Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

What is eczema? what is the diagnosis?

A

Eczema, also known as atopic dermatitis, is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that affects millions of adults worldwide. It is characterized by dry, itchy, and red patches on the skin, which can be exacerbated by environmental triggers such as stress, allergens, and irritants. The condition can significantly impact patients’ quality of life, causing discomfort, sleep disturbance, and psychological distress.

The diagnosis of eczema is based on clinical presentation and history, and management involves a combination of lifestyle modifications, topical treatments, and systemic therapies.

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2
Q

What is the diagnosis of eczema?

A

UK Working Party Diagnostic Criteria for Atopic Eczema

An itchy skin condition in the last 12 months

Plus three or more of

Onset below age 2 years*
History of flexural involvement**
History of generally dry skin
Personal history of other atopic disease***
Visible flexural dermatitis

not used in children under 4 years
**or dermatitis on the cheeks and/or extensor areas in children aged 18 months or under
**
in children aged under 4 years, history of atopic disease in a first degree relative may be included

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3
Q

What are the 8 different management areas to think about in eczema?

A

Patient Education

Educating patients about their condition and its management is essential for optimal outcomes. This includes information on the chronic nature of eczema, potential triggers, and the importance of adherence to treatment regimens.

Emollients

Emollients are the cornerstone of eczema management and should be used regularly regardless of disease severity. They provide symptomatic relief by hydrating the skin, reducing transepidermal water loss and restoring the skin barrier function. Patients should be advised to apply emollients liberally and frequently (at least twice daily) even when their skin appears clear. Emollient choice should be tailored to individual preferences (e.g., creams, ointments or lotions) to improve adherence.

Topical corticosteroids

Topical corticosteroids are indicated for acute flares and moderate-to-severe eczema. Topical corticosteroids potency should be selected based on disease severity and body site; lower potency topical corticosteroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 1%) can be used on delicate areas such as the face or genitals, whilst higher potency topical corticosteroids (e.g., betamethasone valerate 0.1%) may be required for more severe cases or thicker skin areas like palms or soles.

Topical calcineurin inhibitors

Topical calcineurin inhibitors, such as tacrolimus and pimecrolimus, are an alternative to steroids for eczema management. They are particularly useful in areas where long-term steroids use is contraindicated, such as the face or skin folds. Topical calcineurin inhibitors should be initiated by a specialist dermatologist in cases of severe eczema or when other treatments have failed.

Antimicrobials

In cases of secondary bacterial infection (e.g., impetigo), a short course of topical or oral antibiotics may be necessary. Topical antiseptics can also be used as adjunctive therapy to reduce bacterial colonisation and prevent infection.

Phototherapy

Narrowband ultraviolet B (NB-UVB) phototherapy can be considered for patients with moderate-to-severe eczema who have not responded adequately to topical therapies. This treatment should be supervised by a dermatologist and requires regular monitoring for potential side effects such as erythema, burning, and an increased risk of skin cancer.

Systemic Therapies

Systemic immunosuppressive agents such as ciclosporin, azathioprine or methotrexate may be indicated for severe refractory eczema under the guidance of a specialist dermatologist. These medications require close monitoring due to their potential side effects and interactions with other medications.

Biologic Therapy

Dupilumab, a monoclonal antibody targeting IL-4 and IL-13 pathways, has been approved for use in adults with moderate-to-severe atopic dermatitis unresponsive to conventional therapies. This biologic agent should only be prescribed by specialist dermatologists experienced in managing severe eczema.

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4
Q

How is itch managed?

A

Management of Itch

Pruritus is a significant symptom associated with eczema that can lead to sleep disturbance and impaired quality of life. The use of sedating antihistamines, such as hydroxyzine or chlorphenamine, can be considered for short-term relief of itch and sleep disturbance. Non-sedating antihistamines (e.g., cetirizine or loratadine) are less effective for itch control but may be useful for managing concomitant allergic symptoms.

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5
Q

List the steroids from mild - very potent

Hydrocortisone
Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate 0.05%)
Cutivate (futicasone proprionate)
Dermovate (Clobetasol propionate 0.05%)
Betnovate (Betamethasone valerate 0.1%)
Betnovate RD (betamethason valerate 0.025%)

A

Mild Potent Very potent
Hydrocortisone 0.5-2.5%

Moderate
Betamethasone valerate 0.025% (Betnovate RD)
Clobetasone butyrate 0.05% (Eumovate)

Potent
Fluticasone propionate 0.05% (Cutivate)
Betamethasone valerate 0.1% (Betnovate)

Very Potent
Clobetasol propionate 0.05% (Dermovate)

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6
Q

How many fingertip doses per:
Hands and fingers
A foot
Front of chest and abdomen
Bakc and buttocks
Face and neck
An entire arm and hand
An entire leg and foot

A

Hand and fingers (front and back) 1.0
A foot (all over) 2.0
Front of chest and abdomen 7.0
Back and buttocks 7.0
Face and neck 2.5
An entire arm and hand 4.0
An entire leg and foot 8.0

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7
Q

What amount of steroid should you prescribe for a single daily app for 2 weeks:
Face and neck
Both hands
Scalp
Both arms
Both legs
Trunk
Groin and genitalia

A

Area Amount
Face and neck 15 to 30 g
Both hands 15 to 30 g
Scalp 15 to 30 g
Both arms 30 to 60 g
Both legs 100 g
Trunk 100 g
Groin and genitalia 15 to 30 g

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8
Q

What is discoid eczema?

A

Discoid eczema is sometimes referred to as nummular eczema, meaning coin-shaped.

Features

typically present as round or oval plaques on the extremities
the lesions are extremely itchy
central clearing may occur giving a similar appearance to tinea corporis
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9
Q

What is eczema herpeticum? who is this most commonly seen in?

A

Eczema herpeticum describes a severe primary infection of the skin by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2.

It is more commonly seen in children with atopic eczema and often presents as a rapidly progressing painful rash.

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10
Q

What is seen on examination of eczema herpeticum? What is the management?

A

On examination, monomorphic punched-out erosions (circular, depressed, ulcerated lesions) usually 1–3 mm in diameter are typically seen.

As it is potentially life-threatening children should be admitted for IV aciclovir.

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11
Q

What is pompholyx? What may this be precipitated by?

A

Pompholyx is a type of eczema which affects both the hands (cheiropompholyx) and the feet (pedopompholyx). It is also known as dyshidrotic eczema.

Pompholyx eczema may be precipitated by humidity (e.g. sweating) and high temperatures.

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12
Q

Give 5 features of pompholyx

A

Features
-small blisters on the palms and soles
-pruritic
-often intensely itchy
-sometimes burning sensation
-once blisters burst skin may become dry and crack

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13
Q

What is the management of pompholyx? 3

A

Management
-cool compresses
-emollients
-topical steroids

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14
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

Psoriasis is a common (prevalence around 2%) and chronic skin disorder. It generally presents with red, scaly patches on the skin although it is now recognised that patients with psoriasis are at increased risk of arthritis and cardiovascular disease.

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15
Q

Describe the pathophysiologt of psoriasis

A

Pathophysiology

multifactorial and not yet fully understood
genetic: associated HLA-B13, -B17, and -Cw6. Strong concordance (70%) in identical twins
immunological: abnormal T cell activity stimulates keratinocyte proliferation. There is increasing evidence this may be mediated by a novel group of T helper cells producing IL-17, designated Th17. These cells seem to be a third T-effector cell subset in addition to Th1 and Th2
environmental: it is recognised that psoriasis may be worsened (e.g. Skin trauma, stress), triggered (e.g. Streptococcal infection) or improved (e.g. Sunlight) by environmental factors
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16
Q

what are 4 subtypes of psoriasis?

A

Recognised subtypes of psoriasis

plaque psoriasis: the most common sub-type resulting in the typical well-demarcated red, scaly patches affecting the extensor surfaces, sacrum and scalp

Flexural psoriasis: in contrast to plaque psoriasis the skin is smooth

guttate psoriasis: transient psoriatic rash frequently triggered by a streptococcal infection. Multiple red, teardrop lesions appear on the body

pustular psoriasis: commonly occurs on the palms and soles

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17
Q

What are 5 complications of psoriasis?

A

Complications

psoriatic arthropathy (around 10%)
increased incidence of metabolic syndrome
increased incidence of cardiovascular disease
increased incidence of venous thromboembolism
psychological distress
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18
Q

What are 4 nail changes seen in psoriasis? what percentage of patients are affected?

A

Psoriatic nail changes affect both fingers and toes and do not reflect the severity of psoriasis but there is an association with psoriatic arthropathy - around 80-90% of patients with psoriatic arthropathy have nail changes.

Nail changes that may be seen in psoriasis

pitting
onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed)
subungual hyperkeratosis
loss of the nail
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19
Q

What are 4 exacerbating features of psoriasis?

A

The following factors may exacerbate psoriasis:

trauma
alcohol
drugs: beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, infliximab
withdrawal of systemic steroids

Streptococcal infection may trigger guttate psoriasis.

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20
Q

Describe 1st line, 2nd line and 3rd line treatment for psoriasis

A

NICE recommend a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis

regular emollients may help to reduce scale loss and reduce pruritus

first-line: NICE recommend:
a potent corticosteroid applied once daily plus vitamin D analogue applied once daily
should be applied separately, one in the morning and the other in the evening)
for up to 4 weeks as initial treatment

second-line: if no improvement after 8 weeks then offer:
a vitamin D analogue twice daily

third-line: if no improvement after 8-12 weeks then offer either:
a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks, or
a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily
short-acting dithranol can also be used

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21
Q

Secondary care treatment for psoriasis: Phototherapy
-What is the treatment of choice?
-How often should this be given?
-what are 2 adverse effects?

A

Phototherapy

narrowband ultraviolet B light is now the treatment of choice. If possible this should be given 3 times a week
photochemotherapy is also used - psoralen + ultraviolet A light (PUVA)
adverse effects: skin ageing, squamous cell cancer (not melanoma)
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22
Q

Secondary care treatment for psoriasis: Systemic therapy
-What is used first line?
-What are 4 other options?

A

Systemic therapy

oral methotrexate is used first-line. It is particularly useful if there is associated joint disease
ciclosporin
systemic retinoids
biological agents: infliximab, etanercept and adalimumab
ustekinumab (IL-12 and IL-23 blocker) is showing promise in early trials
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23
Q

Describe the management of scalp psoriasis

A

Outline

NICE recommend the use of potent topical corticosteroids used once daily for 4 weeks
if no improvement after 4 weeks then either use a different formulation of the potent corticosteroid (for example, a shampoo or mousse) and/or a topical agents to remove adherent scale (for example, agents containing salicylic acid, emollients and oils) before application of the potent corticosteroid
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24
Q

Describe the management of face, flexural and genital psoriasis

A

Outline

NICE recommend offering a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks
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25
Q

Topical steroids in psoriasis
-what is the maximum steroids should be used on the scalp/face/flexures per month
-when may systemic side-effects be seen with topical steroid use?
-How long should you break between topical steroids?
-what is the max potent steroids should be used at a time? what about very potent steroid?

A

Using topical steroids in psoriasis

as we know topical corticosteroid therapy may lead to skin atrophy, striae and rebound symptoms
    the scalp, face and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks/month
systemic side-effects may be seen when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas e.g. > 10% of the body surface area
NICE recommend that we aim for a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids
they also recommend using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time
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26
Q

Vit D analogues in psoriasis
-How do these work?
-can they be used long term? do they smell/stain?
-How do they improve plaques?
-When should these be avoided?
-what is the max. weekly amount?

A

Vitamin D analogues

examples of vitamin D analogues include calcipotriol (Dovonex), calcitriol and tacalcitol
they work by ↓ cell division and differentiation → ↓ epidermal proliferation
adverse effects are uncommon
unlike corticosteroids they may be used long-term
unlike coal tar and dithranol they do not smell or stain
they tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the erythema
they should be avoided in pregnancy
the maximum weekly amount for adults is 100g
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27
Q

Dithranol in psoriasis
-How does this work?
-How is this applied?
-what are 2 adverse effects?

A

Dithranol

inhibits DNA synthesis
wash off after 30 mins
adverse effects include burning, staining
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28
Q

What is the mechanism of action of coal tar?

A

Coal tar

mechanism of action not fully understood - probably inhibit DNA synthesis
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29
Q

what is used for non-biological systemic therapy in psoriasis?

A

Methotrexate and ciclosporin are the main agents which are used. Methotrexate is generally used first-line unless any of the following apply, resulting in ciclosporin being a better choice:
need rapid or short-term disease control (for example a psoriasis flare) or
have palmoplantar pustulosis or
are considering conception (both men and women) and systemic therapy cannot be avoided

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30
Q

what four agents are used for biological systemic therapy? what is a requirement for patients to go onto these?

A

The main agents used are adalimumab (subcutaneous injection), etanercept (subcutaneous injection), infliximab (intravenous infusion) and ustekinumab (subcutaneous injection). As for non-biological systemic therapy NICE stipulate criteria regarding their use. A failed trial of methotrexate, ciclosporin and PUVA is a requirement.

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31
Q

what 8 things are patients with psoriasis at an increased risk of?

A

Patients with psoriasis are at an increased risk of:
cardiovascular disease
hypertension
venous thromboembolism
depression
ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease
non-melanoma skin cancer
other cancers including liver, lung and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers

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32
Q

What is acne vulgaris? What percentage of teenagers are affected?

A

Acne vulgaris is a common skin disorder which usually occurs in adolescence. It typically affects the face, neck and upper trunk and is characterised by the obstruction of the pilosebaceous follicle with keratin plugs which results in comedones, inflammation and pustules.

Epidemiology
affects around 80-90% of teenagers, 60% of whom seek medical advice
acne may also persist beyond adolescence, with 10-15% of females and 5% of males over 25 years old being affected

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33
Q

What are 3 factors contributing to the pathophysiology of acne vulgaris?

A

Pathophysiology is multifactorial
follicular epidermal hyperproliferation resulting in the formation of a keratin plug. This in turn causes obstruction of the pilosebaceous follicle. Activity of sebaceous glands may be controlled by androgen, although levels are often normal in patients with acne
colonisation by the anaerobic bacterium Propionibacterium acnes
inflammation

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34
Q

What 6 lesions are seen in acne vulgaris?

A

Acne is a disease of the pilosebaceous unit. Several different types of acne lesions are usually seen in each patient

Comedones are due to a dilated sebaceous follicle
if the top is closed a whitehead is seen
if the top opens a blackhead forms

Inflammatory lesions form when the follicle bursts releasing irritants
papules
pustules

An excessive inflammatory response may result in:
nodules
cysts

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35
Q

What 2 scar types are seen in acne vulgaris?

A

This sequence of events can ultimately cause scarring
ice-pick scars
hypertrophic scars

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36
Q

What lesions are seen in drug-induced acne?
What is acne fulminans?

A

In contrast, drug-induced acne is often monomorphic (e.g. pustules are characteristically seen in steroid use)

Acne fulminans is very severe acne associated with systemic upset (e.g. fever). Hospital admission is often required and the condition usually responds to oral steroids

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37
Q

How is acne classified?

A

Acne may be classified into mild, moderate or severe:

mild: open and closed comedones with or without sparse inflammatory lesions

moderate acne: widespread non-inflammatory lesions and numerous papules and pustules

severe acne: extensive inflammatory lesions, which may include nodules, pitting, and scarring

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38
Q

What are 3 treatment options for mild-moderate acne? what can be used if patients want to avoid using topical retinoid or an antibiotic?

A

For people with mild to moderate acne: CKS
-a 12-week course of topical combination therapy should be tried first-line:
-a fixed combination of topical adapalene with topical benzoyl peroxide
-a fixed combination of topical tretinoin with topical clindamycin
-a fixed combination of topical benzoyl peroxide with topical clindamycin

-topical benzoyl peroxide may be used as monotherapy if these options are contraindicated or the person wishes to avoid using a topical retinoid or an antibiotic

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39
Q

What are 4 treatment options for moderate to severe acne?

A

a 12-week course of one of the following options:
-a fixed combination of topical adapalene with topical benzoyl peroxide
-a fixed combination of topical tretinoin with topical clindamycin
-a fixed combination of topical adapalene with topical benzoyl peroxide + either oral lymecycline or oral doxycycline
-a topical azelaic acid + either oral lymecycline or oral doxycy

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40
Q

Who should tetracyclines be avoided in? What antibiotic may be used in pregnancy?
How long can you use treatment options that include an antibiotic?
What should be co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide?
What should not be used in combination?
what may occur as a complication of long-term abx use?

A

-tetracyclines should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in children younger than 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy
-minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation
-only continue a treatment option that includes an antibiotic (topical or oral) for more than 6 months in exceptional circumstances
-a topical retinoid (if not contraindicated) or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed with oral antibiotics to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance developing. Topical and oral antibiotics should not be used in combination or as monotherapy.
-Gram-negative folliculitis may occur as a complication of long-term antibiotic use - high-dose oral trimethoprim is effective if this occurs

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41
Q

What are an alternative to oral abx in women with mod-severe acne?

A

combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women
as with antibiotics, they should be used in combination with topical agents
Dianette (co-cyprindiol) is sometimes used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, therefore it should generally be used second-line, only be given for 3 months and women should be appropriately counselled about the risks

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42
Q

NICE referral criteria for acne
-Who should be referred?
-Who should referral be considered for?

A

NICE referral criteria CKS
the following patients should be referred to a dermatologist:
-patients with acne conglobate acne: a rare and severe form of acne found mostly in men that presents with extensive inflammatory papules, suppurative nodules (that may coalesce to form sinuses) and cysts on the trunk.
-patients with nodulo-cystic acne

referral should be considered in the following scenarios:
-mild to moderate acne has not responded to two completed courses of treatment
-moderate to severe acne has not responded to previous treatment that includes an oral antibiotic
-acne with scarring
-acne with persistent pigmentary changes
-acne is causing or contributing to persistent psychological distress or a mental health disorder

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43
Q

Give 8 adverse effects of retinoids

A

Isotretinoin is an oral retinoid used in the treatment of severe acne. Two-thirds of patients have a long-term remission or cure following a course of oral isotretinoin.

