Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

morphine overdose

A

naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

antagonist (antídoto)for benzodiazepines

A

flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Medication cause bony sequestrum

A

Aledronate,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Below which level of absolute neutrophil

A

<500 no puedes hacer nada

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cell Directly attacked by the virus

A

Cd4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bioavailability

A

It’s part of absorption, proportion that is successfully absorbed into systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

Administración
Absorption
Distribution
Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Anestésico local afecta

A

Los canales de sodio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Zero order kinetics

A

Alcohol, aspirinz phenytoin teofilina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Potency

A

Strength of a drug at particular dosage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Receptor in the ANS

A

Cholinergic, adrenergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Glándulas salivales tiene receptores

A

Parasimpatetica y simpática

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Adrenergic receptors

A

A1 smooth muscle contracción
A2 vasodilation
B1 heart
B2 smooth muscle pulmones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Uso del Albuterol y acción

A

Broncodilatador
Emergency B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

farmacos selectivos adrenergic receptor blockers

A

b1 metroprolol, atenolol
a1 prazosin, terzosinm doxazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

efecto adrenalina en presencia de a blocker

A

solo activa receptores B. siendo b 2 la mayor respuesta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

used in dentistry to reverse soft rissue anesthesia more quickly after procedures involving a local anesthetic with vasocontrictor

A

phentolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

increase the vasocontrictor response to E but reduce the tachycardia resulting from E

A

B blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

inhabit the vasocontrictor response to E and levonordefrin

A

A bloquers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

encima que degrada acetilcolina

A

acetylcholinesterasa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Que hace el parasimpatico en glandulas la salivacion

A

estimula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Como actúa colinergic agonist

A

mimic the effects of postganglinic cholinergic nerves
tx xerostomia.
miosis bradycardia,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

an antiretroviral drug used to treat HIV/AIDS

A

zidovudine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Corticosteriods can cause

A

Corticosteriods can cause peptic ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

pilocarpine (pizzo)
agonsitsa M

A

estimula saliva o gotas de los ojos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

useful drug to induce salivation is one which has properties that are

A

cholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

neostigmine

A

inhibiting acetylcholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

antagonizing cholinesterase

A

neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

predominant mode of radiaion induced death

A

apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

low radiosensitivty

A

neurons muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

high radiosensitivitytissue most uceptible to radiation

A

blood forming tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

most radiosensitive

A

reproductive organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

relative to radiation biology, the latent period is that period between

A

exposure to radiation and the apperance of clinical syntoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

efecto estocastico

A

leucemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

antimuscarinicoreduce salivary flow

A

atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

contraindication for using atropine

A

glaucoma, prostata hypertrophy, paralytic ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

benzatropine

A

reduce parkinton disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

atropine and propantheline exert theri effects on perihereal structures by

A

competing with acerycholine for receptor sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ganglionic blocking agent

A

mecamylamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

succinycholine

A

prevent laryngospasm and as a skeletal muscle relaxant during surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

organophosphate insecticides and nerve gases inhibit the action of

A

acetylcholinesterase
cholingergic stimulation kill the bugs and me

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

indicated to trat pseudomonas infection

A

tiacarcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

adverse effect of phenthiazine

A

xerostomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Intrinsic activity

A

maximal effect of a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

efficancy

A

effect of a drug as a function of level of binding to its receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

the lower the K the____ the affinity

A

higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The following effects result from what type of pharmacological agent:
Lower blood pressure Vasodilation
Orthostatic hypotension

A

alpha adrenergic receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A drug that reduces the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is called a:

A

sympatholytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

adrenergic receptors are predominantly located on:

A

presynaptic nerve terminals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

efecto colateral antipsychotics… haloperidol

A

tardive dyskinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

inhibit seletive dopamine and serotonin receptor

A

antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

adverse motor effects of antypsychotic

A

dystonias
akathisia
parkinsionism
perioral tremor
malignat syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

antypsychotic drugs afectr

A

basil ganglie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

inhibit reuptake NE and 5HT

A

antidepressant- tricyclic antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

tx neuralgia trigemino.
sharp pain

A

carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

lithium toxicity sintoms

A

tyroid enargment, nausea, convulsions , polydipsia, polyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

antagonist for benzodiazepines

A

flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

mecanismo de accion de diazepam

A

agonista gaba
congtraindicada,
asthma, pregnanct, glaucoma y hepatic problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

triazolam

A

amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

antidoto opioide

A

naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

benefit of iv sedetantion

A

the ability to titrar dose (poder regular )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

sensation before nitrous oxide sedation

A

tingling sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

action of antipileptic drugs

A

inhibition of sodium channels, t ype calcium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

