Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four bones that make up the bounds of the oral cavity?

A

(Incisive, maxillary, palatine, and mandible)

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2
Q

Which three species have an incomplete bony orbit of the eye?

A

(Dogs, cats, and pigs)

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3
Q

Which type of animals have no upper incisors?

A

(Ruminants)

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4
Q

What foramen, which are located on either side of the basi-occipital and sphenoid bones, in combination with the weak spheno-occipital suture, predispose a horse to basal skull fractures?

A

(Foramen lacerum)

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5
Q

What divides the TMJ joint into two separate synovial chambers (which is a unique feature to the TMJ)?

A

(An articular disc)

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6
Q

Where does the hyoid apparatus articulate with the skull in a carnivore? Be specific.

A

(Mastoid process of the temporal bone)

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7
Q

What two structures do the hyoid apparatus suspend from the skull?

A

(Tongue and larynx)

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8
Q

What is the unpaired bone of the hyoid apparatus?

A

(Basihyoid)

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9
Q

What two facial expression muscles draw the angle of the mouth caudally?

A

(Zygomaticus and platysma)

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10
Q

Do the fibers of the orbicularis oris muscle run longitudinally or laterally around the opening of the mouth?

A

(Longitudinal)

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11
Q

What are the two functions of the levator nasolabialis?

A

(Dilate nostril and elevate upper lip)

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12
Q

What is another name for the inferior auricular muscle which lies superficially to the parotid gland and is located ventral to the ear?

A

(Parotidoauricularis)

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13
Q

What muscle attaches to the mandible and maxilla in the region of the alveolar margins of the teeth and whose action is to draw the cheeks inward against the teeth as in suckling and whistling?

A

(Buccinator)

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14
Q

The caninus muscle passes between the two branches of what other facial muscle?

A

(Levator nasolabialis)

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15
Q

The flaps of which muscle are used to close maxillary sinus defects surgically?

A

(Levator nasolabialis)

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16
Q

What is the levator labii superioris (aka maxillaris) muscle attached to in pigs that makes it important in rooting activity?

A

(Os rostrum)

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17
Q

What foramen does the levator labii superioris cover, which means it needs to be pushed dorsally to allow for palpation of this foramen and blocking of the nerve located in that foramen?

A

(Infraorbital foramen)

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18
Q

What is the oral vestibule?

A

(Space between the teeth and the cheeks/lips)

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19
Q

What is the oral cavity proper?

A

(Space within the teeth)

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20
Q

What are the two divisions of the oral vestibule?

A

(Labial and buccal)

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21
Q

Through what structure does the oral cavity communicate with the oropharynx?

A

(Aditus pharyngis)

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22
Q

What are the boundaries of the isthmus faucium? Three answers.

A

(Soft palate, root of tongue, and palatoglossal arches)

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23
Q

What tooth is the zygomatic papilla (which contains the zygomatic duct opening) adjacent to?

A

(Maxillary cheek tooth M1)

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24
Q

What two characteristics of the lips need to be considered when repairing a lip laceration?

A

(High mobility and absence of subcutis)

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25
Q

What structure connects the tongue and the floor of the oral cavity?

A

(Frenulum linguae)

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26
Q

What does the loose connective tissue surrounding the ventral superficial lingual veins promote the formation of, making the use of those veins for injections not advisable?

A

(Promotes the formation of large hematomas)

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27
Q

What are the two general categories of lingual papillae?

A

(Mechanical and gustatory)

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28
Q

What are the two types of mechanical lingual papillae?

A

(Filiform and conical)

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29
Q

What are the three types of gustatory lingual papillae?

A

(Fungiform, vallate, and foliate)

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30
Q

What is the number of vallate lingual papillae an animal has dependent on?

A

(Species)

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31
Q

What two types of lingual papillae are located on the apex and body of the tongue?

A

(Fungiform and filiform)

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32
Q

What type of lingual papillae are located at the junction between the body and root?

A

(Vallate)

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33
Q

What two types of lingual papillae are located at the root of the tongue?

A

(Conical and foliate)

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34
Q

What type of lingual papillae is found on the tongue of puppies that persist for the first two weeks of life to assist in suckling?

A

(Marginal papillae)

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35
Q

What type of tissue are the apex and body of the tongue which is why those regions of the tongue may be colored?

A

(Ectodermal)

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36
Q

What is yet another type of tongue papillae that are located in the same area as conical papillae and are also mechanical papillae but that are flat and smooth?

A

(Lentiform)

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37
Q

What two species have a lingual process of the basihyoid bone?

A

(Horse and ox)

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38
Q

What nerve provides motor innervation to the entirety of the tongue and its accessory muscles?

A

(Hypoglossal nerve or CN XII)

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39
Q

Where do the mandibular and monostomatic sublingual ducts open into the oral cavity?

A

(At the sublingual caruncles)

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40
Q

What is the term for the ridges on the ventral surface of the hard palate?

A

(Rugae palatinae)

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41
Q

What is the term for the median line found at the joining of the 2 halves of the hard palate?

A

(Palatine raphae)

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42
Q

The incisive papilla is a mound of mucosa located on the midline at the rostral end of the palatine raphae, it houses the oral opening of which duct?

A

(Incisive duct)

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43
Q

What structure replaces the incisors in ruminants?

A

(Dental pad)

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44
Q

What does a cleft palate put an animal at risk for?

A

(Aspiration pneumonia)

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45
Q

What artery and nerve (of the same name) run on the ventral aspect of the hard palate and should be protected during cleft palate correction (aka palatoplasty)?

A

(Major palatine artery and vein)

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46
Q

What is a palatocheiloschisis?

A

(The combo of a cleft lip and palate in one animal)

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47
Q

What are the three major salivary glands?

A

(Parotid, mandibular, and sublingual)

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48
Q

What are the two parts of the sublingual salivary gland?

A

(Polystomatic and monostomatic)

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49
Q

Where do the mandibular and sublingual ducts of their respective glands terminate?

A

(Sublingual caruncle)

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50
Q

Where does the parotid duct of the parotid salivary gland terminate?

A

(Parotid papilla)

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51
Q

How is the parotid duct related to Viborg’s triangle?

A

(Parotid duct passes over the tendon of insertion of the sternocephalicus muscle)

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52
Q

What is a sialolith?

A

(Salivary duct stone)

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53
Q

Damage to what structures leads to a salivary mucocele or ranula?

A

(Damage to the salivary gland ducts, ranula is specific to under the tongue so monostomatic or mandibular)

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54
Q

What are the two other names for the enlarged dorsal buccal salivary gland in dogs, cats, and camels that is located medial and ventral to the zygomatic arch?

A

(Zygomatic or orbital salivary gland)

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55
Q

In which species will you find a middle buccal salivary gland located between the dorsal and ventral buccal glands?

A

(Ruminants)

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56
Q

Where does the zygomatic duct open into via the zygomatic papilla? Be specific.

A

(Buccal vestibule)

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57
Q

What are the modified sebaceous glands used for grooming purposes in felines?

A

(Circumoral glands)

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58
Q

What nerve innervates all of the muscles of mastication (with one exception)? Be specific.

A

(Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve)

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59
Q

The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve innervates all of the muscles of mastication with one exception. What is that one exception?

A

(The caudal belly of the digastricus muscle is innervated by the facial nerve)

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60
Q

What are the three mouth closing muscles?

A

(Temporalis, masseter, and both medial/lateral pterygoid muscles)

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61
Q

What is the mouth opening muscle?

A

(Digastricus muscle)

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62
Q

Where does the temporalis muscle originate and insert?

A

(Origin - from bones of temporal fossa; inserts - the coronoid process of the mandible)

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63
Q

Where does the masseter muscle originate and insert?

A

(Origin - zygomatic arch; inserts - lateral ramus of the mandible)

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64
Q

Where does the digastricus muscle originate and insert?

A

(Origin - Paracondylar process; inserts - ventrally on the mandible)

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65
Q

Where do the pterygoid muscles originate and insert?

A

(Origin - pterygopalatine fossa; insert - medial → angular process of the mandible; lateral →condylar process of the mandible)

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66
Q

What are the three extrinsic muscles of the tongue?

A

(Hyoglossus, genioglossus, and styloglossus)

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67
Q

The hyoglossus muscle originates from the basihyoid bone and inserts on the base of the tongue, what is its action?

A

(Draw tongue caudal)

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68
Q

The genioglossus muscle originates from the ‘chin’ and inserts on the base of the tongue, what is its action?

A

(Draws tongue rostral and ventral)

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69
Q

The styloglossus muscle originates from the stylohyoid bone and inserts on the base of the tongue, what is its action?

A

(Draws tongue caudodorsally)

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70
Q

What is the intrinsic muscle of the soft palate and what is its action?

A

(Palatinus muscle, shortens the soft palate)

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71
Q

Which of the extrinsic muscles of the soft palate, the tensor veli palatini or the levator veli palatini, elevates the soft palate?

A

(Levator veli palatini)

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72
Q

What nerves innervate the palatinus and levator veli palatini muscles?

A

(Glossopharyngeal and vagus nerve)

73
Q

What structures form the intrapharyngeal ostium?

A

(The caudal edge of the soft palate and the two palatopharyngeal arches)

74
Q

What two tonsils are located in the oropharynx?

A

(Palatine and lingual)

75
Q

What is the one muscle that dilates the pharynx and what is its innervation?

A

(Stylopharyngeus caudalis, innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve)

76
Q

All of the pharyngeal muscles constrict the pharynx except the stylopharyngeus which is innervated by CN IX, what are the constrictor muscles innervated by?

A

(The pharyngeal plexus → CN IX and X)

77
Q

Which of the groups of the pharyngeal constrictor muscles both constrict and shorten the pharynx?

A

(The rostral constrictors)

78
Q

What are the two muscles in the rostral constrictor group?

A

(Pterygopharyngeus and palatopharyngeus)

79
Q

What is the middle constrictor muscle of the pharynx?

A

(Hyopharyngeus)

80
Q

Which of the caudal constrictor muscles is typically closed when an animal is at rest to prevent regurgitation and has to relax to open in the action of swallowing?

A

(Cricopharyngeus)

81
Q

What lymph node of the head is rostral to or embedded rostrally in the parotid salivary gland?

A

(Parotid lymph node)

82
Q

What lymph node of the head is rostral to the mandibular salivary gland and located near the linguofacial vein?

A

(Mandibular lymph node)

83
Q

What lymph node of the head is caudal to and covered by the parotid salivary gland, and is also caudal to the tubus auris?

A

(Lateral retropharyngeal lymph node)

84
Q

What lymph node of the head is medial to the mandibular salivary gland and ventromedial to the wing of the atlas?

A

(Medial retropharyngeal lymph node)

85
Q

Which of the cranial nerves carry preganglionic autonomic nerve fibers with them as they run out of the brain stem? Four answers.

A

(3, 7, 9, and 10)

86
Q

Which of the trigeminal branches are sensory only?

A

(Ophthalmic and maxillary)

87
Q

What two branches does the maxillary nerve give off before continuing as the infraorbital nerve?

A

(Zygomatic and pterygopalatine nerves)

88
Q

Where does the ophthalmic nerve enter the skull?

A

(Orbital fissure)

89
Q

Where does the maxillary nerve enter the skull?

A

(Round foramen)

90
Q

Where does the mandibular nerve enter/exit the skull?

A

(Oval foramen)

91
Q

(T/F) Injury to the trigeminal nerve aka trigeminal neuritis results in sensory deficit of the face and an inability to open the jaw.

A

(F, dropped jaw)

92
Q

The facial nerve provides sensory innervation for which portion of the tongue?

A

(Rostral ⅔)

93
Q

The facial nerve provides sensory innervation to the rostral ⅔ of the tongue. What is the name of the nerve that branches off the facial nerve to provide the above innervation?

A

(Chorda tympani nerve)

94
Q

The chorda tympani nerve, in addition to providing sensory innervation to the rostral ⅔ of the tongue, sends parasympathetic fibers to which structures of the head?

A

(Sublingual and mandibular salivary glands)

95
Q

What is the clinical significance of the fossa linguae?

A

Site for lodging of foreign bodies

96
Q

What is the clinical significance of the torus linguae?

A

Impedes ET tube placement

97
Q

Does the facial nerve open or close the eye?

A

(Closes)

98
Q

What covers the digestive and urogenital systems that is reflected in places over the abdominal viscera?

A

(Visceral peritoneum)

99
Q

What lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and includes the parts of this structure that are not attached to viscera?

A

(Parietal peritoneum)

100
Q

What is contained in the peritoneal cavity and what is its purpose?

A

(Serous fluid, lubrication)

101
Q

(T/F) Everything pertinent to the abdomen lies within the abdominal cavity but nothing lies within the peritoneal cavity (besides a small amount of fluid).

A

(T)

102
Q

What is the term for an organ closely applied to the dorsal body wall and that is covered incompletely by peritoneum, i.e. the kidney?

A

(Retroperitoneal)

103
Q

What is the term for the parietal peritoneum that connects to visceral peritoneum?

A

(Connecting peritoneum, has lots of other names → mesentery, ligaments, folds, etc.)

104
Q

(T/F) The mesentery is now considered to be an organ that has fat storage capacity and allows for vessels, nerves, and lymphatics to supply the intestines.

A

(T)

105
Q

What is the term for the mesentery for the jejunum?

A

(Mesojejunum)

106
Q

Folds or ligaments of connecting peritoneum run between what structures?

A

(Between two organs → ex. duodenocolic fold, between the duodenum and the colon)

107
Q

What two organs are attached by the hepatogastric ligament?

A

(Liver and stomach)

108
Q

What is another term for the hepatogastric ligament?

A

(Lesser omentum)

109
Q

What portion of the liver does the lesser omentum envelope before connecting to the lesser curvature of the stomach? Be specific.

A

(The papillary process of the caudate lobe of the liver)

110
Q

What two structures is the falciform ligament, a vestige of the cranioventral mesentery between the umbilicus and liver, between?

A

(Liver and ventral body wall)

111
Q

What is enclosed by the falciform ligament that represents the vestiges of the umbilical vein?

A

(Round ligament of the liver)

112
Q

What is the term for the connecting peritoneum between the spleen and stomach?

A

(Gastrosplenic ligament)

113
Q

What two structures is the nephrosplenic ligament between? Be specific.

A

(Left kidney and spleen)

114
Q

What is the clinical significance of the nephrosplenic ligament in horses?

A

(Site of intestinal entrapment)

115
Q

What do the triangular ligaments connect?

A

(Diaphragm to right/left lobes of the liver respectively)

116
Q

What does the coronary ligament connect?

A

(Liver and caudal vena cava)

117
Q

What is located between the superficial and deep leaves of the greater omentum?

A

(Omental bursa)

118
Q

What is the entrance to the omental bursa?

A

(Epiploic foramen)

119
Q

What is the clinical significance of the epiploic foramen?

A

(Site for intestinal herniation and entrapment)

120
Q

What structure does the vaginal process exit?

A

(Superficial inguinal ring)

121
Q

What is the vaginal process in male animals?

A

(Tunics of the testis and spermatic cord → vaginal tunic)

122
Q

What is the term for the pelvic cavity peritoneal pouch that is between the spine and the rectum?

A

(Pararectal fossae)

123
Q

What is the rectogenital pouch between?

A

(Rectum and the genitalia, whether they be male or female)

124
Q

What is the term for the pelvic cavity peritoneal pouch that is between the genitalia and the bladder?

A

(Vesicogenital pouch)

125
Q

What is the pubovesical pouch between?

A

(Pubic bone and the bladder)

126
Q

What does the position of the stomach within the abdomen vary depending on?

A

(Fullness of the stomach)

127
Q

The stomach lies largely to the left or right?

A

(Left)

128
Q

What portion of the stomach is right after the esophagus and that is right at the entrance of the chamber of the stomach?

A

(Cardia)

129
Q

What is the cranial and left most portion of the stomach?

A

(Fundus)

130
Q

What is between the fundus and the pyloric antrum?

A

(Body of the stomach)

131
Q

What is the section of the stomach right before the pyloric sphincter?

A

(Pyloric canal)

132
Q

Descending duodenum is located on the right or left?

A

(Right)

133
Q

What duodenal section is between the descending and ascending duodenum?

A

(Caudal flexure)

134
Q

In cats, what two ducts open at the major duodenal papilla?

A

(Bile and pancreatic)

135
Q

In cats, the bile and pancreatic ducts open at the major duodenal papilla.

How is this different from dogs?

A

(Bile duct is same, pancreatic duct in dogs may open at the major duodenal papilla but not always as it is in cats)

136
Q

Where does the accessory pancreatic duct open always in dogs and rarely in cats?

A

(Minor duodenal papilla)

137
Q

What is the ileocolic orifice?

A

(The terminal ileal opening into the ascending colon)

138
Q

What structures form the ileocolic sphincter?

A

(The ileal papilla)

139
Q

Does the ileum have arcades of vessels similar to the jejunum?

A

(No)

140
Q

What is typhlitis?

A

(Inflammation of the cecum)

141
Q

What is the clinical significance of the ileocecal fold?

A

(Help to identify the demarcation between the ileum and the jejunum → useful for collecting specimens on necropsy)

142
Q

What is the term for the caudal most part of the large intestine, lying on the midline largely in the pelvic cavity?

A

(Rectum)

143
Q

Which of the glandular structures associated with the anus open into the anal canal just inside the anus?

A

(Anal glands)

144
Q

Which of the glandular structures associated with the anus open just outside the anus in the subcutaneous tissues?

A

(Circumanal glands)

145
Q

Which of the glandular structures associated with the anus lie between the internal and external anal sphincters?

A

(Anal sacs)

146
Q

Between which lobes of the liver does the gallbladder lie?

A

(Between the right medial and quadrate lobes of the liver)

147
Q

Is the spleen located in the right or left portion of the abdominal cavity?

A

(Left)

148
Q

Which of the kidneys is more caudal?

A

(Left)

149
Q

What is the normal size of a kidney when compared to the L2 vertebrae in cats?

A

(About 2-3x the size of L2)

150
Q

Of the cortex and medulla of the kidney, which is the outer layer and which is the inner portion?

A

(Cortex - outer layer, medulla - inner portion)

151
Q

What is the term for the border between the cortex and medulla of the kidney?

A

(Corticomedullary junction)

152
Q

What is the term for the triangular sections of the kidney that consist mainly of tubules?

A

(Renal pyramids)

153
Q

What are the renal papillae?

A

(Where the renal pyramids empty urine through)

154
Q

What is the term for the midline fusion of adjacent renal papilla?

A

(Renal crest)

155
Q

What is the renal structure that is located within the renal sinus and to which all papillary ducts open; this structure then drains into the ureter?

A

(Renal pelvis)

156
Q

Are the ureters also retroperitoneal?

A

(Yes)

157
Q

What is the term for the renal vessels that follow the arched edge of the corticomedullary junction?

A

(Arcuate arteries and veins)

158
Q

What species has renal subcapsular veins?

A

(Felines)

159
Q

What does the position of the urinary bladder depend on?

A

(How full it is)

160
Q

What is the purpose of the oblique angle of entrance of the ureters into the bladder?

A

(Prevents reflux of urine back into the ureters and kidneys)

161
Q

What is the trigone of the bladder?

A

(The triangle between the entrance of the ureters and exit of urethra)

162
Q

What do the right and left dorsal branches of the vagus nerve fuse to form?

A

(The dorsal vagal trunk)

163
Q

Where do the vagal trunks pass through the diaphragm to enter the abdomen?

A

(Esophageal hiatus)

164
Q

Which of the vagal trunks, ventral or dorsal, supplies the liver, parietal surface of the stomach and the pylorus?

A

(Ventral vagal trunk)

165
Q

Which of the vagal trunks gives off the celiac branch?

A

(Dorsal vagal trunk)

166
Q

(T/F) All parasympathetic preganglionic axons synapse within the walls of their target organ.

A

(T)

167
Q

Which of the abdominal plexuses does the celiac branch of the dorsal vagal trunk contribute to the formation of?

A

(Celiac and cranial mesenteric)

168
Q

Where do the major and minor splanchnic nerves leave the sympathetic trunk topographically to provide innervations to most GI viscera?

A

(Just cranial to the diaphragm)

169
Q

Sometimes the celiac and cranial mesenteric plexuses/ganglia coalesce so there is a combined term for them, what is that term?

A

(Celiacomesenteric ganglion and plexus)

170
Q

Which ganglion/plexus do the hypogastric nerves leave?

A

(Caudal mesenteric ganglion/plexus)

171
Q

Where are the mesenteric lymph nodes located in carnivores?

A

(At the root of the jejunal mesentery)

172
Q

What vessel drains digestive viscera into the liver?

A

(The hepatic portal vein)

173
Q

What vessels drain blood from the liver into the caudal vena cava?

A

(The hepatic veins)

174
Q

Do the renal veins drain into the hepatic portal vein?

A

(No, drain into the caudal vena cava)

175
Q

Which aortic branch supplies the stomach, liver, spleen, part of the duodenum, and part of the pancreas?

A

(Celiac artery)

176
Q

What are the three major branches off of the celiac artery?

A

(Left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries)

177
Q

Which of the aortic branches supplies the majority of the small and large intestines?

A

(Cranial mesenteric artery)

178
Q

What does the caudal mesenteric artery supply? Two answers.

A

(Parts of the colon and rectum)

179
Q

(T/F) The lumbar arteries are paired arteries that leave the aorta and pass ventrally where the branches can supply the spinal cord as well as skin and muscles.

A

(F, dorsally)