Adverse effects
-teratogenicity
females should ideally be using two forms of contraception (e.g. Combined oral contraceptive pill and condoms)
-dry skin, eyes and lips/mouth
the most common side-effect of isotretinoin
-low mood
whilst this is a controversial topic, depression and other psychiatric problems are listed in the BNF
-raised triglycerides
-hair thinning
-nose bleeds (caused by dryness of the nasal mucosa)
-intracranial hypertension: isotretinoin treatment should not be combined with tetracyclines for this reason
-photosensitivity

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44
Q

What is rosacea?
-Give 7 clinical features of rosacea?

A

Rosacea (sometimes referred to as acne rosacea) is a chronic skin disease of unknown aetiology.

Features
-typically affects nose, cheeks and forehead
-flushing is often first symptom
-telangiectasia are common
-later develops into persistent erythema with papules and pustules
-rhinophyma
-ocular involvement: blepharitis
-sunlight may exacerbate symptoms

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45
Q

Management of rosacea
-what is the management for predominant erythema/flushing in rosacea?
-what is the management of predominant erythema/flushing
-What is the management of mild-moderate papules and/or pustules in rosacea?
-What is the management of moderate-severe papules and/or pustules in rosacea?

A

Management
-simple measures
-recommend daily application of a high-factor sunscreen
camouflage creams may help conceal redness

predominant erythema/flushing CKS
-topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia
-brimonidine is a topical alpha-adrenergic agonist
this can be used on an ‘as required basis’ to temporarily reduce redness
-it typically reduces redness within 30 minutes, reaching peak action at 3-6 hours, after which the redness returns to the baseline

mild-to-moderate papules and/or pustules CKS
-topical ivermectin is first-line
alternatives include: topical metronidazole or topical azelaic acid

moderate-to-severe papules and/or pustules CKS
-combination of topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline

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46
Q

When should referral be considered for rosacea?

A

Referral should be considered if CKS
symptoms have not improved with optimal management in primary care
laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia
patients with a rhinophyma

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47
Q

What is seborrheic dermatitis? what is this thought to be caused by?

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis in adults is a chronic dermatitis thought to be caused by an inflammatory reaction related to a proliferation of a normal skin inhabitant, a fungus called Malassezia furfur (formerly known as Pityrosporum ovale). It is common, affecting around 2% of the general population.

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48
Q

Give 2 clinical features of seborrheic dermatitis in adults

A

Features
eczematous lesions on the sebum-rich areas: scalp (may cause dandruff), periorbital, auricular and nasolabial folds
otitis externa and blepharitis may develop
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49
Q

What is hidredenitis suppurativa?
Is it more common in men vs women? at what age are patients affected?qL;/.Q

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic, painful, inflammatory skin disorder. It is characterized by the development of inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It should be suspected in pubertal or post-pubertal patients who have a diagnosis of recurrent furuncles or boils, especially in intertriginous areas.

Epidemiology:
Women are more likely to develop HS than men.
It most commonly affects adults under 40

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50
Q

What are 2 assoc. conditions with seborrheic dermatitis

A

Associated conditions include
HIV
Parkinson’s disease

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51
Q

What is the management of seborrhoeic dermatitis affecting scalp? what is the management affecting face/body?

A

Scalp disease management
the first-line treatment is ketoconazole 2% shampoo
over the counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione (‘Head & Shoulders’) and tar (‘Neutrogena T/Gel’) may be used if ketoconazole is not appropriate or acceptable to the person
selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroid may also be useful

Face and body management
topical antifungals: e.g. ketoconazole
topical steroids: best used for short periods
difficult to treat - recurrences are common

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52
Q

What is the pathogenesis of hidredenitis suppurativa?

A

Pathogenesis:
Chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium.

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53
Q

what are 4 risk factors for hidredenitis suppurativa?

A

Risk factors:
Family history
Smoking
Obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome
Mechanical stretching of skin

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54
Q

What are 5 clinical features of hidredanitis suppurativa?

A

Clinical features:
-Initial manifestation involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules.
-HS occurs most commonly on intertriginous skin. However, non-intertriginous skin involvement also can occur. The axilla is the most common site
-Other areas include inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, inframammary skin.
-The nodules may rupture, discharging purulent, malodorous material.
-Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts and ‘rope-like’ scarring.

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55
Q

How is a diagnosis of hidredanitis supparativa made?

A

clinically

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56
Q

Give 6 management points for hidredenitis suppurativa?

A

Management:
-Encourage good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing
-Smoking cessation
-Weight loss in obese
-Acute flares can be treated with steroids (intra-lesional or oral) or flucloxacillin. Surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases.
-Long-term disease can be treated with topical (clindamycin) or oral (lymecycline or clindamycin and rifampicin) antibiotics.
-Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically.

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57
Q

Give 5 complications of hidradenitis suppurativa?

A

Complications:
-Sinus tracts, fistulas
-Comedones
-Scarring - severe scarring can lead to dense, rope-like bands in the skin with strictures and
lymphedema
-Contractures
-Lymphatic obstruction

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58
Q

What is tinea?

A

Tinea is a term given to dermatophyte fungal infections. Three main types of infection are described depending on what part of the body is infected
tinea capitis - scalp
tinea corporis - trunk, legs or arms
tinea pedis - feet

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59
Q

what is tinea capitis? who is this mainly seen in? what can happen if left untreated? what is the most common cause?
What is the diagnosis?
What is the management?

A

Tinea capitis (scalp ringworm)
-a cause of scarring alopecia mainly seen in children
-if untreated a raised, pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion may form
-most common cause is Trichophyton tonsurans in the UK and the USA
may also be caused by Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs

-diagnosis: lesions due to Microsporum canis green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp*. However the most useful investigation is scalp scrapings

management (based on CKS guidelines): oral antifungals: terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections and griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. Topical ketoconazole shampoo should be given for the first two weeks to reduce transmission

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60
Q

Tinea corporis
-What are the most common causes?
-What does this look like?
-How is this treated?

A

Tinea corporis (ringworm)
causes include Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton verrucosum (e.g. From contact with cattle)
well-defined annular, erythematous lesions with pustules and papules
may be treated with oral fluconazole

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61
Q

Tinea pedis
-What is this?
-Who is this common in?

A

Tinea pedis (athlete’s foot)
characterised by itchy, peeling skin between the toes
common in adolescence

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62
Q

Give 3 causative organisms for fungal nail infections

A

Fungal nail infection (onychomycosis) may involve any part of the nail, or the entire nail unit. Toenails are significantly more likely to become infected than fingernails

Causative organisms
-dermatophytes
account for around 90% of cases
mainly Trichophyton rubrum
-yeasts
account for around 5-10% of cases
e.g. Candida
-non-dermatophyte moulds

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63
Q

what are 4 risk factors for fungal nail infections? what are the features?

A

Risk factors
-increasing age
-diabetes mellitus
-psoriasis
-repeated nail trauma

Features
-‘unsightly’ nails are a common reason for presentation
-thickened, rough, opaque nails are the most common finding

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64
Q

What is the investigation for fungal nail infection

A

Investigation: nail clippings +/- scrapings of the affected nail
-microscopy and culture
-should be done for all patients if antifungal treatment is being considered
-the false-negative rate for cultures are around 30%, so repeat samples may need to be sent if the clinical suspicion is high

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65
Q

What is the management of a fungal nail infection

A

Management

do not need to be treated if it is asymptomatic and the patient is not bothered by the appearance

if dermatophyte or Candida
infection is confirmed
-if limited involvement (≤50% nail affected, ≤ 2 nails affected, more superficial white onychomycosis): topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer; 6 months for fingernails and 9 - 12 months for toenails
-if more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection: oral terbinafine is currently recommended first-line; 6 weeks - 3 months therapy is needed for fingernail infections whilst toenails should be treated for 3 - 6 months
-if more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection: oral itraconazole is recommended first-line; ‘pulsed’ weekly therapy is recommended

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66
Q

Pityriasis versicolor
-What is this caused by?
-what are 4 clinical features?

A

Pityriasis versicolor, also called tinea versicolor, is a superficial cutaneous fungal infection caused by Malassezia furfur (formerly termed Pityrosporum ovale)

Features
most commonly affects trunk
patches may be hypopigmented, pink or brown (hence versicolor). May be more noticeable following a suntan
scale is common
mild pruritus

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67
Q

What are 4 predisposing factors of pityriasis versicolor?

A

Predisposing factors
-occurs in healthy individuals
-immunosuppression
-malnutrition
-Cushing’s

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68
Q

What is the management of pityriasis versicolor?

A

Management
-topical antifungal. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries advise ketoconazole shampoo as this is more cost effective for large areas
-if failure to respond to topical treatment then consider alternative diagnoses (e.g. send scrapings to confirm the diagnosis) + oral itraconazole

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69
Q

What is pityriasis rosea?

A

Pityriasis rosea describes an acute, self-limiting rash which tends to affect young adults. The aetiology is not fully understood but is thought that herpes hominis virus 7 (HHV-7) may play a role.

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70
Q

Give 3 clinical features of pityriasis rosea?

A

Features
-in the majority of patients there is no prodrome, but a minority may give a history of a recent viral infection
-herald patch (usually on trunk)
-followed by erythematous, oval, scaly patches which follow a characteristic distribution with the longitudinal diameters of the oval lesions running parallel to the line of Langer. This may produce a ‘fir-tree’ appearance

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71
Q

what is the management of pityriasis rosea?

A

Management
self-limiting - usually disappears after 6-12 weeks

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72
Q

what virus causes chickenpox?

A

Varicella-zoster is the herpes virus that causes chickenpox. Shingles is an acute, unilateral, painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (VZV).

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73
Q

Chickenpox
-How can this be spread?
-Describe the infectivity of chicken pox
-what is the incubation period of chickenpox?

A

Chickenpox is highly infectious
spread via the respiratory route
can be caught from someone with shingles
infectivity = 4 days before rash, until 5 days after the rash first appeared*
incubation period = 10-21 days

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74
Q

Give 3 clinical features of chickenpox?

A

Clinical features (tend to be more severe in older children/adults)
fever initially
itchy, rash starting on head/trunk before spreading. Initially macular then papular then vesicular
systemic upset is usually mild

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75
Q

What is the management of chickenpox? describe school exclusion for chickenpox?

A

Management is supportive
-keep cool, trim nails
-calamine lotion
-school exclusion: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries state the following: Advise that the most infectious period is 1–2 days before the rash appears, but infectivity continues until all the lesions are dry and have crusted over (usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash).
-immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops then IV aciclovir should be considered

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76
Q

Give 5 complications of chickenpox?

A

A common complication is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions
NSAIDs may increase this risk
whilst this commonly may manifest as a single infected lesion/small area of cellulitis, in a small number of patients invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur resulting in necrotizing fasciitis

Rare complications include
pneumonia
encephalitis (cerebellar involvement may be seen)
disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox
arthritis, nephritis and pancreatitis may very rarely be seen

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77
Q

What is shingles?

A

Shingles (herpes zoster infection) is an acute, unilateral, painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Following primary infection with VZV (chickenpox), the virus lies dormant in the dorsal root or cranial nerve ganglia.

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78
Q

what are 3 risk factors for shingles?

A

Risk factors
increasing age
HIV: strong risk factor, 15 times more common
other immunosuppressive conditions (e.g. steroids, chemotherapy)

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79
Q

What dermatomes are most commonly affected by shingles? describe the prodromal period? describe the rash

A

The most commonly affected dermatomes are T1-L2.

Features

prodromal period
-burning pain over the affected dermatome for 2-3 days
-pain may be severe and interfere with sleep
-around 20% of patients will experience fever, headache, lethargy

rash
-initially erythematous, macular rash over the affected dermatome
quickly becomes vesicular
-characteristically is well demarcated by the dermatome and does not cross the midline. However, some ‘bleeding’ into adjacent areas may be seen

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80
Q

What is the diagnosis of shingles? what can be used for analgesia? When are antivirals used?

A

The diagnosis is usually clinical.

Management
-remind patients they are potentially infectious
may need to avoid pregnant women and the immunosuppressed
should be advised that they are infectious until the vesicles have crusted over, usually 5-7 days following onset
covering lesions reduces the risk

Analgesia
paracetamol and NSAIDs are first-line
-if not responding then use of neuropathic agents (e.g. amitriptyline) can be considered
-oral corticosteroids may be considered in the first 2 weeks in immunocompetent adults with localized shingles if the pain is severe and not responding to the above treatments

Antivirals
-NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries makes recommendations on when to use antivirals
-in practice, they recommend antivirals within 72 hours for the majority of patients, unless the patient is < 50 years and has a ‘mild’ truncal rash associated with mild pain and no underlying risk factors
-one of the benefits of prescribing antivirals is a reduced incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia, particularly in older people
-aciclovir, famciclovir, or valaciclovir are recommended

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81
Q

Give 3 complications of shingles

A

Complications
-post-herpetic neuralgia
the most common complications
more common in older patients
affects between 5%-30% of patients depending on age
most commonly resolves with 6 months but may last longer

-herpes zoster ophthalmicus (shingles affecting affecting the ocular division of the trigeminal nerve) is associated with a variety of ocular complications

-herpes zoster oticus (Ramsay Hunt syndrome): may result in ear lesions and facial paralysis

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82
Q

What are the 2 types of varicella-zoster vaccine?

A

There are two types of varicella-zoster vaccine:
-a vaccine that stops you from developing primary varicella infection (chickenpox)
-a vaccine that reduces the incidence of herpes zoster (shingles) caused by reactivation of VZV

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83
Q

Vaccination against primary varicella infection
-what kind of vaccine is this?
-Give 2 example indications?

A

This is a live attenuated vaccine. Examples include Varilrix and Varivax.

Example indications include:
-healthcare workers who are not already immune to VZV
-contacts of immunocompromised patients (e.g. child whose parent is undergoing chemotherapy)

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84
Q

Shingles vaccine
-who is this offered to?
-what type of vaccine is this and how is it given?
-Give an example

A

In 2013 the NHS introduced a vaccine to boost the immunity of elderly people against herpes zoster. Some important points about the vaccine:
-offered to all patients aged 70-79 years*
-is live-attenuated and given sub-cutaneously
-examples include Zostavax

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85
Q

What is a contraindication to shingles vaccine? give 2 side effects?

A

As it is a live-attenuated vaccine the main contraindications are immunosuppression.

Side-effects
injection site reactions
less than 1 in 10,000 individuals will develop chickenpox

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86
Q

What is scabies caused by? What is the pathophysiology? what is the pruritus due to?

A

Scabies is caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei and is spread by prolonged skin contact. It typically affects children and young adults.

The scabies mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the stratum corneum. The intense pruritus associated with scabies is due to a delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reaction to mites/eggs which occurs about 30 days after the initial infection.

87
Q

what are 4 clinical features of scabies?

A

Features
-widespread pruritus
-linear burrows on the side of fingers, interdigital webs and flexor aspects of the wrist
in infants, the face and scalp may also be affected
-secondary features are seen due to scratching: excoriation, infection

88
Q

What is first and second line management for scabies?

A

Management
-permethrin 5% is first-line
-malathion 0.5% is second-line
give appropriate guidance on use (see below)
pruritus persists for up to 4-6 weeks post eradication

The BNF advises to apply the insecticide to all areas, including the face and scalp, contrary to the manufacturer’s recommendation. Patients should be given the following instructions:
-apply the insecticide cream or liquid to cool, dry skin
-pay close attention to areas between fingers and toes, under nails, armpit area, creases of the skin such as at the wrist and elbow
-allow to dry and leave on the skin for 8-12 hours for permethrin, or for 24 hours for malathion, before washing off
-reapply if insecticide is removed during the treatment period, e.g. If wash hands, change nappy, etc
repeat treatment 7 days later

89
Q

Give 3 management points to give to patients

A

Patient guidance on treatment (from Clinical Knowledge Summaries)
-avoid close physical contact with others until treatment is complete
-all household and close physical contacts should be treated at the same time, even if asymptomatic
-launder, iron or tumble dry clothing, bedding, towels, etc., on the first day of treatment to kill off mites.

90
Q

Crusted scabies
-who is this seen in
-what is the treatment?

A

Crusted scabies is seen in patients with suppressed immunity, especially HIV.

The crusted skin will be teeming with hundreds of thousands of organisms.

Ivermectin is the treatment of choice and isolation is essential

91
Q

What is molluscum contagiosum caused by? how does transmission occur? how does this present?

A

Molluscum contagiosum is a common skin infection caused by molluscum contagiosum virus (MCV), a member of the Poxviridae family. Transmission occurs directly by close personal contact, or indirectly via fomites (contaminated surfaces) such as shared towels and flannels. The majority of cases occur in children (often in children with atopic eczema), with the maximum incidence in preschool children aged 1-4 years.

Typically, molluscum contagiosum presents with characteristic pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which are up to 5 mm in diameter. Lesions appear in clusters in areas anywhere on the body (except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet). In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, but anogenital lesions may also occur. In adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen. Rarely, lesions can occur on the oral mucosa and on the eyelids

92
Q

Give 5 self-care advice points?

A

Self-care advice:
-Reassure people that molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition.
-Spontaneous resolution usually occurs within 18 months
-Explain that lesions are contagious, and it is sensible to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected people (e.g. siblings)
-Encourage people not to scratch the lesions. If it is problematic, consider treatment to alleviate the itch
-Exclusion from school, gym, or swimming is not necessary

93
Q

What can be done for treatment in molluscum contagiosum if lesions troublesome/unsightly?

What can be done for itch? or if skin looks infected?

A

Treatment is not usually recommended. If lesions are troublesome or considered unsightly, use simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the parents’ wishes and the child’s age:
Squeezing (with fingernails) or piercing (orange stick) lesions may be tried, following a bath. Treatment should be limited to a few lesions at one time
Cryotherapy may be used in older children or adults, if the healthcare professional is experienced in the procedure

Eczema or inflammation can develop around lesions prior to resolution. Treatment may be required if:
Itching is problematic; prescribe an emollient and a mild topical corticosteroid (e.g. hydrocortisone 1%)
The skin looks infected (e.g. oedema, crusting); prescribe a topical antibiotic (e.g. fusidic acid 2%)

94
Q

Who requires referral for molluscum contagiosum?

A

Referral may be necessary in some circumstances:
-For people who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions urgent referral to a HIV specialist
-For people with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye urgent referral to an ophthalmologist
-Adults with anogenital lesions should be referred to genito-urinary medicine, for screening for other sexually transmitted infections

95
Q

What is acanthosis nigricans?

A

Describes symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques that are often found on the neck, axilla and groin.

96
Q

What are some causes of acanthosis nigricans?

A

Causes
-type 2 diabetes mellitus
-gastrointestinal cancer
-obesity
-polycystic ovarian syndrome
-acromegaly
-Cushing’s disease
-hypothyroidism
-familial
-Prader-Willi syndrome

drugs
-combined oral contraceptive pill
-nicotinic acid

97
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans

A

Pathophysiology
insulin resistance → hyperinsulinemia → stimulation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblast proliferation via interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1)

98
Q

Impetigo
-What are the causes
-What is the incubation period
-what are the features

A

S. Aureus or S. pyogenes

The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

Features
‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth
very contagious

99
Q

what is the treatment of impetigo? what if there is extensive disease?

A

Limited, localised disease
NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries now recommend -hydrogen peroxide 1% cream for ‘people who are not systemically unwell or at a high risk of complications’
the change was announced in 2020 by NICE and Public Health England and seems aimed at cutting antibiotic resistance
the evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non‑bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic

topical antibiotic creams:
topical fusidic acid
topical mupirocin should be used if fusidic acid resistance is suspected
MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin. Topical mupirocin should, therefore, be used in this situation

Extensive disease
oral flucloxacillin
oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic

100
Q

What are the school exclusion rules for impetigo?

A

School exclusion
children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment

101
Q

What is lichen sclerosus??

A

Lichen sclerosus was previously termed lichen sclerosus et atrophicus. It is an inflammatory condition that usually affects the genitalia and is more common in elderly females. Lichen sclerosus leads to atrophy of the epidermis with white plaques forming

102
Q

what are 3 clinical features of lichen sclerosus?

A

Features
white patches that may scar
itch is prominent
may result in pain during intercourse or urination

103
Q

What is the diagnosis and management of lichen sclerosus?

A

The diagnosis is usually made on clinical grounds but a biopsy may be performed if atypical features are present*

Management
topical steroids and emollients

104
Q

Describe the follow up for lichen sclerosus
-Who gets a confirmatory biopsy?

A

Follow-up:
increased risk of vulval cancer

A confirmatory biopsy, although ideal, is not always practical, particularly in children. It is not always essential when the clinical features are typical. However, histological examination is advisable if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty and is mandatory if there is any suspicion of neoplastic
change. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if:
(i) there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, i.e. a persistent area of hyperkeratosis, erosion or erythema, or new warty or papular lesions;
(ii) the disease fails to respond to adequate treatment;
(iii) there is extragenital LS, with features suggesting an overlap with morphoea;
(iv) there are pigmented areas, in order to exclude an abnormal melanocytic proliferation;
and
(v) second-line therapy is to be used.

105
Q

What is lichen planus?
-Give 5 clinical features of lichen planus

A

Lichen planus is a skin disorder of unknown aetiology, most probably being immune-mediated.

Features
-itchy, papular rash most common on the palms, soles, genitalia and flexor surfaces of arms
-rash often polygonal in shape, with a ‘white-lines’ pattern on the surface (Wickham’s striae)
-Koebner phenomenon may be seen (new skin lesions appearing at the site of trauma)
-oral involvement in around 50% of patients: typically a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa
-nails: thinning of nail plate, longitudinal ridging

106
Q

Give 3 causes of lichenoid drug eruptions

A

Lichenoid drug eruptions - causes:
gold
quinine
thiazides

107
Q

Give 3 points of management for lichen planus

A

Management
-potent topical steroids are the mainstay of treatment
-benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended for oral lichen planus
-extensive lichen planus may require oral steroids or immunosuppression

108
Q

What is balanitis xerotica obliterans?

A

Lichen sclerosus affecting penis
May be itchy, associated with white plaques and can cause significant scarring

109
Q

What is koebner phenomenon and what else is this seen in other than lichen planus?

A

The Koebner phenomenon describes skin lesions that appear at the site of injury. It is seen in:
psoriasis
vitiligo
warts
lichen planus
lichen sclerosus
molluscum contagiosum

110
Q

What is Zoon’s balanitis?
-What does this look like?

A

Zoon’s balanitis (also known as plasma cell balanitis) is a chronic condition affecting the head of the penis. It is typically seen in middle-aged/elderly men who are uncircumcised.

Features
erythematous, well-demarcated shiny patches which affect the head of the penis

111
Q

What is the investigation and management for zoon’s balanitis

A

Investigation
whilst Zoon’s balanitis is benign, biopsy may be indicated to exclude alternative diagnoses

Management
circumcision is generally curative
carbon dioxide laser therapy and topical corticosteroids may also have a role

112
Q

what are the two types of contact dermatitis?

A

There are two main types of contact dermatitis
-irritant contact dermatitis: common - non-allergic reaction due to weak acids or alkalis (e.g. detergents). Often seen on the hands. Erythema is typical, crusting and vesicles are rare

-allergic contact dermatitis: type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Uncommon - often seen on the head following hair dyes. Presents as an acute weeping eczema which predominately affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated

113
Q

What is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis?

A

Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis whilst the dichromates in cement also can cause an allergic contact dermatitis

114
Q

What is a common cause of allergic contact dermatitis? how is this diagnosed?

A

Nickel is a common cause allergic contact dermatitis and is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. It is often caused by jewellery such as watches

It is diagnosed by a skin patch test

115
Q

What is periorificial dermatitis?

A

Periorificial dermatitis is a condition typically seen in women aged 20-45 years old. Topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids are often implicated in the development of the condition.

116
Q

Give 2 features of periorificial dermatitis

A

Features
-clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles and papulopustules
-most commonly in the perioral region but also the perinasal and periocular region
-skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is typically spared

117
Q

What is the management of periorificial dermatitis

A

Management
-steroids may worsen symptoms
-should be treated with topical or oral antibiotics

118
Q

How is alopecia categorised?

A

Alopecia may be divided into scarring (destruction of hair follicle) and non-scarring (preservation of hair follicle)

119
Q

What are 5 causes scarring alopecia

A

Scarring alopecia
-trauma, burns
-radiotherapy
-lichen planus
-discoid lupus
-tinea capitis*

*scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops

120
Q

Give 6 causes of non-scarring alopecia?

A

Non-scarring alopecia
-male-pattern baldness
-drugs: cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, colchicine
-nutritional: iron and zinc deficiency
-autoimmune: alopecia areata
-telogen effluvium (hair loss following stressful period e.g. surgery)
-trichotillomania

121
Q

Alopecia areata
-What is this?
-What is seen at the edge of hair loss?

A

Alopecia areata is a presumed autoimmune condition causing localised, well demarcated patches of hair loss. At the edge of the hair loss, there may be small, broken ‘exclamation mark’ hairs

122
Q

Give 6 treatment options for alopecia areata

A

Hair will regrow in 50% of patients by 1 year, and in 80-90% eventually. Careful explanation is therefore sufficient in many patients. Other treatment options include:
-topical or intralesional corticosteroids
-topical minoxidil
-phototherapy
-dithranol
-contact immunotherapy
-wigs

123
Q

Give 5 causes of skin bulla

A

Causes of skin bullae
-congenital: epidermolysis bullosa
-autoimmune: bullous pemphigoid, pemphigus
-insect bite
-trauma/friction
-drugs: barbiturates, furosemide

124
Q

What is bullous pemphigoid? what is this caused by?

A

Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune condition causing sub-epidermal blistering of the skin. This is secondary to the development of antibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins BP180 and BP230.

125
Q

Give 3 clinical features of pemphigoid

A

Bullous pemphigoid is more common in elderly patients. Features include
-itchy, tense blisters typically around flexures
-the blisters usually heal without scarring
-there is stereotypically no mucosal involvement (i.e. the mouth is spared)
-in reality around 10-50% of patients have a degree of mucosal involvement. It would, however, be unusual for an exam question to mention mucosal involvement as it is seen as a classic differentiating feature between pemphigoid and pemphigus.

126
Q

What is the diagnosis of pemphigoid

A

Skin biopsy
immunofluorescence shows IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction

127
Q

What is the management of pemphigoid

A

Management
referral to a dermatologist for biopsy and confirmation of diagnosis
oral corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment
topical corticosteroids, immunosuppressants and antibiotics are also used

128
Q

What is pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease caused by antibodies directed against desmoglein 3, a cadherin-type epithelial cell adhesion molecule. It is more common in the Ashkenazi Jewish population.

129
Q

What are 3 clinical features of pemphigus?

A

Features
-mucosal ulceration is common and often the presenting symptom. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients
-skin blistering - flaccid, easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. Lesions are typically painful but not itchy. These may develop months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s describes the spread of bullae following application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin
-acantholysis on biopsy

130
Q

What is the management of pemphigus

A

Management
steroids are first-line
immunosuppressants

131
Q

What is dermatitis herpetiformis?what is this assoc. with? what is this caused by?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune blistering skin disorder associated with coeliac disease. It is caused by deposition of IgA in the dermis. More than 90% of patients exhibit small bowel biopsy findings consistent with some degree of gluten-sensitive enteropathy.

132
Q

Describe the features of dermatitis herpetiformis

A

Features
itchy, vesicular skin lesions on the extensor surfaces (e.g. elbows, knees, buttocks)

133
Q

What is the diagnosis and management of dermatitis herpetiformis

A

Diagnosis
skin biopsy: direct immunofluorescence shows deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis

Management
gluten-free diet
dapsone

134
Q

What is actinic keratoses?

A

Actinic, or solar, keratoses (AK) is a common premalignant skin lesion that develops as a consequence of chronic sun exposure

Features
small, crusty or scaly, lesions
may be pink, red, brown or the same colour as the skin
typically on sun-exposed areas e.g. temples of head
multiple lesions may be present

135
Q

What are 6 management options for actinic keratoses?

A

Management options include
-prevention of further risk: e.g. sun avoidance, sun cream
-fluorouracil cream: typically a 2 to 3 week course. The skin will become red and inflamed - sometimes topical hydrocortisone is given following fluorouracil to help settle the inflammation
-topical diclofenac: may be used for mild AKs. Moderate efficacy but much fewer side-effects
-topical imiquimod: trials have shown good efficacy
-cryotherapy
-curettage and cautery

136
Q

What are the four main subtypes of malignant melanoma?

A

There are four main subtypes of melanoma. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive whilst the other forms spread more slowly.

Superficial spreading
Nodular
Lentigo maligna
Acral lentiginous

137
Q

Superficial spreading
-Is this common?
-Where does this typically affect?
-What is the appearance?

A

70% of cases
Arms, legs, back and chest, young people
A growing moles with diagnostic features

138
Q

Nodular melanoma
-Is this common?
-Where does this typically affect?
-What is the appearance?

A

Second commonest
Sun exposed skin, middle-aged people
Red or black lump or lump which bleeds or oozes

139
Q

Lentigo maligna
-Is this common?
-Where does this typically affect?
-What is the appearance?

A

Less common
Chronically sun-exposed skin, older people
A growing mole with diagnostic features listed above

Lentigo maligna is a type of melanoma in-situ. It typically progresses slowly but may at some stage become invasive causing lentigo maligna melanoma.

140
Q

Acral lentiginous
-Is this common?
-Where does this typically affect?
-What is the appearance?

A

Rare form
Nails, palms or soles, People with darker skin pigmentation
Subungual pigmentation (Hutchinson’s sign) or on palms or feet

141
Q

List the main diagnostic criteria of malignant melanoma? 3

A

The main diagnostic features (major criteria):
Change in size
Change in shape
Change in colour

142
Q

List the secondary diagnostic features of malignant melanoma

A

Secondary features (minor criteria)
Diameter >= 7mm
Inflammation
Oozing or bleeding
Altered sensation

143
Q

What is the diagnosis of malignant melanoma?

A

Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy. The lesion should be removed in completely as incision biopsy can make subsequent histopathological assessment difficult.
Once the diagnosis is confirmed the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required.

144
Q

What are the margins of excision relating to breslow thickness.
0-1mm thick
1-2mm thick
2-4mm thick
>4mm thick

A

Margins of excision-Related to Breslow thickness
Lesions 0-1mm thick 1cm
Lesions 1-2mm thick 1- 2cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)
Lesions 2-4mm thick 2-3 cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)
Lesions >4 mm thick 3cm

145
Q

what is the single most important factor in determining prognosis of malignant melanoma

A

The invasion depth of a tumour (Breslow depth) is the single most important factor in determining prognosis of patients with malignant melanoma

Breslow Thickness Approximate 5 year survival
< 0.75 mm 95-100%
0.76 - 1.50 mm 80-96%
1.51 - 4 mm 60-75%
> 4 mm 50%

146
Q

What is bowens disease?

A

Bowen’s disease is a type of precancerous dermatosis that is a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma. It is more common in elderly patients. There is around a 5-10% chance of developing invasive skin cancer if left untreated.

147
Q

What are 4 clinical features of bowens disease?

A

Features
red, scaly patches
often 10-15 mm in size
slow-growing
often occur on sun-exposed areas such as the head (e.g. temples) and neck, lower limbs

148
Q

What are 3 management options of bowen’s disease?

A

Management options:
-may sometimes be diagnosed and managed in primary care if clear diagnosis or repeat episode

topical 5-fluorouracil
typically used twice daily for 4 weeks
often results in significant inflammation/erythema. Topical steroids are often given to control this

cryotherapy

excision

149
Q

What are 6 risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma is a common variant of skin cancer. Metastases are rare but may occur in 2-5% of patients.

Risk factors include:
-excessive exposure to sunlight / psoralen UVA therapy
-actinic keratoses and Bowen’s disease
-immunosuppression e.g. following renal transplant, HIV
-smoking
-long-standing leg ulcers (Marjolin’s ulcer)
-genetic conditions e.g. xeroderma pigmentosum, oculocutaneous albinism

150
Q

What are 4 features of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Features
-typically on sun-exposed sites such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms
-rapidly expanding painless, ulcerate nodules
-may have a cauliflower-like appearance
-there may be areas of bleeding

151
Q

What is the treatment for squamous cell carcinoma

A

Surgical excision with 4mm margins if lesion <20mm in diameter. If tumour >20mm then margins should be 6mm. Mohs micrographic surgery may be used in high-risk patients and in cosmetically important sites.

152
Q

What are 4 good prognostic factors of squamous cell carcinoma

A

Well differentiated tumours
<20mm diameter
<2mm deep
No assoc. diseases

153
Q

What are 4 poor prognostic factors for squamous cell carcinoma

A

Poorly differentiated tumours
>20mm diameter
>4mm deep
Immunosupression

154
Q

What is keratoacanthoma?
Give 2 clinical features?
What is the treatment?

A

Keratoacanthoma is a benign epithelial tumour. They are more common with advancing age and rare in young people.

Features - said to look like a volcano or crater
initially a smooth dome-shaped papule
rapidly grows to become a crater centrally-filled with keratin

Spontaneous regression of keratoacanthoma within 3 months is common, often resulting in a scar. Such lesions should however be urgently excised as it is difficult clinically to exclude squamous cell carcinoma. Removal also may prevent scarring.

155
Q

What is leukoplakia?
-How is this investigated?
-What is the management?

A

Leukoplakia is a premalignant condition which presents as white, hard spots on the mucous membranes of the mouth. It is more common in smokers.

Leukoplakia is said to be a diagnosis of exclusion. Candidiasis and lichen planus should be considered, especially if the lesions can be ‘rubbed off’

Biopsies are usually performed to exclude alternative diagnoses such as squamous cell carcinoma and regular follow-up is required to exclude malignant transformation to squamous cell carcinoma, which occurs in around 1% of patients.

156
Q

Basal cell carcinoma
-What are lesions also known as?
-does this metastasise?
-is it common?

A

Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is one of the three main types of skin cancer. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are characterised by slow-growth and local invasion. Metastases are extremely rare. BCC is the most common type of cancer in the Western world.

157
Q

Give 4 clinical features of BCC

A

Features
-many types of BCC are described. -The most common type is nodular BCC, which is described here
-sun-exposed sites, especially the head and neck account for the majority of lesions
-initially a pearly, flesh-coloured papule with telangiectasia
may later ulcerate leaving a central ‘crater’

158
Q

What is the referral and management of basal cell carcinoma

A

Referral
generally, if a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made

Management options:
surgical removal
curettage
cryotherapy
topical cream: imiquimod, fluorouracil
radiotherapy

159
Q

What is mycosis fungoides?

A

Mycosis fungoides is a rare form of T-cell lymphoma that affects the skin.

Features
itchy, red patches which are
lesions tend to be of different colours in contrast to eczema/psoriasis where there is greater homogenicity

160
Q

What is a cherry haemangioma?

A

Cherry haemangiomas (Campbell de Morgan spots) are benign skin lesions which contain an abnormal proliferation of capillaries. They are more common with advancing age and affect men and women equally.

161
Q

What are 4 features of cherry haemangioma? what is the treatment

A

Features
-erythematous, papular lesions
-typically 1-3 mm in size
-non-blanching
-not found on the mucous membranes

As they are benign no treatment is usually required.

162
Q

What is chondrodermatitis nodularis?

A

Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis (CNH) is a common and benign condition characterised by the development of a painful nodule on the ear. It is thought to be caused by factors such as persistent pressure on the ear (e.g. secondary to sleep, headsets), trauma or cold. CNH is more common in men and with increasing age.

163
Q

What is the management of chondrodermatitis nodularis

A

Management
reducing pressure on the ear: foam ‘ear protectors’ may be used during sleep
other treatment options include cryotherapy, steroid injection, collagen injection
surgical treatment may be used but there is a high recurrence rate

164
Q

What is dermatitis artefacta?

A

Dermatitis artefacta is a rare psycho-dermatological condition characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions. Patients typically deny that these are self-induced.

Epidemiology:
It typically affects adolescence but may present at any age
it is 4-20 times more common in females

Risk factors:
dermatitis artefacta is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders and eating disorders
the prevalence of dermatitis artefacta is up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia

165
Q

What are 5 clinical features of dermatitis artefacta

A

Clinical features:
-patients typically present with linear/geometric lesions that are well-demarcated from normal skin. The appearance of lesions depends on the mechanism of injuries which may be either (scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes) or chemical (deodorant spray)
-skin lesions are typically described to appear suddenly e.g. overnight. They usually appear whole and complete and do not evolve over time. There may be multiple lesions at various stages of healing
-commonly affected areas are the face (especially cheeks) and the dorsum of the hands
-despite the severity of skin lesions, patients may be nonchalant, displaying ‘la belle indifference’ (also known as Mona Lisa smile)
-In the history, there may be recent life events or triggers such as a marital dispute or recent bereavement

166
Q

What is the diagnostic approach of dermatitis artefacta?

A

Diagnostic approach:
-this condition is diagnosed clinically based on history and after exclusion of other dermatological conditions
-biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. -Histopathological analysis of self-inflicted lesions is non-specific
psychiatric assessment may be necessary

167
Q

what are the differential diagnosis for dermatitis artefacta?

A

Differential diagnosis:
-other dermatological conditions e.g. cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, pyoderma gangrenosum, basal cell carcinoma, lichen planus, psoriasis
-other factitious disorders e.g. Munchausen syndrome (self-inflicting is not limited to the skin), malingering (self-inflicting for secondary gain e.g. to avoid work or to gain compensation)

168
Q

what is a dermatofibroma?

A

Dermatofibromas (also known as histiocytomas) are common benign fibrous skin lesions. They are caused by the abnormal growth of dermal dendritic histiocyte cells, often following a precipitating injury. Common areas include the arms and legs.

Features
solitary firm papule or nodule, typically on a limb
typically around 5-10mm in size
overlying skin dimples on pinching the lesion

169
Q

What is erythema ab igne? what can this leadto?

A

Erythema ab igne is a skin disorder caused by over exposure to infrared radiation. Characteristic features include reticulated, erythematous patches with hyperpigmentation and telangiectasia. A typical history would be an elderly women who always sits next to an open fire.

If the cause is not treated then patients may go on to develop squamous cell skin cancer.

170
Q

What is erythema multiforme?
-what are 4 clinical features

A

Erythema multiforme is a hypersensitivity reaction that is most commonly triggered by infections. It may be divided into minor and major forms.

Previously it was thought that Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) was a severe form of erythema multiforme. They are now however considered as separate entities.

Features
target lesions
initially seen on the back of the hands / feet before spreading to the torso
upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs
pruritus is occasionally seen and is usually mild

171
Q

give 7 causes of erythema multiforme

A

-viruses: herpes simplex virus (the most common cause), Orf*
-idiopathic
-bacteria: Mycoplasma, Streptococcus
-drugs: penicillin, sulphonamides, carbamazepine, allopurinol, NSAIDs, oral contraceptive pill, nevirapine
-connective tissue disease e.g. Systemic lupus erythematosus
-sarcoidosis
-malignancy

172
Q

What is erythema multiforme major?

A

The more severe form, erythema multiforme major is associated with mucosal involvement.

173
Q

What is erythema nodosum
-where does this occur
-how long does this last
-does this scar?

A

Overview
-inflammation of subcutaneous fat
typically causes tender, erythematous, nodular lesions
-usually occurs over shins, may also occur elsewhere (e.g. forearms, thighs)
-usually resolves within 6 weeks
-lesions heal without scarring

174
Q

What are 5 causes of erythema nodosum?

A

Causes
-infection: streptococci/ tuberculosis/ brucellosis
-systemic disease: sarcoidosis/ inflammatory bowel disease/ Behcet’s
-malignancy/lymphoma
-drugs: penicillins / sulphonamides / combined oral contraceptive pill
-pregnancy

175
Q

What is erythrasma? what is the diagnosis and management?

A

Erythrasma is a generally asymptomatic, flat, slightly scaly, pink or brown rash usually found in the groin or axillae. It is caused by an overgrowth of the diphtheroid Corynebacterium minutissimum

Examination with Wood’s light reveals a coral-red fluorescence.

Topical miconazole or antibacterial are usually effective. Oral erythromycin may be used for more extensive infection

176
Q

What is erythroderma? what are 5 causes?

A

Erythroderma is a term used when more than 95% of the skin is involved in a rash of any kind.

Causes of erythroderma
eczema
psoriasis
drugs e.g. gold
lymphomas, leukaemias
idiopathic

177
Q

Erythrodermic psoriasis
-why may this happen?
-what is the management?

A

Erythrodermic psoriasis
may result from progression of chronic disease to an exfoliative phase with plaques covering most of the body. Associated with mild systemic upset
more serious form is an acute deterioration. This may be triggered by a variety of factors such as withdrawal of systemic steroids. Patients need to be admitted to hospital for management

178
Q

What is granuloma annulare?

A

Basics
papular lesions that are often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally
typically occur on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet, and on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs

A number of associations have been proposed to conditions such as diabetes mellitus but there is only weak evidence for this

179
Q

What is hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia? how is this inherited?

A

Also known as Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome, hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT) is an autosomal dominant condition characterised by (as the name suggests) multiple telangiectasia over the skin and mucous membranes. Twenty percent of cases occur spontaneously without prior family history.

180
Q

How is hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia diagnosed?

A

There are 4 main diagnostic criteria. If the patient has 2 then they are said to have a possible diagnosis of HHT. If they meet 3 or more of the criteria they are said to have a definite diagnosis of HHT:
-epistaxis : spontaneous, recurrent nosebleeds
-telangiectases: multiple at characteristic sites (lips, oral cavity, fingers, nose)
-visceral lesions: for example gastrointestinal telangiectasia (with or without bleeding), pulmonary arteriovenous malformations (AVM), hepatic AVM, cerebral AVM, spinal AVM
-family history: a first-degree relative with HHT

181
Q

What is hirsutism? give 7 causes?

A

Hirsutism is often used to describe androgen-dependent hair growth in women, with hypertrichosis being used for androgen-independent hair growth

Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common causes of hirsutism. Other causes include:
Cushing’s syndrome
congenital adrenal hyperplasia
androgen therapy
obesity: thought to be due to insulin resistance
adrenal tumour
androgen secreting ovarian tumour
drugs: phenytoin, corticosteroids

182
Q

What is the assessment and management of hirsutism?

A

Assessment of hirsutism
Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system: 9 body areas are assigned a score of 0 - 4, a score > 15 is considered to indicate moderate or severe hirsutism

Management of hirsutism
advise weight loss if overweight
cosmetic techniques such as waxing/bleaching - not available on the NHS
consider using combined oral contraceptive pills such as co-cyprindiol (Dianette) or ethinylestradiol and drospirenone (Yasmin). Co-cyprindiol should not be used long-term due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism
facial hirsutism: topical eflornithine - contraindicated in pregnancy and breast-feeding

183
Q

Give 4 causes of hypertrichosis

A

Causes of hypertrichosis
-drugs: minoxidil, ciclosporin, diazoxide
-congenital hypertrichosis lanuginosa, congenital hypertrichosis terminalis
-porphyria cutanea tarda
-anorexia nervosa

184
Q

What is hyperhydrosis? Give 4 management options?

A

Hyperhidrosis describes the excessive production of sweat.

Management options include:
-topical aluminium chloride preparations are first-line. Main side effect is skin irritation
-iontophoresis: particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar and axillary hyperhidrosis
-botulinum toxin: currently licensed for axillary symptoms
-surgery: e.g. Endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy. Patients should be made aware of the risk of compensatory sweating

185
Q

What is prophyria cutanea tarda? what is this due to?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda is the most common hepatic porphyria. It is due to an inherited defect in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase or caused by hepatocyte damage e.g. alcohol, hepatitis C, oestrogen.

186
Q

What are the features of porphyria cutanea tarda? 3

A

Features
classically presents with photosensitive rash with blistering and skin fragility on the face and dorsal aspect of hands (most common feature)
hypertrichosis
hyperpigmentation

187
Q

What are 2 investigations for porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

Investigations
urine: elevated uroporphyrinogen and pink fluorescence of urine under Wood’s lamp
serum iron ferritin level is used to guide therapy

188
Q

What is the management of porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

Management
chloroquine
venesection
preferred if iron ferritin is above 600 ng/ml

189
Q

What is a juvenile spring eruption?

A

Juvenile spring eruption is a skin condition which appears following sun exposure. It is a variant of polymorphic light eruption (PLE) and manifests as itchy red bumps which turn into blisters and crusts on the light-exposed parts of the ears.

Epidemiology
Juvenile spring eruption is less common in females due to increased amounts of hair covering the ears
Presentation is usually in boys aged between 5-14 years

190
Q

What are 3 causes of juvenile spring eruption?

A

Causes
Sun-induced allergy rash: More likely to occur in the springtime
Some patients may also have PLE elsewhere on the body
Increased incidence in cold weather

191
Q

What are the clinical signs and investigations for juvenile spring eruption

A

Signs
Itchy red rash consisting of small bumps on the tops of the ears following sun exposure
May evolve into painful blisters and crusts

Investigations
Clinical diagnosis: Usually no clinical tests are required
In aggressive cases, lupus should be ruled out by ANA and ENA blood tests

192
Q

Give 4 management points for juvenile spring eruption

A

Management
General: Provide a patient information leaflet, educate on sun exposure and use of suncream and hats
Provide topical treatments such as emollients or calamine lotion
Anti-histamines can provide itch relief at night-time
For more serious cases, oral steroids such as prednisolone can be used as well as immune-system suppressants

193
Q

What is a port wine stain? what is the treatment?

A

Port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that tend to be unilateral. They are deep red or purple in colour. Unlike other vascular birthmarks such as salmon patches and strawberry haemangiomas, they do not spontaneously resolve, and in fact often darken and become raised over time. Treatment is with cosmetic camouflage or laser therapy (multiple sessions are required).

194
Q

What is a salmon patch? what is the treatment?

A

Salmon patches are a kind of vascular birthmark which can be seen in around half of newborn babies they are also known as stork marks or stork bites. They are pink and blotchy, and commonly found on the forehead, eyelids and nape of the neck. They usually fade over a few months, though marks on the neck may persist.

195
Q

What is a strawberry naevus?
-What is the natural history?
-Where are these found?

A

Strawberry naevi (capillary haemangioma) are usually not present at birth but may develop rapidly in the first month of life. They appear as erythematous, raised and multilobed tumours.

Typically they increase in size until around 6-9 months before regressing over the next few years (around 95% resolve before 10 years of age).

Common sites include the face, scalp and back. Rarely they may be present in the upper respiratory tract leading to potential airway obstruction

196
Q

How common are strawberry naevus? what are 4 potential complications?

A

Capillary haemangiomas are present in around 10% of white infants. Female infants, premature infants and those of mothers who have undergone chorionic villous sampling are more likely to be affected

Potential complications
mechanical e.g. Obstructing visual fields or airway
bleeding
ulceration
thrombocytopaenia

197
Q

What is the treatment for a strawberry naevus?

A

If treatment is required (e.g. Visual field obstruction) then propranolol is increasingly replacing systemic steroids as the treatment of choice. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol are also sometimes used.

Cavernous haemangioma is a deep capillary haemangioma

198
Q

Spider naevi
-What is this?
-How can you differentiate this from a telangiectasia?

A

Spider naevi (also called spider angiomas) describe a central red papule with surrounding capillaries. The lesions blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are almost always found on the upper part of the body.

Spider naevi can be differentiated from telangiectasia by pressing on them and watching them fill. Spider naevi fill from the centre, telangiectasia from the edge .

Around 10-15% of people will have one or more spider naevi and they are more common in childhood. Other associations
liver disease
pregnancy
combined oral contraceptive pill

199
Q

What is a keloid scar? give 3 predisposing factors? What is the treatment

A

Keloid scars are tumour-like lesions that arise from the connective tissue of a scar and extend beyond the dimensions of the original wound

Predisposing factors
-ethnicity: more common in people with dark skin
-occur more commonly in young adults, rare in the elderly
-common sites (in order of decreasing frequency): sternum, shoulder, neck, face, extensor surface of limbs, trunk

Keloid scars are less likely if incisions are made along relaxed skin tension lines*

Treatment
-early keloids may be treated with intra-lesional steroids e.g. triamcinolone
-excision is sometimes required but careful consideration needs to given to the potential to create further keloid scarring

200
Q

What is the commonest skin disorder found in pregnancy?

A

Atopic eruption of pregnancy
is the commonest skin disorder found in pregnancy
it typically presents as an eczematous, itchy red rash.
no specific treatment is needed

201
Q

What is polymorphic eruption of pregnancy? what is the management?

A

Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
pruritic condition associated with last trimester
lesions often first appear in abdominal striae
management depends on severity: emollients, mild potency topical steroids and oral steroids may be used

202
Q

What are 4 skin disorders assoc with SLE?

A

Skin manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
photosensitive ‘butterfly’ rash
discoid lupus
alopecia
livedo reticularis: net-like rash

203
Q

Where is venous ulceration most commonly found? what investigation is necessary?

A

Venous ulceration is typically seen above the medial malleolus

Investigations
ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers to assess for poor arterial flow which could impair healing
a ‘normal’ ABPI may be regarded as between 0.9 - 1.2. Values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, in the form of false-negative results secondary to arterial calcification (e.g. In diabetics)

204
Q

What is the management of a venous ulcer?

A

Management
-compression bandaging, usually four layer (only treatment shown to be of real benefit)
-oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, improves healing rate
small evidence base supporting -use of flavinoids
-little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy and intermittent pneumatic compression

205
Q

What is vitiligo? Give 5 assoc. conditions

A

Vitiligo is an autoimmune condition which results in the loss of melanocytes and consequent depigmentation of the skin. It is thought to affect around 1% of the population and symptoms typically develop by the age of 20-30 years.

Associated conditions
type 1 diabetes mellitus
Addison’s disease
autoimmune thyroid disorders
pernicious anaemia
alopecia areata

206
Q

What features are seen in vitiligo? and what is the management?

A

Features
well-demarcated patches of depigmented skin
the peripheries tend to be most affected
trauma may precipitate new lesions (Koebner phenomenon)

Management
sunblock for affected areas of skin
camouflage make-up
topical corticosteroids may reverse the changes if applied early
there may also be a role for topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution needs to be exercised with light-skinned patients

207
Q

Give 11 features of zinc deficiency? what is acrodermatitis enteropathica?

A

Features
acrodermatitis: red, crusted lesions
acral distribution
peri-orificial
perianal
alopecia
short stature
hypogonadism
hepatosplenomegaly
geophagia (ingesting clay/soil)
cognitive impairment

Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a recessively inherited partial defect in intestinal zinc absorption.

208
Q

How are burns assessed?

A

Assessing the extent of the burn
Wallace’s Rule of Nines: head + neck = 9%, each arm = 9%, each anterior part of leg = 9%, each posterior part of leg = 9%, anterior chest = 9%, posterior chest = 9%, anterior abdomen = 9%, posterior abdomen = 9%
Lund and Browder chart: the most accurate method
the palmar surface is roughly equivalent to 1% of total body surface area (TBSA). Not accurate for burns > 15% TBSA

209
Q

How to assess rthickness of burn:
Superficial epidermal
Partial thickness superficial dermal
partial thickness deep derma
full thickness

A

Modern terminology Former terminology Appearance
Superficial epidermal First degree Red and painful, dry, no blisters
Partial thickness (superficial dermal) Second degree Pale pink, painful, blistered. Slow capillary refill
Partial thickness (deep dermal) Second degree Typically white but may have pavtches of non-blanching erythema. Reduced sensation, painful to deep pressure
Full thickness Third degree White (‘waxy’)/brown (‘leathery’)/black in colour, no blisters, no pain

210
Q

Which burns are referred to secondary care?

A

Referral to secondary care
all deep dermal and full-thickness burns.
superficial dermal burns of more than 3% TBSA in adults, or more than 2% TBSA in children
superficial dermal burns involving the face, hands, feet, perineum, genitalia, or any flexure, or circumferential burns of the limbs, torso, or neck
any inhalation injury
any electrical or chemical burn injury
suspicion of non-accidental injury

211
Q

What is the management of TEN?

A

Management
stop precipitating factor
supportive care
often in an intensive care unit
volume loss and electrolyte derangement are potential complications
intravenous immunoglobulin has been shown to be effective and is now commonly used first-line
other treatment options include: immunosuppressive agents (ciclosporin and cyclophosphamide), plasmapheresis

212
Q

What is the DLQI? how many questions? what is the max score? how many areas does this cover?

A

The Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI) is a widely used scoring system which assesses the impact of chronic skin disorders on patients lives.

Basics
10 questions each scored out of 3. Maximum score is therefore 30, with a higher score indicating a more significant impact on quality of life
usually takes around 1-2 minutes to complete
covers 6 areas: Symptoms and feelings, Daily activities, Leisure Questions , Work and School , Personal relationships and Treatment

213
Q

How are the DLQI scores interpreted?

A

0-1 no effect at all on patient’s life
2-5 small effect on patient’s life
6-10 moderate effect on patient’s life
11-20 very large effect on patient’s life
21-30 extremely large effect on patient’s life

214
Q

What is the presentation notalgia paraesthetica?

A

Notalgia paraesthetica = chronic itch on medial border of scapula