parkinson disease tx

A

cabidopa l dopa
amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

medicamento para grand mal seizures

A

phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

antibiotic interaccion diazepam

A

clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

reverse te pressor action of adrenaline
epinephrine reversal

A

effects alpha blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

eccine sweat gland are primarly innervated by which nerve fibers

A

sympathetic cholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

tetraciclin with longest half life , prevent malaria and lym disease

A

doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

bacteriostatic antibiotics

A

we are ECSTATC
erytomycin
clindamicin
sulfonamides
teraciclines
azitromycin
timetrhoprim
cholampehicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

bacteriocidal antibiotics

A

vancomycin
fluoroqunolones
penicilins
aminoglycosides
cephalosporins
metronidazole

me
van a
cep-arar
aMI
flor de
peni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

amyl nitrite for a prolonged period of time may result in

A

methemoglobinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

effective drug of choice for
an ACUTE ANGINA PECTORIS ATTACK

A

Nitroglycerin/Nitrostat (Amyl Nitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

b bloqueadores no mezclar ..interaccion (propanolol)

A

asthma or COPD
albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

ace inhibitor

A

captopril
enalapril maleate

dysgeusia –lisinopril (altered taste sensation)
efectiviness of ace inhibitor is decreased ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

medical uses of ace

A

hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

ANAPHYLAXIS TX

A

AEIOU
Albuterol
epinephrine 0,3 mg 1:1000
IM antihistamine
oxygen
yoU CALL 911

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

AMIDES

A

LIDOCAINE
BUPIVACAINE
MEPIVACAINE
ARTICAINE
PRILOCAINE

LIVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

ESTERES

A

PROCAINE
COCAINE
TETRACAINE
BENZOCAINE
MORE TOXIC, MORE ALLERGIC

sintete plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Atropine is an anticholinergic agent used to reduce salivary flow. Common side effects of atropine include

A

BLURRED vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

example of anticholinergic

A

atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

produce methemglobinemia

A

prilocaina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

tx methgonemia

A

azul de metileno

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

not safe in children

A

bupivacaina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

local anesthetic subject to inactivation by plsma esteres

A

procaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

anestesic accion prolongada

A

bupivaaina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

increased the action of lidocaine

A

propanolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

has the longest half-life of the tetracycline group

A

Doxycycline

89
Q

is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis. It binds to the 30S

A

Tetracycline

90
Q

antibiotics is most commonly associated with aplastic anemia?

A

Chlorafenicol

91
Q

Moa Rivaroxaban:

A

Factor Xa

92
Q

Mumps:

A

Droplets

93
Q

Action nitroglycerin:

A

Relaxes smooth muscle of vessels

94
Q

Oral drug sedation for kids:

A

Midazolam

95
Q

Check coagulation pt with hepatic problem

A

Vitamina K

96
Q

Check coagulation pt with warfarin:

A

Inr

97
Q

Max dose of acetaminophen

A

4g

98
Q

Moa omeprazole

A

Proton pump

99
Q

Pain killer pt alcoholic, was opioids addict and have liver problems

A

NSAID, no
acetaminophen as choice

100
Q

Best drug for cardiac arrest, the first one:

A

Nitroglycerin

101
Q

which drug group inhibit cyclo-oxygenase-2

A

NSAID

102
Q

Appropriate inr for warfarin

A

2-3

103
Q

.angular cheilitis, treatment for this pt

A

Ketoconazol

104
Q

Antihistamínicos h1

A

Promethazine

105
Q

Sulfonamides are similar

A

Para aminobenzoic acid paba

106
Q

Candida,which drug could produce it

A

Corticosteroides

107
Q

AUMENTA TOXICIDAD CON WARFARINA

A

phenibutazone (

108
Q

antidoto del acetaminophen

A

n acetylcysteine

109
Q

antipsicotico que receptores bloquean

A

dophamina, serotonina

110
Q

efecto secundario y razon del diazepman

A

tromboflebitis.
compuesto Propylene glycol

111
Q

Contraindication propanol

A

Asma

112
Q

has the broadest spectrum of antibacterial activity?

A

• ticarcillin

113
Q

Which of the following interacts adversely with amoxicillin?

A

methotrexate,

114
Q

AIM ACUTE asthma attack

A

Albuterol
Pratropium
Methylprednisolone

115
Q

Asmathic patients avoid

A

B blockers
NSAID
Ibuprofeno

116
Q

Therapeutic doses of morphine administers intramusculary may produce

A

Constipación.

117
Q

Tx xerostomia

A

Pilocarpine

118
Q

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesist by hating of the following enzymes

A

Traspeptidase
O sea los ladrillos de la pared celular

119
Q

Verrills sign

A

Droopy eyes
Halfway ptosis of the upper eyelid
Momento perfecto para trabajar

120
Q

First kine drug ti be used to treat bradycardia

A

Atropine

121
Q

Que es ketoacidosis

A

Exceso cuerpo cetonico por hiperglucemia
diabetes 1
Anticuerpos

122
Q

Causas de hyperglicemia

A

4s
Estrés
Sepsis
Steroids
Skip insulin

123
Q

A1c test normal

A

5.7

Prediabetes 6.5 or higher diabetes

124
Q

mechanism f action insulin

A

reduces blood glucose by increasingits uptake and increasing conversion to glycgen and lipid
reduce lipolusos
increases protein synthesis and cell growth

125
Q

insulina short acting lag

A

lispro
aspart
glulisine

LAG

126
Q

principal mecanismo de sulfonilureas

A

hypoglicemia,
cierra canales de potasio en la membrana celular de las celulas beta

127
Q

efectos adversos insulina

A

signo godet positivo
hypoglicemia
problemas gastrointestinales

128
Q

sulfonylureas usos

A

diabetico tipo 2

129
Q

metformina

A

mp kinasa usada por diabetes tipo 2

130
Q

GLP 1 que regula

A

regula apetito y niveles azucar
disminuye glucagon
aumento insulina

los inhibidores de DPP4— inhibes indirectamente la GLP1

131
Q

increase GLP1 indirectly

A

used in type 2 diabetes

132
Q

glucocorticoide mas potente

A

dexametasona

133
Q

gluceneogenesis apartir de aminoacidosso de glucocorticosteroides

A

inflammatory disease
collagen diseases
cerebral edema
sclerosis multiple
rheumatic disease
asthma

134
Q

efectos adversos glucocorticosteroides
(recuerda que actua en citoquina)

sss

A

sepsis
mucosal atrophy
muscle wasting
osteoporosis
sugar increased swollen
sight

135
Q

methotrexate for

A

rheumatoid arthritis y causa thrombocytopenia

136
Q

Blocks the release of a
neurotransmitter.

A

botulinum toxin

137
Q

Inhibits an enzyme that metabolizes a neurotransmitter inside the nerve.

A

tarylcypromine

138
Q

Stimulates the release of
a neurotransmitter from
the cytoplasmic pool.

A

amphetamine

139
Q

What is the mechanism of the analgesic action of
aspirin?

A

inhibits COX

140
Q

Which class of antihypertensive drug most effectively
reduces the release of renin from the kidney?

A

b adrenergic receptor bloquer

141
Q

The administration of ______ results in “epinephrine reversal” (decrease in blood pressure from epinephrine) if given before administration of epinephrine.

A

phentolamine

142
Q

Oral antacids are most likely to reduce the absorption
of which of the following drugs when given orally?

A

tetracycline

143
Q

Inhibition of which enzyme is most
responsible for the cell wall synthesis inhibitory effect of penicillin G?

A

transpeptidase

144
Q

What events would occur after a submucosal injection
of phentolamine in the oral cavity

A

1 Blockade of α-adrenergic receptors
2 Blockade of the vasoconstrictor effect of norepinephrine
released from neurons
3 Antagonism of the vasoconstrictor effect of a
subsequent injection of epinephrine in the same
area of the oral cavity during the same dental
appointment

145
Q

Lisinopril inhibits

A

ACE

146
Q

drugs that antagonize the effect of pilocarpine
on salivary flow rate.

A

OXYBUTYN
BENZOTROPINE
TOLTERODINE

147
Q

Nerve injury tx:

A

medal Dosepak sterid

148
Q

Epinephrine is contraindicated with:

A

Hyperthyroidism

149
Q

bifosfonates acts in

A

osteoclast

150
Q

ranitidine is a

A

selective H2

151
Q

What is lithium used for?

A

Psychotic stage of bipolar

152
Q

Problem in liver which benzo to give - LOT-

A

LOT- lorazepam, oxazepam n temazepam

153
Q

Mech of action of nystatin

A

inhibit ergosterol

154
Q

Which drug increase the effect of amoxicillin

A

Probenecid

155
Q

IV bisphosphonates needs ext:

A

RCT then coronotomy and s

156
Q

tx anxiety

A

resporatory alkalosis

157
Q

staphylo aureus

A

cavernous sinos thrombosis

158
Q

What make penicillin allergic

A

Beta lactame ring

159
Q

Overdose cocaine

A

mydriasis

160
Q

Mg …sedation IV midazolam

A

2mg

161
Q

sedation iv diazepam

A

10 mg

162
Q

most common cause of fever within 24 hr of general anesthesia

A

atelectasis
pneumotosis

163
Q

Epi reversal?

A

Phentolamine

164
Q

medication for alchoholic

A

OXYCODONE

165
Q

Adverse effect of codiene.

A

Miosis, nausea

166
Q

Antibiotic for sinusitis

A

Augmentin

167
Q

recuerda…
Narcotic analgesics DO NOT cause peptic ulcers or insomnia.

A

c:

168
Q

used as an analgesic in a patient exhibiting an opioid dependence?

A

methadone

169
Q

albuterol MOA

A

B2 antagonist ( broncodilatador )

170
Q

test HBV

A

HBsAg

171
Q

opioid is agonist and antagonist

A

busperiphine

172
Q

Cycloplegia, or paralysis of the ciliary muscle of the eye, can be caused by

A

muscarinic receptor antagonis
homatropine bromide.

173
Q

antibiotics is most commonly associated with aplastic anemia?

A

Chloramphenicol

174
Q

Which class of antihypertensive drugs inhibits the release of renin from the kidney?

A

β-adrenergic receptor blockers

175
Q

Cardiac glycosides are known to decrease the concentration of

A

Potassium (K+)

176
Q

barbiturates has the highest lipid solubility, allowing for rapid onset of its neurological effects?

A

Thiopental

177
Q

categories contains the substances ephedrine, tyramine, and amphetamine?

A

Indirect sympathomimetics

178
Q

For a pediatric patient being treated for seizures, discontinuing use of which drugs may induce spontaneous gingival hemorrhage or acute stomatitis?

A

Valproic acid

179
Q

Neuromuscular blockade of the phrenic nerve can be caused by extremely high doses of

A

streptomycin

180
Q

tetracycline class drugs should only be taken once daily due to its long half-life?

A

doxycycline

181
Q

Ototoxicity is a serious side effect seen with

A

gentamycin

182
Q

most often associated with increased sensitivity of the skin to the sun’s rays?

A

demeclocyclin

183
Q

substance alters the cell membrane permeability and nueromuscular junction once the threshold stimulus has been achieved?

A

acetylcholine

184
Q

β-adrenergic agent that produces the greatest bronchodilation effect?

A

Isoproterenol

185
Q

Eccrine sweat glands are primarily innervated by which nerve fibers?

A

sympathetic-cholinergic

186
Q

physiologic effects can occur after the administration of a cholinomimetic drug?

A

Increased salivation

187
Q

taking iboprogen (advil) during the third trimester is associated with increased risk of

A

premature ductual closure

188
Q

make scooped out

A

digoxin

189
Q

Opioid type of receptor

A

Mu receptor

190
Q

Systemic fungal

A

fluconazole

191
Q

Used in the treatment of peptic ulcers, esophageal reflux, and gastritis.

A

H2 bloquers

192
Q

The therapeutic index of a drug is determined by using what formula?

A

LD50/ED50
The therapeutic index is the lethal dose of a drug for 50% of the population divided by the effective dose of a drug for 50% of the population. It is a comparison of the amount of an agent that causes a therapeutic effect to the amount that causes toxic effects.

193
Q

describes the mechanism of action of carbamazepine

A

Blocks high-frequency Na+ spikes

194
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sertraline (Zoloft®)?

A

It blocks the reuptake of serotonin

195
Q

Tylenol kids

A

10/15 mg kg

196
Q

Allergic to ester and amida

A

Benadrill

197
Q

Overdose of LA

A

Diazepam

198
Q

Mechanism of action of Nystatin

A

Inhibit erogesterol

199
Q

Max efect of amoxicillin

A

Probenecid

200
Q

Drug not with milk

A

Tetraciclina

201
Q

Overdose of organophosphate

A

Pralidoxime

202
Q

Action heparin

A

Formation fibrin BB

203
Q

Only opioid transmucosa

A

Fentanyl

204
Q

Overdose of morphine

A

Naloxone

205
Q

Albuterol side effect

A

Anxiety

206
Q

Ledronate use in

A

Pagets, osteoporosis

207
Q

thiopental (barbituates)

A

penetrate the blood brain barrier

208
Q

tx bradycardia

A

atropine

209
Q

tx for anug

A

penicilin v metronida

210
Q

sarcoidosis similar to

A

granulomatus

211
Q

aspirin

A

arb inhibitors

212
Q

Metoprolol is a

A

cardioselective β1-adrenergic receptor blocker that competitively inhibits β1 receptors specific to cardiac cells.
Metoprolol is often used to treat hypertension, angina, heart failure, myocardial infarction, and atrial fibrillation/flutter.

213
Q

Metformin (Glucophage®) how works

A

Inhibit gluconeogenesis in the liver

214
Q

What is the mechanism of action of argatroban?

A

Direct thrombin Inhibitor

215
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Captopril?

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor
ace

216
Q

possible side effect of antirheumatic drug

A

infection

217
Q

What is the general mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?

A

They act at GABA receptors and hyperpolarize the neuron

218
Q

moa dexamethasone

A

agonist on glucocorticoid receptors