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E&E Exam 1 > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four H2 receptor antagonist drugs?

A

(Ranitidine, famotidine, cimetidine, and nizatidine)

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2
Q

What is the mechanism of action of H2 receptor antagonist drugs (Reversible? Non-competitive? Location?)?

A

(Reversible, competitive inhibitors of H2 receptors on gastric parietal cells → reduces the amount of gastric acid present in gastric secretions)

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3
Q

When is intravenous administration of an H2 receptor antagonist indicated? Two answers.

A

(Vomiting patients or ruminant patients)

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4
Q

(T/F) Cimetidine is also used to treat melanomas in horse patients.

A

(T)

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5
Q

Although there is such a large cost difference between IV famotidine ($55/day) and IV ranitidine ($264/day), why might a practitioner choose to use ranitidine in a horse with ileus?

A

(Ranitidine is also a prokinetic)

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6
Q

Of the H2 receptor antagonists, which is the most potent?

A

(Famotidine)

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7
Q

Of the H2 receptor antagonists, which is the least potent?

A

(Cimetidine)

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8
Q

Why should you taper doses when taking an animal off of an H2 receptor antagonist?

A

(Rebound gastric hyperacidity)

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9
Q

What are the two proton pump inhibitor [PPI] drugs?

A

(Omeprazole and pantoprazole)

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors?

A

(Irreversibly inhibit active H+/K+ ATPase pumps)

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11
Q

Which of the PPIs can be administered to ruminants and by what route that makes it actually useful in those species?

A

(Pantoprazole can be administered to ruminants parenterally)

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12
Q

What two characteristics of the inactive form of PPIs allows for them to readily cross the parietal cell membrane to then be activated within the cell?

A

(Unionized and lipophilic)

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13
Q

Which of the PPIs takes longer to reach equilibrium within the cells?

A

(Omeprazole)

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14
Q

Should omeprazole be administered on an empty stomach or with a full meal?

A

(Empty stomach)

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15
Q

Effects of omeprazole are blunted in horses on what type of diet?

A

(All hay diets)

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16
Q

Do PPIs also need to be tapered for the same reason that you taper H2 receptor antagonists?

A

(Yes)

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17
Q

What adverse effect of PPIs increases an animal’s risk of non-ulcer GI complications when administered with NSAIDs?

A

(PPI alteration of small intestinal microbiome which play a protective role against adverse GI effects of NSAIDs)

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18
Q

How do PPIs increase bioavailability of themselves?

A

(PPIs are broken down by acids but they also block acid production, as they are continually used, block acid production and leads to less drug breakdown)

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19
Q

What is the mucosal protectant drug?

A

(Sucralfate)

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20
Q

Sucralfate is a complex of sucrose and aluminum hydroxide; in a pH of <4 (so in the stomach), what occurs to the sucrose and aluminum hydroxide?

A

(Sucrose dissociates allowing AlOH to bind to damaged GI epithelial cell membranes)

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21
Q

Sucralfate also stimulates local protective factors such as prostaglandins, what two effects do prostaglandins have on the GI tract?

A

(Increases mucosal blood flow and has negative feedback on acid production)

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22
Q

What four drugs can be affected by administration with sucralfate (by chelation, etc.) and it is suggested that you administer sucralfate at least 2 hours after the administration of these 4 drugs?

A

(Tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones, ranitidine, and omeprazole)

23
Q

What is the prostaglandin analogue drug?

A

(Misoprostol)

24
Q

The PG analogue’s main clinical use is in response to ulcers induced by what type of drug?

A

(NSAIDs)

25
Q

Does misoprostol adversely stimulate or decrease GI motility?

A

(Stimulates GI motility → diarrhea, colic)

26
Q

Misoprostol also has anti-inflammatory effects so it has been shown to be useful as an adjunct therapy in treatment of what skin disease in dogs?

A

(Atopic dermatitis)

27
Q

What is the main disadvantage to using antacids in animals?

A

(Requires large volumes dosed very frequently i.e. every two hours)

28
Q

Why should pepto not be administered concurrently with NSAIDs?

A

(Pepto contains an NSAID portion of its own, don’t want to double dose on NSAIDs)

29
Q

Which species cannot vomit?

A

(Horses)

30
Q

Which species rarely vomit?

A

(Cows and pigs)

31
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ropinirole?

A

(Dopamine agonist with affinity for D2 receptor which is the important one for emesis pathway)

32
Q

How is ropinirole administered?

A

(In solution as an eye drop)

33
Q

Is apomorphine an opioid?

A

(No, only a derivative of one)

34
Q

What class of drugs are used as emetics in cats?

A

(Alpha 2 agonists)

35
Q

What two drugs are thiazine derivatives?

A

(Acepromazine and chlorpromazine)

36
Q

Is chlorpromazine a dopamine agonist or antagonist?

A

(Antagonist)

37
Q

What other channels/receptors (besides antagonizing dopamine) do chlorpromazine antagonize?

A

(Antagonizes calcium channels and cholinergic receptors minimally)

38
Q

What three drugs are prokinetic agents (drugs that are used specifically as prokinetics, not drugs with prokinetic effects as ADEs)? x

A

(Metoclopramide, cisapride, and bethanechol)

39
Q

What two receptors do metoclopramide antagonize?

A

(Central dopaminergic and peripheral serotonin type 3 receptors)

40
Q

What receptor does metoclopramide agonize?

A

(Peripheral serotonin type 4 receptors)

41
Q

Metoclopramide readily crosses the BBB to antagonize dopamine in the CRTZ which gives it its antiemetic action but it may also cause extrapyramidal signs, list those signs. Four answers.

A

(Tardive dyskinesia, myoclonus, motor restlessness, and inappropriate aggression)

42
Q

What drug is a neurokinin-1 antagonist?

A

(Maropitant aka cerenia)

43
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the neurokinin-1 antagonist? Be specific.

A

(Inhibits binding of substance P (an emetogen) to NK-1 receptors)

44
Q

What is the clinical use for oral cerenia?

A

(Prevention of motion sickness)

45
Q

How does cerenia lower anesthetic requirements and provide additional analgesia for GI/reproductive surgeries?

A

(NK receptors are also involved in visceral pain)

46
Q

Do you need to adjust the dose of cerenia in liver disease or kidney disease patients?

A

(Liver yes, kidney no)

47
Q

What two drugs are serotonin receptor antagonists?

A

(Ondansetron and dolasetron)

48
Q

What is the peripheral mechanism of action of ondansetron?

A

(Reduces the activity of the vagus nerve)

49
Q

What is the central mechanism of action of ondansetron?

A

(Blocks serotonin receptors in the CRTZ)

50
Q

What adverse effect is shared between metoclopramide and ondansetron?

A

(Extrapyramidal signs)

51
Q

Why should you use caution when prescribing ondansetron to a cardiac disease patient?

A

(Can prolong QT intervals)

52
Q

What three receptor types does mirtazapine antagonize?

A

(Alpha 2, serotonin, and histamine)

53
Q

What are the two administration options for mirtazapine?

A

(Oral and transdermal)

54
Q

What is the mechanism of action of capromorelin aka entyce or elura?

A

(Ghrelin receptor agonist → mimics the effect of ghrelin aka the hunger hormone)

E&E Exam 1 (6 decks)

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