Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm > pharmacology 1 > Flashcards

pharmacology 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the generic name of a drug?
A

The chemical name of a drug (ex. acetaminophen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What is the trade name of a drug?
A

Brands that make the drug (EX Advil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What is a drug?
A

any chemical that can affect living processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. What is the drug action?
A

How the drug molecules change processes in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What is the therapeutic use of a drug?
A

Prevention, treatment, or management of a disease of system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What are drug classes?
A

Classified according to physiologic function or primary disease treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What are preferred agents?
A

The “go-to” drugs in a healthcare system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. What is pharmacokinetics?
A

the study of what the body does to the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. What is the time of onset?
A

Time required for a drug to elicit a therapeutic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. What is peak effect?
A

time required for a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What is. peak level?
A

highest level of a drug in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What is the duration of action?
A

the length of time the drug has a pharmacologic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What are the pharmacokinetic actions?
A

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. What is absorption?
A

Movement of the drug from the admin site into the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. What. is distribution?
A

transport of a drug by the bloodstream to its site of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. What is a drug-drug interaction?
A

occurs when two drugs are metabolized by the same enzyme and affect each other’s metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. What is metabolism?
A

Happens in the liver, skeletal muscle, kidneys, lungs, plasma, or intestinal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. What is the first pass effect?
A

The initial metabolism in the liver of a drug absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract before the drug reaches systemic circulation through the bloodstream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. What is excretion?
A

removal of drugs from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. What is the half-life of a drug?
A

amount of time it takes for the blood level of a drug to be reduced by 50%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. What is pharmacodynamics?
A

How the drug affects the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. What is the mechanism of action?
A

Changes that result from interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. What is the therapeutic index?
A

ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. What are the 3 chemical classes of opioids?
A

Morphine-Like, Meperidine-like, Methadone-Like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. What are some adverse effects of opioids?
A

respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, dizziness, hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. What are some contraindications of opioids?
A

Severe asthma, renal failure, increased intracranial pressure, known allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Which opioid is a “non-ceiling” drug?
A

Morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Which opioid is most effective given orally?
A

Codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. What is codeine metabolized to?
A

morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Which opioids are schedule II?
A

Morphine, hydrocodone, meperidine,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Which two opioids can be used an antitussives?
A

Codeine, Hydrocodone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Which two drugs are oxycodone often combined with?
A

Acetaminophen (Percocet) or aspirin (Percodan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. How quickly can opioid withdrawal occur?
A

2 weeks after use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. How do agonist-antagonist opioids work?
A

Binds to a pain receptor but causes a weaker pain response than a full agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Which pain receptors are most important?
A

Mu receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. What are some adverse effects of agonists-antagonists?
A

Respiratory depression, dizziness, lightheadedness, abstinence syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Which patients cannot receive agonists-antagonists?
A

Patient with MI or cardiac insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. How are agonist-antagonists administered?
A

IM, IV, or intrsnasally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. How is Pentazocine (Talwin) administered?
A

Orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. What do opioid antagonists do?
A

reverses symptoms of addiction, toxicity, and overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. How do opioid antagonists work?
A

Block opioid receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. What is the antagonist prototype?
A

Narcan (Naloxone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. What are adverse effects of narcan?
A

Increased RR, HR, and BP as well as withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. How often should you monitor vitals after administration of Narcan?
A
  • Every 5-15 minutes for several hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. What are some interactions between opioids and substances (I.e. alcohol)
A

Respiratory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. What are some interactions of opioids and mono amine oxidase inhibitors?
A

Respiratory depression, seizures, hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. What can show up on lab tests after administering opioid antagonists?-
A

Abnormal serum levels of amylase, bilirubin, lipase, and more
Abnormal decrease in urinary 17-ketosteroid levels
Increase in urinary alkaloid & glucose concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. What is the dosage for Narcan?
A

.1-2 mg every 2-3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. What are the types of non-opioid analgesics?
A

1st Gen NSAIDS (COX-1 & COX-2)
2nd Gen NSAIDS (COX-2)
Acetaminophen Centrally-acting non-opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. What are NSAIDS used for?
A

Inflammation, Pain, Fever reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. What are the NSAID prototypes?
A

Aspirin, Ibuprofen, Naproxen, Indomethacin, Ketorolac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. What are the expected pharmacologic actions of NSAIDS?
A

Inhibit COX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. What are some adverse effects of NSAIDS?
A

GI bleeding, acute renal failure, Reye’s Syndrome (in kids), Salicylism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. What kidney levels should be monitored with NSAIDS?
A

BUN and Creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. What are some contraindications of NSAIDS?
A

Known allergy, risk for bleeding, severe renal or hepatic disease, chronic alcohol abusers, pregnancy, children with viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. What are some interactions with NSAIDS?
A

Anticoagulants, ibuprofen, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, lithium carbonate and methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. Characteristics of Aspirin
A

Blocks pain centrally & peripherally Decrease responsiveness to pyrogens
Anti-platelet activity
Toxicity above 300 mcg/ml
Low to moderate pain
Gastric upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. What is the first sign of aspirin toxicity?
A

Tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. Characteristics of Ibuprofen?
A

Plasma protein bound Used for pain and fever
Max of 2400 mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. Symptoms of nonsalicylate NSAIDS toxicity
A

Drowsiness, lethargy, mental confusion, parenthesis, numbness, aggressive behavior, disorientation, seizures,
and GI toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. What are COX-2 inhibitors used for?
A

Mild to mod pain, anti-inflammation, fever reduction, menstural pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. What is the COX-2 inhibitor prototype?
A

Celecoxib (Celebrex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. Why were COX 2 inhibitors developed?
A

To produce relief from pain and inflammation without the side effects of gastric irritation, bleeding and ulcers or the
effects on blood coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. What do COX-2 inhibitors do effectively?
A

Suppress pain and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. What are the side effects of COX-2?
A

GI Upset Renal dysfunction
Cardio and cerebrovascular events (MI, stroke)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  1. What are the COX-2 interactions?
A

Lasix decrease Fluconazole increases celecoxib levels
Anticoagulant effects of warfarin increase
Glucocorticoids. increase bleeding risk Antihypertensive effects of ACE inhibitors decrease
Risk of lithium carbonate toxicity increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  1. Is acetaminophen an NSAID?
A

No, it does not have anti-inflammatory effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  1. What is the mechanism of action of acetaminophen?
A

Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  1. Does acetaminophen interfere with coagulation?
A

No

70
Q
  1. What is the centrally acting nonopioid?
A

Tramadol

71
Q
  1. What are the indications of uricosurics?
A

Treat hyperuricemia which causes gout Treat secondary hyperuricemia caused by chemo and anemias

72
Q
  1. What are the Uricosurics?
A

Allopurinol (Zyloprim) febuxostat (Uloric)
probenecid (Benemid)

73
Q
  1. How do allopurinol and febuxostat work?
A

Inhibit xanthine oxidase from converting hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid

74
Q
  1. How does probenecid work?
A

Inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in kidneys Promotes excretion of uric acid

75
Q
  1. What are the indications of glucocorticoids?
A

symptomatic relief of pain and inflammation
management of skin disorders

76
Q
  1. What are the glucocroticoids?
A

Prednisone (Deltasone) hydrocortisone sodium succinate (Solu-Cortef) methylprednisone (Solu-Medrol)

77
Q
  1. What are the 2 types of Corticosteroids (glucocorticoids)?
A

Glucocorticoids (cortisol)

78
Q
  1. What are some adverse effects of glucocorticoids?
A

Moon face, trunk heavy, buffalo hump
Myopathy
Bone loss
cataracts

79
Q
  1. What is a sedative?
A

Reduces nervousness, excitability, irritability DOES NOT CAUSE SLEEP

80
Q
  1. What is a hypnotic?
A

Causes sleep, drowsiness

81
Q
  1. What is a sedative-hypnotic?
A

Has properties of both a sedative and hypnotic (dose dependent)

