmics
flecainide (negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect)

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27
Q

Give 4 drugs to avoid in renal failure

A

Drugs to avoid in renal failure

antibiotics: tetracycline, nitrofurantoin
NSAIDs
lithium
metformin
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28
Q

Give 8 drugs that need dose adjustment in renal failure

A

Drugs likely to accumulate in chronic kidney disease - need dose adjustment

-most antibiotics including penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, streptomycin
-digoxin, atenolol
-methotrexate
-sulphonylureas
-furosemide
-opioids

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29
Q

Can you use:
-erythromycin/rifampicin
-diazepam
-warfarin
in renal failure?

A

yes

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30
Q

Give 6 drugs that may worsen seizure control

A

The following drugs may worsen seizure control in patients with epilepsy:

-alcohol, cocaine, amphetamines
-ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin
-aminophylline, theophylline
-bupropion
-methylphenidate (used in ADHD)
-mefenamic acid

Some medications such as benzodiazepines, baclofen and hydroxyzine may provoke seizures whilst they are being withdrawn.

Other medications may worsen seizure control by interfering with the metabolism of anti-epileptic drugs (i.e. P450 inducers/inhibitors)

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31
Q

What are 8 P450 exyme inducers
What are 12 P450 enxyme inhibitors?

A

Inducers: CRAP GPs - because crap GPs induce rage ;)

Carbamazepine, Rifampicin, Alcohol (chronic), Phenytoin, Griseofulvin, Phenobarbitone, Sulphonylureas (also St. John’s Wort and smoking)

Inhibitors: SICKFACES.COM - I remember the alcoholic binge part because a hangover = sick face!

Sodium valproate, Isoniazid, Cimetidine, Ketoconazole, Fluconazole, Alcohol (binge)/allopurinol/amiodarone, Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin, Sulphonamides, Ciprofloxacin, Omeprazole, Metronidazole
(copied)

INR will increase with inhibition

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32
Q

what is acute itermittent porphyria and give 6 drugs which may precipitate attack

A

Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a defect in porphobilinogen deaminase, an enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of haem. It characteristically presents with abdominal and neuropsychiatric symptoms in 20-40 year olds. AIP is more common in females (5:1)

Drugs which may precipitate attack

barbiturates
halothane
benzodiazepines
alcohol
oral contraceptive pill
sulphonamides
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33
Q

Can you use the following drugs in acute intermittent porphyria

paracetamol
aspirin
codeine
morphine
chlorpromazine
beta-blockers
penicillin
metformin
A

yes

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34
Q

Adrenaline:
-What is the adult does in anaphylaxis?
-What is the adult dose in cardiac arrest?
-What is the management of accidental injection?

A

Recommend Adult Life Support (ALS) adrenaline doses

anaphylaxis: 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM
cardiac arrest: 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1ml of 1:1000 IV

Management of accidental injection e.g. resulting in digital ischaemia: local infiltration of phentolamine

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35
Q

Adrenaline
-What is the action on alpha adrenergic receptors?
-What is the action on beta adrenergic receptors?

A

Background
responsible for the fight or flight response
released by the adrenal glands
acts on α 1 and 2, β 1 and 2 receptors
acts on β 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation
increases cardiac output and total peripheral resistance
causes vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys causing a narrow pulse pressure

Actions on α adrenergic receptors:

inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas
stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle
stimulates glycolysis in muscle

Actions onβ adrenergic receptors:

stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas
stimulates ACTH
stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue
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36
Q

What 3 things does aspirin potentiate? Who should aspirin not be used in?

A

Potentiates

oral hypoglycaemics
warfarin
steroids

Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. An exception is Kawasaki disease, where the benefits are thought to outweigh the risks.

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37
Q

In what 4 situations is diclofenac contraindicated in?

A

Whilst it has long been known that NSAIDs may be linked to an increased risk of cardiovascular events the evidence base has now become much clearer. Diclofenac appears to be associated with a significantly increased risk of cardiovascular events compared with other NSAIDs.

It is therefore advised that diclofenac is contraindicated in patients with the following:

-ischaemic heart disease
-peripheral arterial disease
-cerebrovascular disease
-congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV)

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38
Q

Give 4 adverse effects of heparin

A

Adverse effects of heparins include:

-bleeding
-thrombocytopenia - see below
-osteoporosis and an increased risk of fractures
-hyperkalaemia - this is thought to be caused by inhibition of aldosterone secretion

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39
Q

Differences between standard and LMWH:
-administration
-duration of action

A

standard - IV and short duration
LMWH - SC and long duration

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40
Q
A
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41
Q

Differences between standard and LMWH:
-mechanism of action

A

Standard:
-Activates antithrombin III. Forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, Xia and XIIa

LMWH:
Activates antithrombin III. Forms a complex that inhibits factor Xa

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42
Q

Give the side effects of standard heparin vs LMWH

A

Standard:
Bleeding
Heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT)
Osteoporosis

LMWH:
Bleeding
Lower risk of HIT and osteoporosis with LMWH

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43
Q

What is HIT?

A

mmune mediated - antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin
these antibodies bind to the PF4-heparin complexes on the platelet surface and induce platelet activation by cross-linking FcγIIA receptors
usually does not develop until after 5-10 days of treatment
despite being associated with low platelets HIT is actually a prothrombotic condition
features include a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis and skin allergy

address need for ongoing anticoagulation:

direct thrombin inhibitor e.g. argatroban
danaparoid
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44
Q

What is the monitoring of standard vs LMWH? When is either one used? how could heparin overdose be treated?

A

Standard:
-Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
-Useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly. Also useful in renal failure

LMWH:
-Anti-Factor Xa (although routine monitoring is not required)
-Now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes

Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulphate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

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45
Q

What is lithium and what is the therapeutic range? when does lithium toxicity generally occur? How is lithium toxicity precipitated?

A

Lithium is a mood stabilising drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity generally occurs following concentrations > 1.5 mmol/L.

Toxicity may be precipitated by:

dehydration
renal failure
drugs: diuretics (especially thiazides), ACE inhibitors/angiotensin II receptor blockers, NSAIDs and metronidazole.
46
Q

Give 6 features of lithium toxicity?

A

Features of toxicity

coarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)
hyperreflexia
acute confusion
polyuria
seizure
coma
47
Q

What is the management of lithium toxicity?

A

Management

mild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline
haemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicity
sodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion
48
Q

Metformin:
-What is the mechanism of action?
-Give 3 adverse effects

A

Mechanism of action

acts by activation of the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)
increases insulin sensitivity
decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis
may also reduce gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates

Adverse effects

gastrointestinal upsets are common (nausea, anorexia, diarrhoea), intolerable in 20%
reduced vitamin B12 absorption - rarely a clinical problem
lactic acidosis with severe liver disease or renal failure
    it is now increasingly recognised that lactic acidosis secondary to metformin is rare, although it remains important in the context of exams
49
Q

Give 4 contraindications to metformin

A

Contraindications

-chronic kidney disease: NICE recommend that the dose should be reviewed if the creatinine is > 130 µmol/l (or eGFR < 45 ml/min) and stopped if the creatinine is > 150 µmol/l (or eGFR < 30 ml/min)
-metformin may cause lactic acidosis if taken during a period where there is tissue hypoxia. Examples include a recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury and severe dehydration
-iodine-containing x-ray contrast media: examples include peripheral arterial angiography, coronary angiography, intravenous pyelography (IVP); there is an increasing risk of provoking renal impairment due to contrast nephropathy; metformin should be discontinued on the day of the procedure and for 48 hours thereafter
-alcohol abuse is a relative contraindication

50
Q

Describe how metformin is started

A

Starting metformin

metformin should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects
if patients develop unacceptable side-effects then modified-release metformin should be considered
51
Q

Carbon monoxide poisoning:
-what is the pathophysiology?

A

Pathophysiology

carbon monoxide binds readily to haemoglobin, forming carboxyhaemoglobin → reduced oxygen-carrying capacity
in carbon monoxide poisoning the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin decreases leading to an early plateau in the oxygen dissociation curve
52
Q

Give 6 features of carbon monoxide poisoning

A

Features of carbon monoxide toxicity

-headache: 90% of cases
-nausea and vomiting: 50%
-vertigo: 50%
-confusion: 30%
-subjective weakness: 20%
-severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosae, -hyperpyrexia, -arrhythmias, -extrapyramidal features, -coma, death

53
Q

Give 2 investigations for carbon monoxide poisoning

A

Investigations

-pulse oximetry may be falsely high due to similarities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin
-therefore a venous or arterial blood gas should be taken
-typical carboxyhaemoglobin levels
< 3% non-smokers
< 10% smokers
10 - 30% (symptomatic: headache, vomiting)
> 30% severe toxicity

-an ECG is a useful supplementary investgation to look for cardiac ischaemia

54
Q

What is the management of carbon monoxide poisoning

A

Management

patients with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning should be assessed in the emergency department
100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask
    from a physiological perspective, this decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin (COHb)
    should be administered as soon as possible, with treatment continuing for a minimum of six hours
    target oxygen saturations are 100%
    treatment is generally continued until all symptoms have resolved, rather than monitoring CO levels
hyperbaric oxygen
    due to the small number of cases the evidence base is limited, but there is some evidence that long-term outcomes may be better than standard oxygen therapy for more severe cases
    therefore, discussion with a specialist should be considered for more severe cases (e.g. levels > 25%)
    in 2008, the Department of Health publication 'Recognising Carbon Monoxide Poisoning' also listed loss of consciousness at any point, neurological signs other than headache, myocardial ischaemia or arrhythmia and pregnancy as indications for hyperbaric oxygen
55
Q

Oculogyric crisis:
-Give 3 features
-Give 3 causes
-What is the management

A

An oculogyric crisis is a dystonic reaction to certain drugs or medical conditions

Features

restlessness, agitation
involuntary upward deviation of the eyes

Causes

antipsychotics
metoclopramide
postencephalitic Parkinson's disease

Management

cessation of causative medication if possible
intravenous antimuscarinic: benztropine or procyclidine
56
Q

Cardiac drug monitoring:
-Statins
-ACE inhibitors
-Amiodarone

A

Statins
LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months

ACE inhibitors
U&E prior to treatment
U&E after increasing dose
U&E at least annually

Amiodarone
TFT, LFT, U&E, CXR prior to treatment
TFT, LFT every 6 months

57
Q

Rheumatology drug monitoring:
-Methotrexate
-Azathioprine

A

Methotrexate
FBC, U+Es and LFTs before starting treatment and repeated weekly until therapy stabilised, thereafter patients should be monitored every 2-3 months

Azathioprine
FBC, LFT before treatment
FBC weekly for the first 4 weeks
FBC, LFT every 3 months

58
Q

Neuropsychiatric drug monitoring:
-Lithium
-Sodium valproate

A

Lithium
TFT, U&E prior to treatment
Lithium levels weekly until stabilised then every 3 months
TFT, U&E every 6 months

Sodium valproate
LFT, FBC before treatment
LFT ‘periodically’ during first 6 months

59
Q

Mefloquine
-What is this AKA
-How is this taken?

A

Lariam
-Start 2-3 weeks before travel
-End 4 weeks after travel

60
Q

Give 5 side effects of mefloquine (lariam)

A

The following advice is therefore given:

certain side-effects such nightmares or anxiety may be 'prodromal' of a more serious neuropsychiatric event
suicide and deliberate self harm have been reported in patients taking mefloquine
adverse reactions may continue for several months due to the long half-life or mefloquine
mefloquine should not be used in patients with a history of anxiety, depression schizophrenia or other psychiatric disorders
patients who experience neuropsychiatric sife-effects should stop mefloquine and seek medical advice
61
Q

Give 9 drugs which should be prescribed by brand

A

Drugs which should be prescribed by brand

modified release calcium channel blockers
antiepileptics
ciclosporin and tacrolimus
mesalazine
lithium
aminophylline and theophylline
methylphenidate
CFC-free formulations of beclometasone
dry powder inhaler devices
62
Q

TB meds - Rifampicin
-What is the mechanism?
-Give 4 adverse effects

A

potent liver enzyme inducer
hepatitis, orange secretions
flu-like symptoms

63
Q

TB meds - Isoniazid
-What is the mechanism of action?
-Give 4 adverse effects

A

Isoniazid

mechanism of action: inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
peripheral neuropathy: prevent with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
hepatitis, agranulocytosis
liver enzyme inhibitor
64
Q

TB meds - Pyrazinamide
-Give 4 side effects

A

Pyrazinamide

mechanism of action: converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I
hyperuricaemia causing gout
arthralgia, myalgia
hepatitis
65
Q

TB meds - Ethambutol
-Mechanism of action
-What is 1 adverse effect and 1 set of patients who would need dose adjustment

A

Ethambutol

mechanism of action: inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan
optic neuritis: check visual acuity before and during treatment
dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment
66
Q

What is the yellow card scheme? in what 3 situations should reactions be reported?

A

The Yellow Card scheme has become the standard way to report adverse reactions to medications. It is run by the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA).

The following should be reported (taken from the MHRA website)

all suspected adverse drug reactions for new medicines (identified by the black triangle symbol) should be reported

all suspected adverse drug reactions occurring in children, even if a medicine has been used off-label

all serious* suspected adverse drug reactions for established vaccines and
medicines, including unlicensed medicines, herbal remedies, and medicines used off-label

67
Q

The yellow card scheme:
-Where can the yellow cards be found
-Who can report events?
-what happens to the yellow carD?

A

Other information

Yellow Cards are found at the back of the BNF or reports can be completed online (www.yellowcard.gov.uk)
any suspected reactions (not just confirmed) should be reported
patients can report adverse events
Yellow Cards are sent to the MHRA who in collate and assess the information. In turn the MHRA may consult with the Commission on Human Medicines (CHM), an independent scientific advisory body on medicines safety
68
Q

Ecstasy:
-Give 5 clinical features
-What is the management

A

Clinical features

-neurological: agitation, anxiety, confusion, ataxia
-cardiovascular: tachycardia, hypertension
-hyponatraemia
this may result from either syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion or excessive water consumption whilst taking MDMA
-hyperthermia
-rhabdomyolysis

Management

supportive
dantrolene may be used for hyperthermia if simple measures fail
69
Q

Give 4 antibiotics that are harmful in pregnancy

A

Antibiotics

tetracyclines
aminoglycosides
sulphonamides and trimethoprim
quinolones: the BNF advises to avoid due to arthropathy in some animal studies
70
Q

Give 6 non-antibiotic drugs that are harmful in pregnancy

A

Other drugs

ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists
statins
warfarin
sulfonylureas
retinoids (including topical)
cytotoxic agents
71
Q

What is the treatment of hypomagnesaemia

A

<0.4 mmol/L or tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures

intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given.
an example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours

> 0.4 mmol/l

oral magnesium salts (10-20 mmol orally per day in divided doses)
diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts
72
Q

Give 4 causes of serotonin syndrome

A

Causes

-monoamine oxidase inhibitors

-SSRIs
St John’s Wort, often taken over the counter for depression, can interact with SSRIs to cause serotonin syndrome
tramadol may also interact with SSRIs

-ecstasy

-amphetamines

73
Q

Give 6 features of serotonin syndrome

A

Features

neuromuscular excitation
hyperreflexia
myoclonus
rigidity

autonomic nervous system excitation
hyperthermia
sweating

altered mental state
confusion

74
Q

What is the management of serotonin syndrome?

A

Management

supportive including IV fluids
benzodiazepines
more severe cases are managed using serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine
75
Q

Give 7 drug causes of thrombocytopenia

A

Drug-induced thrombocytopenia (probable immune-mediated)

quinine
abciximab
NSAIDs
diuretics: furosemide
antibiotics: penicillins, sulphonamides, rifampicin
anticonvulsants: carbamazepine, valproate
heparin
76
Q

Give 6 features of opioid misuse

A

Opioids are substances which bind to opioid receptors. This includes both naturally occurring opiates such as morphine and synthetic opioids such as buprenorphine and methadone.

Features of opioid misuse

rhinorrhoea
needle track marks
pinpoint pupils
drowsiness
watering eyes
yawning
77
Q

Give 6 complications of opioid misuse

A

Complications of opioid misuse

viral infection secondary to sharing needles: HIV, hepatitis B & C
bacterial infection secondary to injection: infective endocarditis, septic arthritis, septicaemia, necrotising fasciitis
venous thromboembolism
overdose may lead to respiratory depression and death
psychological problems: craving
social problems: crime, prostitution, homelessness
78
Q

What is the emergency management of opioid misuse? what are 2 harm reductions interventions

A

Emergency management of opioid overdose

IV or IM naloxone: has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action

Harm reduction interventions may include

needle exchange
offering testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C
79
Q

What is the management of opioid dependence

A

Management of opioid dependence

patients are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics although some GPs with a specialist interest offer similar services
patients may be offered maintenance therapy or detoxification
NICE recommend methadone or buprenorphine as the first-line treatment in opioid detoxification
    methadone is a full agonist of the mu-opioid receptor - binds to these receptors in the brain and fully activates them. This action can relieve withdrawal symptoms and cravings. Has a long half-life
    buprenorphine is a partial agonist of the mu-opioid receptor and an antagonist of the kappa-opioid. It binds to the mu-opioid receptors in the brain but only partially activates them. This partial activation is enough to alleviate cravings and withdrawal symptoms in individuals with opioid dependence. Furthermore, the binding of buprenorphine to the mu-opioid receptor is very strong, or 'high affinity,' meaning it can displace other opioids from these receptors and prevent them from exerting their effects. As a kappa-opioid receptor antagonist, buprenorphine may contribute to its ability to reduce symptoms of opioid withdrawal and potentially reduce depressive and dysphoric states.
compliance is monitored using urinalysis
detoxification should normally last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community
80
Q

Give 4 medications that may exacerbate heart failure

A

The following medications may exacerbate heart failure:

thiazolidinediones
    pioglitazone is contraindicated as it causes fluid retention
verapamil
    negative inotropic effect
NSAIDs/glucocorticoids
    should be used with caution as they cause fluid retention
    low-dose aspirin is an exception - many patients will have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin easily outweigh the risks
class I antiarrhythmics
    flecainide (negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect)
81
Q

Give 2 indications for HRT

A

Indications

vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia and headaches
    this is considered the most important factor in choosing whether to start HRT, rather than other possible health benefits such as increased bone mineral density
    other indications such as reversal of vaginal atrophy should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies

premature menopause
should be continued until the age of 50 years
the most important reason in giving HRT to younger women is preventing the development of osteoporosis

82
Q

Quinolones:
-give the mechanism of action
-Give the mechanism of resistance

A

Quinolones are a group of antibiotics which work by inhibiting DNA synthesis and are bactericidal in nature. Examples include:

ciprofloxacin
levofloxacin

Mechanism of action

inhibit topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV

Mechanism of resistance

mutations to DNA gyrase, efflux pumps which reduce intracellular quinolone concentration
83
Q

Gvie 4 adverse effects of quinolones
Give 2 contraindications

A

Adverse effects

lower seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy
tendon damage (including rupture) - the risk is increased in patients also taking steroids
cartilage damage has been demonstrated in animal models and for this reason quinolones are generally avoided (but not necessarily contraindicated) in children
lengthens QT interval

Contraindications

Quinolones should generally be avoided in women who are pregnant or breastfeeding
avoid in G6PD
84
Q

Give 4 common causes of urticaria

A

The following drugs commonly cause urticaria:

aspirin
penicillins
NSAIDs
opiates
85
Q

Drugs causing ocular problems
-Which drug causes cataracts

A

Steroid

86
Q

Drugs causing ocular problems
-Which drug causes corneal opacities

A

amiodarone
indomethacin

87
Q

Drugs causing ocular problems
-Which drug causes optic neuritis

A

Optic neuritis

ethambutol
amiodarone
metronidazole
88
Q

Drugs causing ocular problems
-Which drug causes retinopathy

A

Retinopathy

chloroquine, quinine
89
Q

Macrolides:
-What is the mechanism of action?
-What is the mechanism of resistance?

A

Erythromycin was the first macrolide used clinically. Newer examples include clarithromycin and azithromycin.

Macrolides act by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis by blocking translocation. If pushed to give an answer they are bacteriostatic in nature, but in reality this depends on the dose and type of organism being treated.

Mechanism of resistance

post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA
90
Q

Give 5 adverse effects of macrolides

A

Adverse effects

prolongation of the QT interval
gastrointestinal side-effects are common. Nausea is less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin
cholestatic jaundice: risk may be reduced if erythromycin stearate is used
P450 inhibitor (see below)
azithromycin is associated with hearing loss and tinnitus
91
Q

What is a common interaction with macrolides?

A

Common interactions

statins should be stopped whilst taking a course of macrolides. Macrolides inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4 that metabolises statins. Taking macrolides concurrently with statins significantly increases the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis.
92
Q

Give features of organophosphate poisoning? what is the management

A

Organophosphate poisoning is characterised by the acronym ‘DUMBBELLS’, which stands for Defecation, Urination, Miosis, Bronchorrhea, Bradycardia, Emesis, Lacrimation, Lethargy and Salivation.

Management

atropine
the role of pralidoxime is still unclear - meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit
93
Q

Side effects of abx:
-Amoxicillin

A

Rash with infectious mononucleosis

94
Q

Side effects of abx:
-co-amox

A

cholestasis

95
Q

Side effects of abx:
-fluclox

A

cholestasis

96
Q

Side effects of abx:
-erythromycin

A

QT prolongation
gastro upset

97
Q

Side effects of abx:
-cipro

A

lowers seizure threshold
tendonitis

98
Q

side effects of abx
-metronidazole

A

reaction following alcohol use

99
Q

Side effects of abx:
-doxy

A

photosensitivity

100
Q

Side effects of abx:
-trimethoprim

A

rashes and photosensitivity
pruritus
suppression of haematopoeisis

101
Q

Does delayed prescribing effect antibiotic use

A

Delayed prescribing reduces antibiotic use by two-thirds

102
Q

How is motion sickness managed?

A

Motion sickness describes the nausea and vomiting which occurs when an apparent discrepancy exists between visually perceived movement and the vestibular systems sense of movement

Management

the BNF recommends hyoscine (e.g. transdermal patch) as being the most effective treatment. Use is limited due to side-effects
non-sedating antihistamines such as cyclizine or cinnarizine are recommended in preference to sedating preparation such as promethazine
103
Q

When should a level be taken:
Lithium
Ciclosporin
Digoxin
Phenytoin

A

Lithium

range = 0.4 - 1.0 mmol/l
take 12 hrs post-dose

Ciclosporin

trough levels immediately before dose

Digoxin

at least 6 hrs post-dose

Phenytoin levels do not need to be monitored routinely but trough levels, immediately before dose should be checked if:

adjustment of phenytoin dose
suspected toxicity
detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication
104
Q

What 5 drugs can cause lung fibrosis?

A

Causes

amiodarone
cytotoxic agents: busulphan, bleomycin
anti-rheumatoid drugs: methotrexate, sulfasalazine
nitrofurantoin
ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline, pergolide)

Textbooks

105
Q

Give 4 adverse effects of tamoxifen

A

Adverse effects

menstrual disturbance: vaginal bleeding, amenorrhoea
hot flushes - 3% of patients stop taking tamoxifen due to climacteric side-effects
venous thromboembolism
endometrial cancer

Tamoxifen is typically used for 5 years following removal of the tumour.

Raloxifene is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist, and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer

106
Q

Side effects of common diabetes drugs:
Metformin
Sulfonylureas
Glitazones
Gliptins

A

Metformin Gastrointestinal side-effects
Lactic acidosis

Sulfonylureas Hypoglycaemic episodes
Increased appetite and weight gain
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
Liver dysfunction (cholestatic)

Glitazones
Weight gain
Fluid retention
Liver dysfunction
Fractures

Gliptins: Pancreatitis

107
Q

Give 11 adverse effects of ciclosporin

A

Ciclosporin is an immunosuppressant which decreases clonal proliferation of T cells by reducing IL-2 release. It acts by binding to cyclophilin forming a complex which inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells

Adverse effects of ciclosporin (note how everything is increased - fluid, BP, K+, hair, gums, glucose)

nephrotoxicity
hepatotoxicity
fluid retention
hypertension
hyperkalaemia
hypertrichosis
gingival hyperplasia
tremor
impaired glucose tolerance
hyperlipidaemia
increased susceptibility to severe infection
108
Q

What is cocaine and what is the mechanism of action?

A

Cocaine is an alkaloid derived from the coca plant. It is widely used as a recreational stimulant. The price of cocaine has fallen sharply in the past decade resulting in cocaine toxicity becoming a much more frequent clinical problem. This increase has made cocaine a favourite topic of question writers.

Mechanism of action

cocaine blocks the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline and serotonin
109
Q

What are the cardiovascular side effects of cocaine?

A

Adverse effects

cardiovascular
    coronary artery spasm → myocardial ischaemia/infarction
    both tachycardia and bradycardia may occur
    hypertension
    QRS widening and QT prolongation
    aortic dissection
110
Q

what are the neurological side effects of cocaine?

A

neurological

seizures
mydriasis
hypertonia
hyperreflexia
111
Q

What are the psychiatric side effects of cocaine? Give 4 non-cardiovascular/non-neurological/non-psychiatreic

A

psychiatric effects

agitation
psychosis
hallucinations

others

ischaemic colitis is recognised in patients following cocaine ingestion. This should be considered if patients complain of abdominal pain or rectal bleeding
hyperthermia
metabolic acidosis
rhabdomyolysis
112
Q

What is the management of cocaine toxicity

A

Management of cocaine toxicity

in general, benzodiazepines are generally first-line for most cocaine-related problems
chest pain:
    benzodiazepines + glyceryl trinitrate
    if myocardial infarction develops then primary percutaneous coronary intervention
hypertension: benzodiazepines + sodium nitroprusside
the use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is a controversial issue
    the American Heart Association issued a statement in 2008 warning against the use of beta-blockers (due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm) but many cardiologists since have questioned whether this is valid
    if a reasonable alternative is given in an exam it is probably wise to choose it