Administration Flashcards

1
Q

Medical records:
-Can patients see what is in their medical record?
-what about children/parents?
-when should medical records not be released
-is there a charge?

A

Key principles

patients have a right to see what is written in their medical record
competent children may seek access to their records
parents may request access to their children's (< 16 years) records
doctors should not release information they feel may damage a patients emotional or physical health
following the Data Protection Act access to medical records should be given within 28 days
following the General Data Protection Regulations and the Data Protection Act 2018 a fee can no longer be charged for a simple copy of the medical notes.
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2
Q

What is a caldicott guardian?

A

The 1997 Caldicott Report identified weaknesses in the way parts of NHS handled confidential patient data. The report recommended the appointment of Caldicott Guardians, a member of staff with responsibility to ensure patient data is kept secure

It is now a requirement for every NHS organisation to have a Caldicott Guardian

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3
Q

What are the 8 principles of the data protection act?

A

he Data Protection Act is the main piece of legislation that governs the protection of personal data in the UK. The Act covers both manual and computerised records.

There are 8 main principles of the Data Protection Act:

-data must be used for the specific purpose it was collected
-data must not be disclosed to other parties without the consent of the individual whom it is about
-individuals have a right of access to the information held about them
-personal information may be kept for no longer than is necessary and must be kept up-to-date
-personal information may not be transmitted outside the European Union unless consent has been given
-all entities (e.g. a GP surgery) that process personal information must register with the Information Commissioner’s Office
-adequate security measures must be in place. Those include technical measures (e.g. passwords, firewalls) and organisational measures (e.g. staff training)
-subjects (i.e. patients) have the right to have factually incorrect information about them corrected

The original Data Protection Act was in 1998. The following key additions were made in the 2018 document:

the right to erasure
inclusions of exemptions of the Data Protection Act
being regulated in tandem with the GDPR
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4
Q

Give 3 examples whereby removal of a patient from the practice list is justified?

A

Examples of situations that may justify removal:

unacceptable behaviour: for example violence, sexual harassment, stalking, racial abuse
crime and deception: for example fraudulently obtaining drugs, stealing from the practice
distance: a patient moves outside the catchment area. Please note from January 2015 practices are now able to register patients outside of their catchment areas. This is however voluntary and practices are able to decline to register patients if they feel the distance is impractical
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5
Q

what is advised if there is an irretrievable breakdown of the doctor-patient relationship? How should patients be removed from a practice list?

A

Further guidance is given on exceptional situations where there is an ‘irretrievable breakdown’ in the doctor-patient relationship. It is important that a formal process is agreed to try and rectify this problem rather than unilaterally declaring an irretrievable breakdown without giving any reasons to the patient.

Removing a patient from the practice list involves the following steps:

give warning to the patient
inform the clinical commissioning group in writing
write to the patient

The patient’s family should not be automatically removed although in practice this may be necessary.

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6
Q

HOw can a ‘frequent flyer’ patient be managed?

A

This question looks at the management of a ‘frequent-flyer’.

From the scenario it appears that the patient has developed an element of doctor dependence. The best option is to be honest with the patient about your observations and suggest a way of resolving the issue. One of the best approaches to this problem is to arrange regular appointments, the time between which can be gradually increased.

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7
Q

When is universal credit recieved and give 4 requirements of recieving

A

t is usually received monthly (or twice a month in Scotland). You can no longer apply for the old benefits system and people on the old system are slowly being moved over to universal credit. People can apply for universal credit online.

The requirements to receive this are that the person and their partner

Live in the UK
Are aged 18 or over and earn a low income or are out of work
Have less than £16,000 collectively in savings
Are below the age of receiving the state pension.
In rare cases 16 and 17-year-olds can claim universal credit if, for example, they are a carer, are estranged from their parents, have a child or are unable to work.
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8
Q

How is universal credit calculated? who gets extra payments?

A

Universal credit is composed of a standard allowance, plus extra payments depending on circumstances. There is a benefit cap which limits the total amount one can receive:

The monthly standard allowance is determined by age and relationship status: single vs a couple
Extra payments are awarded for up to 2 children, either having a disability or caring for a severely disabled person and to help with housing costs. 

The universal credit payment reduces as people earn money. People have work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased. This allowance is higher for people responsible for children/young people, people with disability limiting work. It is lower if people have help with housing costs.

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9
Q

Give 5 issues that make universal credit controversial

A

1) People have to wait 5 weeks to receive their first payment, and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month.
2) Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by universal credit.
3) Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system
4) The old benefits paid benefits for each child per year, however universal credit will only pay for the first 2 children for children born after April 2017.
5) Private tenants find it harder to rent.

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10
Q

What is PIP?

A

Personal Independence Payment: for patients under the age of 65 years
Attendance Allowance: for patients over aged 65 years and over

This replaced the Disability Living Allowance (DLA) for adults in 2013. It is a tax-free benefit for adults aged 16-64 years who need help with personal care or have walking difficulties because they are physically or mentally disabled. For children there is still the ‘DLA for children’

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11
Q

Statutpry sick pay - who is this given to? what is the maximum this can be paid for?

A

For employees unable to work due to illness. Unable to work for > 4 days in a row. Paid up to a maximum of 28 weeks

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12
Q

What is Incapacity Benefit & Employment and Support Allowance

A

Employment and Support Allowance replaced Incapacity Benefit for new claimants from October 2008. Claimable by those not entitled to Statutory Sick Pay (SSP), for example self-employed, or when SSP has ended

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13
Q

Retirement pension - when is this paid?

A

State pension may be claimed from 60 years for women* and 65 years for men. State pensions are taxable and paid even if the claimant is still working

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14
Q

What is bereavement support payment? How long is this paid for?

A

Replaced ‘Bereavement payment’ and ‘Bereavement allowance’
Lump sum followed by 18 monthly payments
Spouse must be under state pension age when their partner died
Depends on national insurance contributions
Must claim within 3 months of your partner’s death to get the full amount.
You can claim up to 21 months after their death but you’ll get fewer monthly payments.

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15
Q

Who gets a funeral payment?

A

One-off payment to the partner or parent of the deceased if they are on benefits to help pay for a funeral

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16
Q

Widowed parent’s payment:
-what is this?
-Who is eligible?

A

Payable to a parent whose husband or wife has died.

Eligibility

surviving partner is bringing up a child < 19 years of age and receiving child benefit
deceased partner had made adequate national insurance contributions
also if the woman was expecting her late husband's baby
divorcees and those who remarry are not eligible to claim
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17
Q

what is attendance allowance?

A

Attendance Allowance (AA) is a tax-free allowance for people aged 65 or over when they claim who need help with their personal care. To claim AA patients should normally have needed help with care for 6 months. Like DLA it is not means tested.

Personal Independence Payment: for patients under the age of 65 years
Attendance Allowance: for patients over aged 65 years and over
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18
Q

How can patients who have a terminal illness apply for benefits? can this be fast tracked?

A

Patients who have a terminal illness (where there is an expectation that the patient will not live for more than 12 months) are eligible to be fast-tracked through the system for claiming Personal Independence Payment (PIP), Universal Credit (UC), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. The SR1 (‘Special Rules’) form is a medical report form that is used to provide evidence of a terminal illness for people who are applying for benefits under the Special Rules. It replaced the previous DS1500 form. The Special Rules are a set of criteria that allow people with a terminal illness to claim benefits sooner than they would otherwise be able to.

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19
Q

Who completes the SR1 form? and give the time frames

A

The SR1 form must be completed by a healthcare professional who is registered with the General Medical Council (GMC) or the Nursing and Midwifery Council (NMC). The form asks for information about the patient’s diagnosis, prognosis, and clinical features. It also asks for information about the treatment that the patient has received, is receiving, or is planned to receive.

The following are the time frames for completing and submitting the SR1 form:

The form must be completed within 28 days of the date that the healthcare professional first believes that the patient meets the criteria for the Special Rules.
The form must be sent to the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) within 28 days of being completed.
If the healthcare professional is unable to complete the form within 28 days, they must provide a written explanation to the DWP.

The DWP will use the information on the SR1 form to decide whether the patient meets the criteria for the Special Rules. If the patient is found to meet the criteria, they will be able to claim benefits sooner than they would otherwise be able to.

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20
Q

What is carer’s credit?

A

Carer’s credit provides credits to help fill gaps in the national insurance record of the carer, that they may have lost due to caring for their loved one. This therefore will not affect their ability to claim the state pension later in life.

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21
Q

Who is eligible for the carers credit?

A

Eligibility for the carer’s credit:

Aged 16 or over
Under State Pension age
Looking after one or more people for at least 20 hours a week

The person you are looking after must get one of the following:

Disability Living Allowance care component at the middle or highest rate
Attendance Allowance
Constant Attendance Allowance
Personal Independence Payment - daily living component, at the standard or enhanced rate
Armed Forces Independence Payment
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22
Q

Who is eligible for child tax credits?

A

Child tax credits are a method of helping families with the cost of bringing up children.

The following guidelines are from the UK Government website.

Eligibility depends on:

The child's age
If you're responsible for the child

The child’s age - To qualify the child must be:

Under 16 - you can claim up until the 31st August after their 16th birthday
Under 20 - if they're in approved education or training

Responsibility for a child - You’re usually responsible for a child if:

They live with you all the time
They normally live with you and you're the main carer
They keep their toys and clothes at your home
You pay for their meals and give them pocket money
They live in an EEA country or Switzerland but are financially dependent on you
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23
Q

How many children can a foster family look after? do the children require a medical check?

A

Key points

limit of 3 foster children per family (Schedule 7 of the Children Act 1989)
all children in long-term foster care require a 6-monthly medical examination
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24
Q

How long can a statement of fitness to work be issued for?

A

he Statement of Fitness for Work replaces the Med3 and Med5 in one form
the Med4, Med6 and RM 7 forms have been withdrawn due to the replacement of Incapacity Benefit with the Employment and Support Allowance
telephone consultations are now an acceptable form of assessment
there is no longer a box to say a patient is fit for work. There is however an option to state if you need to assess your patient’s fitness for work again at the end of the statement period
there is increased space for comments on the functional effects of the condition, including tick boxes for simple things that may help a patient back to work
during the first 6 months of an illness the new statement can be issued for no longer than 3 months.. After this time it may be issued for an indefinite period

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25
Q

Statement of fitness to work:
-who issues?
-when can you issue?

A

Things that stay the same

can only be completed by a doctor
you can still advise a patient that they are not fit for work (of any type)
the advice on the statement is not binding on employers

The statement may be issued:

on the day that you assessed the patient
on a date after you assessed your patient if you consider that it would have been reasonable to issue a statement on the day of the assessment
after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered health care professional
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26
Q

What are the 4 boxes on a statement of fitness to work?

A

There are 4 ‘tick boxes’ included on the form which represent common approaches to aid a return to work. One or more may be ticked. Other approaches can be suggested in the comments box. The options are:

a phased return to work
altered hours
amended duties
workplace adaptations
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27
Q

How long may patients self certify for an illness?

A

Patients may self-certify for the first 7 calendar days:

Form Details

SC1 Self-certification, for patients not eligible to claim statutory sick pay (e.g. Unemployed or self-employed). For the first 7 calendar days of an illness

SC2 The ‘standard’ self-certification form, for patients eligible to claim statutory sick pay. For the first 7 calendar days of an illness

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28
Q

Evidence based recovery time for:
Abdominal/groin hernia

A

Laparoscopic
1 - 2 weeks

Open
2 - 3 weeks

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29
Q

Evidence based recovery time for:
Appendicectomy

A

Laparoscopic
1 - 2 weeks

Open
2 - 3 weeks

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30
Q

Evidence based recovery time for:
Cholecystectomy

A

Laparoscopic
2-3 weeks

Open
3-5 weeks

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31
Q

Evidence based recovery time for:
hysterectomy

A

Laparoscopic
3 weeks

Open
7 weeks

32
Q

fitness to fly:
-unstable angina, uncontrolled hypertension, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia, decompensated heart failure, severe symptomatic valvular disease
-uncomplicated myocardial infarction
-complicated myocardial infarction
-coronary artery bypass graft
–percutaneous coronary intervention
-Stroke

A

Cardiovascular disease

-unstable angina, uncontrolled hypertension, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia, decompensated heart failure, severe symptomatic valvular disease: should not fly

-uncomplicated myocardial infarction: may fly after 7-10 days

-complicated myocardial infarction: after 4-6 weeks

-coronary artery bypass graft: after 10-14 days

-percutaneous coronary intervention: after 3 days

-stroke: patients are advised to wait 10 days following an event, although if stable may be carried within 3 days of the event

33
Q

Fitness to fly:
-Pneumonia
-Pneumothorax

A

Respiratory disease
-pneumonia: should be ‘clinically improved with no residual infection’

-pneumothorax: absolute contraindication, the CAA suggest patients may travel 2 weeks after successful drainage if there is no residual air. The British Thoracic Society used to recommend not travelling by air for a period of 6 weeks but this has now been changed to 1 week post check x-ray

34
Q

Fitness to fly:
pregnancy

A

Pregnancy

most airlines do not allow travel after 36 weeks for a single pregnancy and after 32 weeks for a multiple pregnancy
most airlines require a certificate after 28 weeks confirming that the pregnancy is progressing normally
35
Q

Fitness to fly surgery:
-Abdominal surgery
-Laparoscopic surgery
-Colonoscopy
-Application of plaster case

A

Surgery

-travel should be avoided for 10 days following abdominal surgery
-laparoscopic surgery: after 24 hours
-colonoscopy: after 24 hours
-following the application of a plaster cast, the majority of airlines restrict flying for 24 hours on flights of less than 2 hours or 48 hours for longer flights

36
Q

What Hb level is recommended for flying?

A

Haematological disorders

patients with a haemoglobin of greater than 8 g/dl may travel without problems (assuming there is no coexisting condition such as cardiovascular or respiratory disease)
37
Q

DVLA: fitness to drive
-ALcohol misurse
-Alcohol dependency
-Cannibis/amphetamines/ecstacy/LSD
-Heroin/cocaine/methadone

A

Alcohol misuse*
‘persistent alcohol misuse, confirmed by medical enquiry and/or by evidence of otherwise unexplained abnormal blood markers, requires licence revocation or refusal until a minimum 6 month period of controlled drinking or abstinence has been attained, with normalisation of blood parameters’

Alcohol dependency
as above but 1 year

Cannabis, amphetamines, ecstasy, LSD
‘persistent use of or dependency on these substances, confirmed by medical enquiry, will lead to licence refusal or revocation for a minimum 6 month period free of such use has been attained. Independent medical assessment and urine screen arranged by DVLA, may be required’

Heroin, cocaine, methadone
as above but 1 year, also consultant report may be required on reapplication

38
Q

DVLA rules for psychiatric disorders:
-Severe anxiety/depression
-Acute psychotic disorder
-Hypomania/mania
-Schizophrenia
-Pervasive developmental disorders and ADHD
-Mild cognitive impairment
-Dementia
-Mild learning disability
-Severe learning disability
-Personality disorder

A

Severe anxiety or depression with any of the following: significant memory problems, significant concentration problems, agitation, behavioural disturbance or suicidal thoughts: must not drive and must notify the DVLA

Acute psychotic disorder: must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA

Hypomania or mania: must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA

Schizophrenia: must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA.must be stable for 3 months prior to restarting

Pervasive developmental disorders and ADHD: may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA

Mild cognitive impairment: may drive and need not inform the DVLA

Dementia: may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA

Mild learning disability: may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA

Severe disability: must not drive and must notify the DVLA

Personality disorders: may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA

39
Q

DVLA visual disorders
-Visual field defects
-Monocular vision
-BLepharospasm

A

Visual field defects

driving must cease unless confirmed able to meet recommended national guidelines for visual field

Monocular vision

must notify DVLA
may drive if acuity and visual field is normal in the remaining eye

Blepharospasm

consultant opinion is required
40
Q

Can old age be listed on a death certificate? what happens after death certification is issued?

A

‘old age’ as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years of age . It can be used if certain conditions are met but is discouraged

The family then take the MCCD to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death.(within 5 days in enland/wales/NI or 8days in scotland) If the Registrar decides that the death does not need reporting to the Coroner he/she will issue:

certificate for Burial or Cremation
certificate of Registration of Death (for Social Security purposes)
if requested. Copies of the Death Register (banks and insurance companies expect to see them)
41
Q

Give 12 circumstances whereby a death should be reported to the coroner?

A

The following deaths should be reported to the coroner

-unexpected or sudden deaths
-when the doctor attending the deceased did not see them within 28 days before death (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic)
-if a death occurs within 24 hours of hospital admission
-accidents and injuries
-suicide
-industrial injury or disease (e.g. asbestosis)
-deaths occurring as a result of ill treatment, starvation or neglect
-the death occurred during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic
-poisoning, including taking illicit drugs
-stillbirths - if there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive
-prisoner or people in police custody
-service disability pensioners

42
Q

What is an inquest?

A

n inquest is a public enquiry into a death, held at Coroner’s Court. You may be required to attend an inquest at some point during your career to give evidence about your involvement in the care of a patient who died. It is a legal proceeding but not a criminal one - it cannot apportion blame or responsibility to a person or body; its purpose is to determine who, where, when and how. However, like a criminal proceeding, you may be questioned by a lawyer representing the patient, there may be a jury, and the press may be present.

43
Q

Describe how much emergency medication can be provided by pharmacy>?

A

The Human Medicines Regulation 2012 provides guidance on emergency supply of medication. The BNF quotes ‘that no greater quantity shall be supplied than will provide 5 days’ treatment of phenobarbital, phenobarbital sodium, or Controlled Drugs in Schedules 4 or 5,(1) or 30 days’ treatment for other prescription-only medicines, except when the prescription-only medicine is:

  1. insulin, an ointment or cream, or a preparation for the relief of asthma in an aerosol dispenser when the smallest pack can be supplied;
  2. an oral contraceptive when a full cycle may be supplied;
  3. an antibiotic in liquid form for oral administration when the smallest quantity that will provide a full course of treatment can be supplied’
44
Q

what is the blacklist of drugs?

A

Theoretically any food, drug, toiletry or cosmetic may be prescribed on an NHS prescription unless the product is listed in Part XVIIIA of the Drug Tariff (‘the blacklist’).

Medical devices (appliances) can only be prescribed on NHS prescriptions if the product is listed in Part IX of the Drug Tariff.

If a proprietary product is listed in ‘the blacklist’, it cannot be dispensed on the NHS. The only exception to this is if the prescription is issued using a generic name and the generic name is not itself included in the blacklist.

Some examples of ‘blacklisted’ products:

Propecia (finasteride for male-pattern alopecia)
Regaine (topical minoxidil for male-pattern alopecia)
Calpol (see above, paracetamol suspension may be prescribed)
45
Q

What is the selected list of drugs?

A

Part XVIIIB of the Drug Tariff lists items that may only be prescribed for the patient groups and for the purpose listed in the Drug Tariff. Prescribers must endorse prescriptions for these products ‘SLS’. Please note that sildenafil was taken off the list in 2014 and can now be prescribed freely.

For example:

Niferex Elixir 30ml Paediatric Dropper Bottle - infants born prematurely - prophylaxis in treatment of iron deficiency
46
Q

How is it appropriate to store controlled drugs?

A

In the surgery controlled drugs (CDs) should be stored in a locked cabinet.

Controlled drugs outside of the surgery must be stored in a locked receptacle (combination lock or key). A doctor’s bag with a lock is acceptable. It should be noted that storing a controlled drug in a locked car boot is not acceptable.

46
Q

Which controlled drugs are on which schedule 1-5

A

Schedule 1 ONE love bob Marley and his spliff: Cannabis
Schedule 2 TWO pupils pin-point/ dilated: Strong Opioids and Cocaine
Schedule 3 THREE Bees in a bonnet: Buprenorphine, Benzos (Midaz + Temaz), Barbituates PLUS GaBapentin and PregaBalin
Schedule 4 FOUR poster bed for sleep and muscle rest: all other Benzos, Z-drugs (Zopiclone, Zolpidem), Anabolic steroids
Schedule 5 high FIVE (drugs that make you feel high): Oramorph, Codeine

47
Q

Who is entitled to free prescriptions in england?

A

Who is entitled to free prescriptions?

children (< 16 years old)
aged 16, 17 or 18 and in full-time education
elderly (aged 60 or over)
if the patient or their partner receives: income support or jobseeker's allowance
if the patient has a prescription exemption certificate

In England, there is no prescription charge applied to contraceptives, STI treatments, hospital prescriptions, and medications a GP administers.

47
Q

A register must be kept for schedule 2 drugs:
-what information is necessary?
-How is this kept?
-How long is this kept for?
-what about for doctor’s bags

A

A register must be kept for the supply of Schedule 2 drugs.

Specific requirements of the register:

must be bound rather than loose leaved. Computerised records are acceptable as long as they are secure and auditable
each drug should have its own individual section
entries should be chronological and made in indelible ink
the following information should be recorded when receiving CDs: date, name and address of the supplier, quantity received, name, form and strength
the following information should be recorded when supplying CDs (either to patients or practitioners): date, name and address of the person receiving the CD, person who prescribed or ordered the CD, quantity supplied, name, form and strength
must be kept for a minimum of 2 years after the date of the last entry

For doctor’s bags a separate CD register should be kept for the CD stock held within that bag. The individual doctor is responsible for the receipt and supply of CDs from their own bag.

48
Q

Who gets a prescription exemption certificate in england?

A

FP92A
Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year are entitled to free prescriptions after the issuing of a prescription exemption certificate. Patients who have the following chronic medical conditions are also entitled:

hypoparathyroidism
hypoadrenalism for which specific substitution therapy is essential (e.g. Addison's Disease)
diabetes insipidus and other forms of hypopituitarism
diabetes mellitus except where treatment is by diet alone
myasthenia gravis
hypothyroidism requiring thyroid hormone replacement
epilepsy requiring continuous anti-convulsive therapy
a permanent fistula requiring continuous surgical dressing or requiring an appliance
undergoing treatment for cancer. This includes treatment for the effects of cancer or for the effects of cancer treatments
48
Q

Who should doctors notify of patients who have problems with drug misuse

A

Doctors should inform their regional or national drug misuse centre of patients who have problems with drug misuse including opioid, benzodiazepines and CNS stimulants. Contact details may be found in the BNF. The National Drug Treatment Monitoring System (NDTMS) collects data which allows the planning of drug services and allows the evaluation of the efficiency and effectiveness of drug treatment provision.

Consent needs to be obtained prior to sending patient data to the NDTMS.

49
Q

Who gets a pre-payment prescription in england?

A

Pre-payment certificates (PPC) are for patients not entitled to free prescriptions but who receive frequent prescriptions. They are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year

50
Q

How many:
-learning credits
-MSF
-patient questionnaires
-QI projects
are required per revalidations

A

description of your work
description of any special circumstances (e.g. Prolonged illness)
details of previous appraisals
current personal development plan
review of previous personal development plans
evidence of continuing professional development - at least 50 ‘learning credits’ are required per year
significant event audits
review of any formal complaints
probity/health statements
multi-source/colleague feedback: this is required once every revalidation cycle
patient questionnaire surveys: this is required once every revalidation cycle
clinical audit/quality improvement project: this is required once every revalidation cycle

51
Q

What is a learning credit?

A

Learning credits

minimum of 1 credit for each hour of education
however, if the hour of education can be shown to lead to improvements in patient care then it will count as 2 credits
52
Q

What 3 things will the responsible officer need before recommending you for revalidation?

A

The Responsible Officer will need to be confident of the following 3 things before recommending you for revalidation

you have participated in an annual appraisal process
you have submitted appropriate supporting information to your appraisals
there are no unresolved issues regarding your fitness to practice
53
Q

What are the 4 key domains of GMC good medical practice?

A

The content of appraisal is based on the 4 key domains set out in the GMC’s Good Medical Practice document:

  1. Knowledge, skills and performanceincludes developing and maintaining professional performance
    includes keeping accurate patient records
  2. Contributing and complying with systems to protect patientsincludes acting on risks posed by your own health problems
  3. Communication, partnership and teamworkincludes the teaching and training of other doctors
  4. Maintaining trusttreating patients and colleagues with respect and without discrimination
    acting with honesty and integrity
54
Q

Describe what the PMS contract is

A

Personal Medical Services (PMS) contract is a Local contract which reflects local patient needs. The PMS contract was introduced in 1998 as an alternative to the General Medical Services (GMS) contract. It allows local flexibility in the delivery of primary care services and can be tailored to meet the specific needs of local populations, thus reflecting local patient needs. This flexibility includes aspects such as opening hours, range of services provided, and the nature of payments.

The original aims of PMS were:

to give greater freedom for GP's to address patients needs
to encourage flexible and innovative ways of working
to tackle under doctored areas

The contract consists of core and additional services (similar to the GMS) contract but the additional services may include things such as community endoscopy.

Specialist PMS contracts (SPMS) may be tailored to the needs of particular communities (e.g. Refugees).

55
Q

GMS/PMS/APMS contracts:
-who can provide services?

A

GMS
GP / qualifying health professional or company 100% owned by qualifying persons

PMS
GP / qualifying health professional or company 100% owned by qualifying persons

APMS
No restriction of providers

56
Q

GMS/PMS/APMS
-how is the contract negotiated?

A

GMS
Nationally negotiated

PMS
Locally negotiated with mandatory terms

APMS
Locally negotiated with mandatory terms

57
Q

GMS/PMS/APMS:
-What is the scope of the contract?

A

GMS
Essential services (e.g. day-to-day care) with optional additional services (e.g. Minor surgery) and enhanced services

PMS
Core and additional services (similar to GMS)

APMS
Depends on individual contract

58
Q

GMS/PMS/APMS
-What is the length of the contract?

A

GMS
Open-ended which cannot be terminated unless fault proven

PMS
Usually for five years, contract may be terminated

APMS
Usually for three years, contract may be terminated

59
Q

GMS/PMS/APMS
-How is paymeny negotiated according to?

A

GMS
Global sum with Minimum Practice Income Guarantee (MPIG), QOF, enhanced services, premises, IT

PMS
Baseline set nationally, QOF

APMS
Locally negotiated

60
Q

GMS/PMS/APMS
-What are most practices?
-GPs tend to earn more under which contract?

A

The majority of practices are GMS

GPs in PMS tend to have higher incomes

61
Q

What should you do if a patient has evidence of domestic violence but does not wish for police involvement/.

A

give details for domestic violence support groups

62
Q

Under which age can a child not consent to sexual intercourse?

A

Children under the age of 13 years are not able to consent to sexual intercourse and hence any sexual activity would be regarded as rape under the law. This is one situation under the GMC guidelines where you are compelled to break confidentiality

63
Q

Consent in children:
-At what age is capacity presumed?

A

The General Medical Council have produced guidelines on obtaining consent in children:

at 16 years or older a young person can be treated as an adult and can be presumed to have capacity to decide
under the age of 16 years children may have capacity to decide, depending on their ability to understand what is involved
where a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorise investigation or treatment which is in the child's best interests
64
Q

What 5 points make up fraser guidance to prescribe contraception?

A

With regards to the provision of contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age the Fraser Guidelines state that all the following requirements should be fulfilled:

-the young person understands the professional’s advice
-the young person cannot be persuaded to inform their parents
-the young person is likely to begin, or to continue having, sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment
-unless the young person receives contraceptive treatment, their physical or mental health, or both, are likely to suffer
-the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent

65
Q

Describe the calgary-cambridge observation guide - kurtz and silverman consultation model

A

initiating the session
gathering information
building the relationship
giving information, explaining and planning
closing the session

66
Q

Describe the stewart - patient-centred clinical methos consultation model

A

exploring both the disease and the illness experience
understanding the whole person
finding common ground
incorporating prevention and health promotion
enhancing the doctor-patient relationship
being realistic (with time and resources)

67
Q

Describe the Pendleton - The Consultation: an Approach to Learning and Teaching - 1984, 2003 consultation model

A

define the reason for the patient’s attendance (ideas, concerns and expectations)
consider other problems
with the patient, choose an appropriate action for each problem
achieve a shared understanding of the problems with the patient
involve the patient in the management and encourage him/her to accept appropriate responsibility
use time and resources appropriately
establish or maintain a relationship with the patient which helps to achieve the other tasks

68
Q

Local medical committees:
what are these?
What do they do?
How are they funded?

A

Local Medical Committees (LMCs) represent the interests of GPs on a local level. They were established as part of Lloyd George’s National Insurance Act in 1911 to try and ensure that GPs had a say in the running of the government’s health insurance scheme. At the same time a committee was established within the British Medical Association (BMA) to represent GPs on a national level to the government. This was initially known as the Insurance Acts Committee but is now called the General Practitioners Committee (GPC) and has authority to negotiate with the government on matters such as pay and contracts. It is recognised by the Department of Health as the GP’s sole negotiating body.

The GPC meets annually with the representatives of the LMCs, who may submit motions for the conference. This motions may then go on to form GPC policy.

LMCs are funded by a statutory levy on GPs. Each LMC may cover the area which corresponds to one or more Clinical Commissioning Groups. LMC members are elected and include partners, salaried doctors and GP Registrars from both GMS and PMS practices .

68
Q

Describe the Fraser -areas of competence consultation model

A

interviewing and history-taking
physical examination
diagnosis and problem-solving
patient management
relating to patients
anticipatory care
record keeping

69
Q

Blindness:
-How is this defined?
-Is registration voluntary?
-Who makes an application to social services?

A

Blindness is generally defined as vision < 3/60 in the better eye. Registration is voluntary in England. Patients who are deemed blind are eligible for additional benefits (for example disabled parking badge, reduced television license fee, talking books). A consultant ophthalmologist is needed to make an application to social services

69
Q

Describe the neighbour - the inner consultation consultation model

A

connecting
summarising
handing over
safety netting
housekeeping

70
Q

Describe the tuckett - meeting of two experts consultation model

A

the consultation is a meeting between two experts
doctors are experts in medicine
patients are experts in their own illnesses
shared understanding is the aim
doctors should seek to understand the patient’s beliefs
doctors should address explanations in terms of the patient’s belief system

71
Q

Describe the Stott and Davis - Exceptional potential of the consultation consultation model

A

management of presenting problems
management of continuing problems
modification of help-seeking behaviour
opportunistic health promotio

72
Q

What is the rule on patient gifts?

A

The NHS General Medical Services Contracts Regulations 2004 require GPs to keep a register of gifts from patients or their relatives that have a value of £100 or more. The register must include the name of the patient donating the gift, the NHS number or address of the patient, the nature of the gift, the estimated value of the gift and the name of person who received gift. GPs must also make the register available to NHS England on request. A gift does not have to be placed on the register if the GP (the Contractor) believes there are reasonable grounds for believing that the gift is unconnected with services provided or to be provided by the Contractor or the Contractor is not aware of the gift.