82
Q
  1. What are the early signs of CNS depression
A

Lack of coordination, lightheaded, slowed/slurred speech, cognitive impairments

83
Q
  1. What are the late signs of CNS depression?
A

Poor judgement, slowed breathing, slowed HR, confusion, lethargy

84
Q
  1. What drugs are in the benzo family?
A

Diazepam (Valium) Alprazolam (Xanax)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Temazepam (Restoril)

85
Q
  1. What is the most popular benzo?
A

Diazepam (Valium)

86
Q
  1. Which are the most prescribed benzos?
A

Lorazepam (Ativan) Alprazolam (Xanax)

87
Q
  1. What are the pharmacologic effects of Benzos?
A

CNS “stimulates GABA receptors
Cardio” “depends on route given
Respiratory” weak resp. depressants

88
Q
  1. What are the therapeutic uses of benzos?
A

Anxiety, insomnia, seizure disorders, muscle spasm, alcohol withdrawal

89
Q
  1. What are the adverse effects are benzos?
A

CNS depression Resp. Depression
Abuse
Paradoxical effects

90
Q
  1. What is the antidote for a benzo overdose?
A

Flumazenil (Romazicon)

91
Q
  1. What is the dosage for Romazicon?
A

Initial “0.2 mg IV 30 secs later give 0.3 mg IV
then 0.5 mg every minute
MAX DOSE” 3 mg/hour

92
Q
  1. What are the contraindications of barbiturates?
A

Causes tolerance and Dependence
High abuse potential
Multiple drug interactions
Powerful respiratory depressants
CNS depression
Cardio effects

93
Q
  1. Signs of Acute Barbiturate Toxicity Syndrome?
A

Resp. Depression Coma
Pinpoint pupils

94
Q
  1. What. are some benzo-like medications?
A

Zolpidem (Ambien) Zolpidem tartrate (Ambien CR)
Buspirone (Buspar)

95
Q
  1. Characteristics of Zolpidem (Ambien) and Zolpidem tartrate (Ambien CR)?
A

Sedative-hypnotic
Most widely used hypnotic
Short-term management of insomnia
Administer before bedtime

96
Q
  1. What are side effects of above medications?
A

Daytime drowsiness & dizziness

97
Q
  1. What is the mechanism of action of Buspar?
A

Binds w/ serotonin and dopamine receptors

98
Q
  1. What does BuSpar treat?
A

anxiety

99
Q
  1. What medical emergencies can BuSpar cause?
A

Serotonin Syndrome, Hypertensive crisis

100
Q
  1. What are the traditional antiepiletics
A

Phenytoin (Dilantin) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Valproic Acid (Depakote)

101
Q
  1. What are the newer antiepiletics?
A

Lamotrigine (Lamictal) Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)
Topiramate (Topamax)
Gabapentin (Neurontin)

102
Q
  1. How do antiepileptic drugs work?
A

Slows movement of electrolytes (sodium, calcium) Decreases speed of nerve impulses
Increases seizure threshold
Limits the spread of a seizure

103
Q
  1. What are the goals with AED therapy?
A

Control or prevent seizures Maintain a reasonable quality of life

104
Q
  1. What is the most important level for a nurse to monitor on a pt taking AEDs?
A

Serum drug level

105
Q
  1. What vitamin also needs to be given to a pt taking phenytoin (Dilantin)?-
A

Vitamin D

106
Q
  1. What are some adverse effects of Dilantin?
A

sedation, blurred vision, gingival hyperplasia, acne, Dilantin facies, osteoporosis

107
Q
  1. What is the therapeutic range of Dilantin>?
A

10.0-20.0mcg/ml

108
Q
  1. How is Dilantin given?
A

VERY SLOWLY by IV

109
Q
  1. Which antiepileptic may need to be increased after 2 months due to autoinduction?
A

Carbmazepine

110
Q
  1. What are some adverse effects of carbamazepine?
A

Vertigo, fluid overload, blood cell issues

111
Q
  1. What should be avoided while taking carbamazepine?
A

Grapefruit

112
Q
  1. Adverse effects of all newer AEDs?
A

CNS effects, suicidal ideation, skin disorders

113
Q
  1. Which Newer AED can lead to Steven-Johnson Syndrome?
A

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

114
Q
  1. What is Topamax used for?
A

Adjunct therapy for partial and secondarily generalized seizures

115
Q
  1. Which neuro med is used to treat. migraines?
A

Triptans (serotonin receptor agonists)

116
Q
  1. Adverse effects of Triptans?
A

Sun sensitivity, cardiac effects, CNS effects

117
Q
  1. What are the antidepressants?
A

TCAs, SSRIs, SNRIs, MAOIs

118
Q
  1. What are the clinical features of depression?
A

Loss of pleasure or interest, Insomnia
Anorexia
Feelings of guilt
Thoughts of death
SYMPTOMS MUST BE PRESENT MOST OF THE DAY, NEARLY EVERY DAY
FOR AT LEAST 2 WEEKS

119
Q
  1. What are anxiolytics?
A

Benzos, SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, MAOIs, Atypical Anxiolytics

120
Q
  1. What are the SSRIs
A

Paroxetine, sertraline, fluoxetine, others

121
Q
  1. What are the SNRIs
A

Venlafaxine, duloxetine

122
Q
  1. What are the TCAs
A

Amitriptyline, imipramine, clomipramine

123
Q
  1. What is an MAOI
A

Phenelzine

124
Q
  1. What is the. mechanism of action of the SSRIs
A

inhibit serotonin reuptake

125
Q
  1. What is the medical emergency caused by SSRIs
A

Serotonin Syndrome

126
Q
  1. Adverse effects of SSRIs
A

Nausea, diaphoresis, tremor, nervousness, suicidal ideation Sexual dysfunction, weight fluctuation, Serotonin syndrome, GI bleed, hyponatremia, bruxism, orthostatic hypotension

127
Q
  1. Mechanism of action of Atypical Antidepressants
A

Inhibits dopamine uptake

128
Q
  1. Cautions of atypical antidepressants
A

history of suicide attempt, renal or hepatic, impairment

129
Q
  1. Contraindications of. atypical antidepressants
A

Seizures or ED MAOI w/in 14 days

130
Q
  1. Adverse effects of Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
A

dry mouth, constipation, decreased appetite, weight loss, lower seizure threshold, suicidal ideation, insomnia, restlesness

131
Q
  1. Adverse effects of Mirtazapine (Remeron)
A

sleepiness, weight gain, elevated cholesterol

132
Q
  1. Adverse effects of Trazadone (desyrel)
A

sleepiness, priapism

133
Q
  1. Mechanism of action of SNRIs
A

Inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin reputake

134
Q
  1. What are the SSRI meds?
A

Mirtazapine (Remeron) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Venlafaxine (Effexor)

135
Q
  1. Cautions of SNRIs
A

Hx of bipolar disorder, mania, seizure disorder, recent MI, interstitial lung disease

136
Q
  1. Contraindications of SNRIs
A

MAOIs w/in 14 days Renal OR hepatic impairment

137
Q
  1. Adverse. effects of SNRIs
A

Fatigue/drowsiness, paradoxical effects, decreased appetite or. weight loss, nausea, sexual dysfunction, hyponatremia, respiratory issues

138
Q
  1. Life Threatening SNRI adverse effects?
A

Serotonin syndrome, seizures, hepatotoxicity, suicidal ideation

139
Q
  1. Mechanism of action of TCAs
A

blocks reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin

140
Q
  1. Cautions of TCAs
A

Pairing w/ other serotonin agents active suicidal ideation/attempt
history of CAD, diabetes, liver/kidney issues, respiratory disorders, urinary retention, obstruction, angle-closure glaucoma, benign prostatic hyperplasia, hyperthyroidism

141
Q
  1. Contraindications of TCAs
A

Use of MAOI Seizures
Recent MI

142
Q
  1. Adverse effects of TCAs
A

anticholinergic cardiac issues

143
Q
  1. Mech. of Action of. MAOIs
A

Inhibits. MAO. enzymes

144
Q
  1. Cautions of MAOIs
A

Large amounts of caffeine, cough/cold meds, diet pills, Tyramine, diabetes. & seizures disorders

145
Q
  1. What foods contain tyramine?
A

non aged cheese, bananas, red wine, fava beans

146
Q
  1. MAOI adverse effects
A

-CNS stimulation -ortho hypotension
-hypertensive crisis from tyramine

147
Q
  1. What is general anesthesia
A

reversible state of unconsciousness

148
Q
  1. What are the general anesthesia meds?
A

Brevital, Versed, Duragesic

149
Q
  1. How does. GA work?
A

Enhances transmission at inhibitory synapses depresses transmission at excitatory synapses

150
Q
  1. Advantages v disadvantages of GA
A

Advantages no absolute contraindication, quick to establish, never fails Disadvantages

151
Q
  1. How does local anesthesia work?
A

sodium channel blocker

152
Q
  1. What are examples of local anesthesia
A

Lidocaine, chloroprocaine, procaine

153
Q
  1. Advantages v disadvantages of local anesthetic
A

Advantages “effective alternative to GA, avoids polypharm, pt can remain awake
Disadvantages” “limites scope, higher failure rate, time constraints, anticoagulants,
risk of neural injury”

154
Q
  1. How does regional anesthesia work?
A

injected into a central nerve

155
Q
  1. What are the major types of regional anesthesia?
A

Peripheral Nerve Block Epidural & spinal anesthesia

156
Q
  1. Adverse effects of regional anesthesia?
A

Damage to nerve, systemic toxicity, spinal headache w/ spinal administration

157
Q
  1. What is Lidocaine?
A

Topical anesthetic, local/regional

158
Q
  1. Adverse effects of lidocaine?
A

hypotension, can disrupt intestinal and urinary tracts

159
Q
  1. Midazolam (Versed)?
A

Short acting, no analgesic properties, provides anxiety. relief

160
Q
  1. Onset time of Versed?
A

IV 0.5 to 1 min IM “15 mins
PO/rectal” <10 mins

161
Q
  1. What are ways to prevent a med error?
A

Checks and Balances Correct, legible orders
Resources (pharmacist or physician)
Triple Check
Six Rights

162
Q
  1. How does a nurse respond to a med error?
A

Report and Document Always tell your Charge
Complete all paperwork
Notify the patient

163
Q
  1. What drug categories are not advised for use during pregnancy?
A

Category C, D, X

164
Q
  1. What are some neonatal and peds considerations for dosages?
A

Immature Organs Skin is thinner
Sensitivity of receptor sites
Stomach acid is less acidic
Weaker lungs
Rapidly developing tissues

165
Q
  1. What are some pregnancy considerations for drugs?
A

Diffusion Fetus is exposed to what the mother is exposed to

166
Q
  1. Which trimester is the fetus most susceptible to effects of outside agents?
A

1st trimester

167
Q
  1. What are some causes for concern with drugs while breastfeeding?
A
  • Cross from mother’s circulation to the breastmilk
168
Q
  1. What are some concerns in the older generations when it comes to pharmacology?
A

Polypharmacy
Organ system functionality
Decreased body weight
Malnutrition
MONITOR LIVER & KIDNEY FUNCTION

169
Q
  1. What are some important factors for patient education?
A

Illiteracy Poor health literacy
Individual learning needs
Making sure they know when their next appointment is
Making sure they understand medication instructions

170
Q
  1. What is the strongest indicator of a person’s health?
A

Poor Health literacy

Pharm (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions