Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 3a Medicine🩺 > Pharmacology💊 > Flashcards

Pharmacology💊 Flashcards

1
Q

What can you offer as heroin substitutes?

A

Methadone or buprenorphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is an important blood test to monitor in amiodarone use?

A

Thyroid function tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the symptoms of tricyclic overdose and what drugs can you use to manage this?

A

Early features relate to anticholinergic properties: dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision.

Features of severe poisoning include:
arrhythmias
seizures
metabolic acidosis
coma

ECG changes include:
sinus tachycardia
widening of QRS
prolongation of QT interval

Drugs management is IV sodium bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Tamoxifen?

A

Tamoxifen is a Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) which acts as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Lithium toxicity precipitated by?

A

dehydration
renal failure
drugs: diuretics (especially thiazides), ACE inhibitors/angiotensin II receptor blockers, NSAIDs and metronidazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What ECG changes do macrolides cause?

A

Prolongation of the QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Common side effect of doxycycline?

A

Photosensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose?

A

Flumazenil
The majority of overdoses are managed with supportive care only due to the risk of seizures with flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the treatment of Lithium overdose?

A

mild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline
haemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicity
sodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the treatment of Warfarin overdose?

A

Vitamin K, prothrombin complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When should you start acetylcysteine immediately in paracetamol overdose?

A

There is uncertainty about the time of overdose, but it is potentially toxic
The overdose was staggered over a time period longer than an hour
The plasma-paracetamol level is over the treatment line on the treatment graph
The overdose was taken 8-36 hours before presenting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the ECG change seen in a tricyclic overdose?

A

QRS widening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drugs should you avoid in renal failure?

A

antibiotics: tetracycline, nitrofurantoin
NSAIDs
lithium
metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When do you give activated charcoal?

A

If presenting within 1 hour of poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When do you start N-Acetylcysteine in paracetamol dose without levels?

A

If presentation 8-24 hours after ingestion of an overdose of more than 150 mg/kg start acetylcysteine even if the plasma-paracetamol concentration is not yet available
- Also if there is a staggered overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do you use to monitor unfractionated heparin?

A

APTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some common side effects of calcium channel blockers?

A

Headache, flushing, ankle oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give some examples of P450 inducers?

A

antiepileptics: phenytoin, carbamazepine
barbiturates: phenobarbitone
rifampicin
St John’s Wort
chronic alcohol intake
griseofulvin
smoking (affects CYP1A2, reason why smokers require more aminophylline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give some examples of P450 inhibitors?

A

antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, erythromycin
isoniazid
cimetidine,omeprazole
amiodarone
allopurinol
imidazoles: ketoconazole, fluconazole
SSRIs: fluoxetine, sertraline
ritonavir
sodium valproate
acute alcohol intake
quinupristin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the monitoring for statins?

A

LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the monitoring for ACE inhibitors?

A

U&E prior to treatment
after increasing dose and at least annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the monitoring for Amiodarone?

A

TFT, LFT, U&E, CXR prior to treatment
TFT, LFT every 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the monitoring for Azathioprine?

A

FBC, LFT before treatment
FBC weekly for the first 4 weeks
FBC, LFT every 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the monitoring for Lithium?

A

TFT, U&E prior to treatment
Lithium levels weekly until stabilised then every 3 months
TFT, U&E every 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the monitoring for sodium valproate?

A

LFT, FBC before treatment
LFT ‘periodically’ during first 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the first line drug in the management of cocaine toxicity?

A

Benzodiazepines are first line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the dosage of breakthrough opioid analgesia?

A

1/6th of the total daily opioid dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some drug causes of hypomagnesaemia?

A

Diuretics, and PPI

25
Q

What is the effect of ACEi on a developing fetus?

A

Renal dysgenesis, craniofacial abnormalities

26
Q

What is the effect of carbamazepine of a developing fetus?

A

Neural tube defects, craniofacial abnormalities

27
Q

What is the effect of cocaine of a developing fetus?

A

Intrauterine growth retardation, preterm labour

28
Q

Which antiemetic functions through inhibition of the neurokinin receptor?

A

Aprepitant

29
Q

How does ondansetron work?

A

It is a 5HT3 antagonist

30
Q

How does Domperidone work?

A

It is a antidopaminergic agent

31
Q

What change can clarithromycin cause on ECG?

A

QT interval prolongation and therefore can trigger torsades de pointes

32
Q

What drugs should not be used in G6PD deficiency and what can these trigger?

A

sulph- drugs: sulphonamides, sulphasalazine and sulfonylureas can trigger haemolysis

33
Q

What diabetic medication has been linked to Fournier’s gangrene?

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors

34
Q

What is the antidote for Dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab

35
Q

What are side effects for topical corticosteroids?

A
  • Acne - may occur due to sebaceous gland susceptible to inflammation and infection
  • Striae - impact on dermal connective tissue
  • Telangiectasia
  • Thinning of the skin - due to reduced collagen synthesis
36
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ergometrine?

A

It stimulates alpha-adrenergic, dopaminergic and serotonergic receptors

37
Q

What can acamprosate be used for in problematic alcohol use?

A

It reduces cravings, known to be a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors

38
Q

What are the common drug interactions of Allopurinol?

A

Azathioprine, cyclophosphamine, Theophylline

39
Q

What are some side effects of Verapami?

A

Heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, flushing

40
Q

What should you be aware of with Verapamil and Beta blockers?

A

Do not use together as this may cause heart block

41
Q

What type of drug is Digoxin?

A

Cardiac Glycoside used for rate control

42
Q

What are the features of Digoxin toxicity?

A
  • Generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion
  • Yellow-Green vision
  • Arrhythmias (e.g. AV block, bradycardia)
  • Gynaecomastia
43
Q

What drugs cause drug induced- thrombocytopaenia?

A
  • Quinine
  • Abciximab
  • NSAIDs
  • Diuretics: furosemide
  • Antibiotics: Penicillins, Sulphonamides, rifampicin
  • Anticonvulsants: Carbamazepine, Sodium Valproate
  • Heparin
44
Q

What drugs might cause urinary retention?

A
  • tricyclic antidepressants
  • Anticholinergics e.g. antipsychotics, antihistamines
  • Opioids
  • NSAIDs
  • Disopyramide
45
Q

What drugs might cause lung fibrosis?

A
  • Amiodarone
  • Cytotoxic agents: busulphan, bleomycin
  • Anti-rheumatoid drugs: methotrexate, sulfasalazine
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline, pergolide)
46
Q

What antibiotics are macrolides?

A

Erythromycin, Clarithromycin, Azithromycin

47
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metformin?

A

Acts by activation of the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)
- Increased insulin sensitivity
-Decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis

48
Q

What are some adverse effects of Metformin?

A

Gastro upset is common
Reduced B12 absorption (rarely a clinical problem)
Lactic acidosis with severe liver disease or renal failure

49
Q

When are PDE5 inhibitors contraindicated?

A
  • patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil.
  • Hypotension
  • Recent stroke or MI
50
Q

What drugs should be avoided in renal failure?

A

Antibiotics (tetracycline and nitrofurantoin), NSAIDs, Lithium, Metformin

51
Q

What are examples of quinolones?

A

Ciprofloxacin
Levofloxacin

52
Q

What are some common side effects of ACEi?

A

Cough, hyperkalaemia

53
Q

What are some common side effects of Bendroflumethiazide?

A

Gout
Hypokalaemia
Hyponatraemia
Impaired glucose tolerance

54
Q

What are some common side effects of beta blockers?

A

Bronchospasms (especially in asthmatics)
Fatigue
Cold peripheries

55
Q

What are common side effects of co-amoxiclav

A

Cholestasis

56
Q

What are some common side effects of erythromycin?

A

Gastrointestinal upset, prolongs the QT interval

57
Q

What are some side effects of ciprofloxacin?

A

Lowers seizure threshold
Tendonitis

58
Q

What are some common side effects of Sulfonylureas?

A
  • Hypoglycaemic episodes
  • Increased appetite and weight gain
  • SiADH
  • Liver dysfunction (cholestatic)
59
Q

What are some common side effects of Glitazones?

A
  • Weight gain
  • Fluid retention
  • Liver dysfunction
  • Fractures
60
Q

What are some common side effects of gliptins?

A

Pancreatitis

61
Q

What type of drug is Tamoxifen?

A

A selective Oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) Acts as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonists

62
Q

What are some side effects of rifampicin?

A

Hepatitis, Orange/red coloured secretions
Flu-like symptoms

63
Q

What are some side effects of isoniazid?

A

Hepatitis, agranulocytosis

64
Q

What are some side effects of pyrazinamide?

A

It causes arthralgia, myalgia and hepatitis

65
Q

What factors can impair lithium clearance?

A
  • Drugs: e.g. NSAIDs, ACEi, SSRIs, Thiazide diuretics, topiramate
  • Dehydration
  • Hyponatraemia
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Renal impairment (acute or chronic)

Phase 3a Medicine🩺 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions