Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm > drugs with their classes > Flashcards

drugs with their classes Flashcards

1
Q

morphine
heroin
hydromorphone
oxymorphone
codeine
hydrocodone
oxycodone
meperidine
fentanyl
methadone
propoxyphene

A

opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three classes of opioids? what drugs are in each class?

A

Morphine-Like (morphine, heroin, hydromorphone, oxymorphone, codeine, hydrocodone, oxycodone)

Meperidine-Like (meperidine, fentanyl)

Methadone-Like (methadone, propoxyphene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

morphine

A

morphine like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

heroin

A

morphine like opioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

hydromorphone
oxymorphone

A

morphine like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

codeine

A

morphine like opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hydrocodone

A

morphine like opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

oxycodone

A

morphine like opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

meperidine

A

meperidine like opioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

fentanyl

A

meperidine like opioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

methadone

A

methadone like opioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

propoxyphene

A

methadone like opioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the opioid agonists-antagonists

A

butorphanol
pentazocine
buprenorphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

butorphanol

A

opioid agonist antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

pentazocine

A

opioid agonist antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

buprenorphine

A

opioid agonist antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Binds to a pain receptor but causes a weaker pain response than a full ____
Mu, Kappa, delta receptors must be receptive to drugs; mu is most important (morphine)

not used as a first line analgesic

can cause respiratory depression but not usually as bad

Headaches, nausea

increased cardiac workload

A

agonist

agonist antagonist pharmacologic action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Respiratory depression (limited)
Sedation, dizziness, lightheadedness, drowsiness
Headache
Nausea
Increased cardiac workload with butorphanol and pentazocine
Abstinence syndrome – have withdrawal (less severe than opioid dependent)

A

agonists antagonists adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Measure baseline vital signs
Ask about opioid usage
Monitor respirations, if < 12 withhold medication and stimulate breathing
Fall precautions
Consider recommending an alternative if N/V doesn’t resolve
Do not administer to patients with myocardial infarction or cardiac insufficiency

A

agonists-antagonists interventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

IM, IV or intranasally
Pentazocine (Talwin) is only given orally
Measure baseline vital signs before administration and monitor throughout therapy, hold if resp rate < 12
Have naloxone (Narcan) and resuscitation equipment available (hard to reverse respiratory depression)
For intranasal administration, give one spray and repeat every 60-90 minutes as needed
For preop IM administration, give 60-90 minutes before surgery
Monitor therapeutic effects
Do not discontinue abruptly

A

agonist antagonists administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

only use wen needed and for short a term as possible

don’t want them operating heavy machinery or tasks that require alterneess until we know how the drug works with them

fall precautions

change possibitions gradually when standing us rising

report a worsening headache

tell then to lie down when feeling nauseated

should not use this drug for chest pain because of increased cardiac output that the drug will require

do not add opioids unless the doctor has approved it

A

agonists-antagonists patient instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Analgesic, Antiinflammatory and Antipyretic Activity
Also for headaches, myalgia, neuralgia, arthralgia, postoperative pain
Relief of pain with rheumatoid arthritis, juvenile arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, osteoarthritis, gout, hyperuricemia

A

NSAIDS - Indications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the NSAIDS?

A

Aspirin
Ibuprofen
Naproxen
Indomethacin
Ketorolac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

GI tract
Heartburn to GI Bleeding
Acute Renal Failure (especially if dehydrated)
Due to disruption of prostaglandin function
NSAIDS block protective effects of COX-1 on the kidneys
Reye’s Syndrome
Salicylism

A

NSAIDS - Adverse Effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Monitor for signs of bleeding
Test for and treat Helicobacter pylori infection
Recommend a proton pump inhibitor during NSAID therapy
Monitor I & O, BUN and Creatinine
Monitor for salicylism
With long term use of non-aspirin NSAIDS: Monitor for signs of embolic event
Recommend low dose aspirin to prevent embolic events

A

NSAIDS -Interventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Aspirin

A

nsaid (cox 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Ibuprofen

A

nsaid (cox 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Naproxen

A

nsaid (cox 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Indomethacin

A

nsaid (cox 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ketorolac

A

nsaid (cox 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Celecoxib

A

nsaid cox 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the centrally acting nonopioid ?

A

tramadol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

tramadol

A

centrally acting nonopioid prototype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Binds to selected opioid receptors and blocking reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system

A

Centrally Acting Nonopioid – Expected Pharmacologic Actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Sedation, dizziness
Headache, N/V, constipation
Respiratory depression (rare)
Seizures (rare) – avoid taking if have a history of seizures
Urinary retention

A

centrally acting nonopioid -adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fall precautions
Give lowest effective dose possible; short term
Give with food
Antiemetic if N/V occur frequently
Baseline vitals, monitor respirations
Administer _______ antagonist if needed to restore respiratory rate
Monitor for signs of seizure activity
Monitor for urinary retention

A

Centrally Acting Nonopioid - Interventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

do not give prior to driving or necessary mental alertness

dizziness: sit or lie down when you feel dizzy

change position gradually

increase fluid and fiber intake, exercise to prevent constipation

take only when needed, and for short term

report urinary retention

A

Centrally Acting Nonopioid – Patient Instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Acute intoxication with alcohol, opioids and psychotropic drugs
Seizure disorders
Respiratory depression
Children younger then 16 years old

A

Centrally Acting Nonopioid - Contraindications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Treat the hyperuricemia (increased uric in blood) that causes
gout
Treat hyperuricemia that occurs secondary to:
Cancer chemotherapy
Blood dyscrasias

A

Uricosurics - Indications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the uricosurics?

A

allopurinol
febuxostat
probenecid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

febuxostat

A

uricosurics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

allopurinol

A

uricosurics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

probenecid

A

uricosurics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the glucocorticoids?

A

prednisone
hydrocortisone
methylprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

prednisone

A

glucocorticoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

hydrocortisone

A

glucocorticoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

methylprednisolone

A

glucocorticoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the benzodiazepines?

A

diazepam
alprazolam
lorazepam
temazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the nonbenzodiaepine anxiolytics?

A

buspirone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the nonbenzodiazepine anxiolytic?

A

buspirone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

zolpidem

A

nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic/sedative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

buspirone

A

nonbenzodiazepine anxiolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

-pam
or alprazolam

A

benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

zaleplon

A

new class of hypnotic,
benzo like medication

sedative/hypnotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

eszopiclone

A

benzodiazepine like medication
hypnotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

suvorexant

A
  • sedative hypnotic (non Benzo)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the traditional antiepileptics?

A

phenytoin
carbamazepine
valproic acid
(remember PCV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

phenytoin

A

traditional antiepileptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

carbamazepine

A

traditional antiepileptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

valproic acid

A

traditional antiepileptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what are the newer antiepileptics (anticonvulsants)?

A

lamotrigine
oxcarbazepine
topiramate
gabapentin
(remember LOT, G)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

lamotrigine

A

newer antiepileptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

oxcarbazepine

A

newer antiepileptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

topiramate

A

newer antiepileptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

gabapentin

A

newer antiepileptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the SSRI’s?

A

paroxetine
fluoxetine
sertraline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

paroxetine

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

fluoxetine

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

sertraline

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the SNRIs?

A

Duloxetine

venlafaxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

mirtazapine

A

tetracycline antidepressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

duloxetine

A

SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

venlafaxine

A

SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the TCA antidepressants?

A

Imipramine
clomipramine
Amitriptyline
mirtazapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

imipramine

A

TCA antidepressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

clomipramine

A

TCA antidepressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

amitriptyline

A

TCA antidepressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the MAOIs?

A

phenelzine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

phenelzine

A

MAOI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what are the local anesthetics?

A

xylocaine
novocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

xylocaine

A

local anesthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

novocaine

A

local anesthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the parenteral anesthetics?

A

Diprivan (propofol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Diprivan

A

Parenteral anesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the rapid acting insulins?

A

insulin lispro
glulisine
aspart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

insulin lispro

A

rapid acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

glulisine

A

rapid acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the short acting insulin?

A

regular insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

regular insulin

A

short acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the intermediate acting insulins?

A

NPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the long actin insulins?

A

insulin glargine
insulin detemir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

insulin glargine

A

long acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

insulin detemir

A

long acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what are the biguanides?

A

metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

metformin

A

biguanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what are the sulfonyureas?

A

glipizide
glyburide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

glipizide

A

sulfonyurea (antidiabetic medication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

glyburide

A

sulfonyurea (antidiabetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what are the glinides?

A

repaglinide (antidiabetic med)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

repaglinide

A

glinide (antidiabetic med)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what are the thiazolidinediones?
(glitazones)

A

pioglitazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

pioglitazone

A

thiazolidinedione or glitizones (antidiabetic med)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what are the alpha-glucosidases?

A

acarbose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

acarbose

A

alpha-glucosidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what are the dipeptidyl peptidase IV inhibitors (gliptins)?

A

sitagliptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

stigaliptin

A

dipeptidyl peptidase IV inhibitor (gliptins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

glucagon

A

hyperglycemic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the hyperglycemic agents?

A

50% dextrose
glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

levothyroxine

A

medications for hypothyrodisim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what are the medications for hypothyroidism?

A

levothyroxine

111
Q

what are the antithyroid medications?

A

PTU
methimazole
radioactive iodine

112
Q

PTU

A

antithyroid medication, treats hyperthyroidism

113
Q

methimazole

A

antithyroid medication, treats hyperthyroidism

114
Q

radioactive iodine

A

antithyroid medication, treats hyperthyroidism

115
Q

What are the urinary tract antiseptics?

A

nitrofurantoin
nalidixic acid
methenamine

116
Q

nitrofurantoin

A

urinary tract antiseptic

117
Q

nalidixic acid

A

urinary tract antiseptic

118
Q

methenamine

A

urinary tract antiseptic

119
Q

what are the anticholinergic incontinence drugs?

A

oxybutynin
darifenacin
solifenacin
tolterodine

120
Q

oxybutynin

A

anticholinergic incontinence drug

121
Q

darifenacin

A

anticholinergic incontinence drug

122
Q

solifenacin

A

anticholinergic incontinence drug

123
Q

tolterodine

A

anticholinergic incontinence drug

124
Q

what is the cholinergic drugs?

A

bethanochol

125
Q

what are the penicillins?

A

penicillin
penicillin G and V
ampicillin
{Zosyn, timentin, augmentin, Unasyn all have penicillin too}

126
Q

zosyn
timentin
augmentin
unasyn

A

all are penicillins

127
Q

what are the cephalosporins?

A

cephalexin

128
Q

cephalexin

A

is a cephalosporin

129
Q

What are the monobactams?

A

Aztreonam [an antibiotic]

130
Q

Aztreonam

A

monobactam antibiotic

131
Q

What are the carbapenems?

A

end in ——penem
imipenem and meropenem

132
Q

imipenem and meropenem

A

carbapenem antibiotics

133
Q

vancomycin

A

antibiotic

134
Q

what are the tetracyclines?

A

doxycycline minocycline

135
Q

doxycyclin

A

tetracycline antibiotic

136
Q

minocycline

A

tetracycline antibiotic

137
Q

What are the macrolides?

A

Erythromycin
azithromycin
clarithromycin

138
Q

erythromycin

A

macrolide antibiotic

139
Q

azithromycin

A

macrolide antibiotic

140
Q

clarithromycin

A

macrolide antibiotic

141
Q

what are the aminoglycosides?

A

gentamicin
often end in -mycin or -micin

142
Q

What are the fluoroquinolones?

A

end in -floxacin
ciprofloxacin
levofloxacin

143
Q

ciprofloxacin

A

fluoroquinolone antibiotic

144
Q

levofloxacin

A

fluoroquinolone antibiotic

145
Q

what are the two types of antiparastitics and what are they used for?

A

metronidazole -protozoan infections
chloroquine -to treat malaria

146
Q

iodoquinol
tinidazole

A

antiparasticis

147
Q

primaquine
quinine

A

antiparasitics, antimalarial

148
Q

what are the antifungal medications?

A

Ketoconazole (Nizoral)
Itraconazole (Sporanox)
Miconazole (Monistat)
Clotrimazole (Lotrimin)
amphotericin B
Nystatin

149
Q

Ketoconazole

A

antifungal medication

150
Q

Itraconazol

A

antifungal medication

151
Q

Miconazole

A

antifungal medication

152
Q

Clotrimazole

A

antifungal medication

153
Q

amphotericin B

A

antifungal medication

154
Q

What are the antivirals?

A

acyclovir
ganciclovir
interferon alfa -2b
oseltamiver
ribavirin

155
Q

Acyclovir

A

– treats herpes simplex and herpes zoster

156
Q

Ganciclovir

A

– treats cytomegalovirus (CMV)

157
Q

Interferon alfa

A

– treats hepatitis B and C

158
Q

Oseltamiver

A

– treats influenza

159
Q

Ribavirin

A

– treats respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

160
Q

What the antihistamines for respiratory?

A

First generation
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Promethazine (Phenergan)
Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)
Second Generation
Loratadine (Claritin)
Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
Fexofenadine (Allegra)
Desloratadine (Clarinex

161
Q

diphenhydramine

A

first gen antihistamine

162
Q

promethazine

A

first gen antihistamine

163
Q

dimenhydrinate

A

first generation antihistamine

164
Q

lortatdine

A

second gen antihistamine

165
Q

cetirizine

A

second gen antihistamine

166
Q

fexofenadine

A

second gen antihistamine

167
Q

desloratadine

A

second generation antihistamine

168
Q

what are the nasal decongestants?

A

phenylephrine
ephedrine
naphazoline
pseudoephedrine

169
Q

phenylephrine

A

nasal decongestant

170
Q

ephedrine

A

nasal decongestant

171
Q

naphazoline

A

nasal decongestant

172
Q

psudoephedrine

A

nasal decongestant

173
Q

oxymetazoline

A

alpha adrenergic agonist, decongestant

174
Q

anticholinergic nasal decongestants

A

ipatropium

175
Q

ipatropium

A

anticholinergic nasal decongestant

176
Q

corticosteroid nasal spray

A

fluticasone propionate nasal decongestant

177
Q

fluticasone propionate nasal decongestant

A

corticosteroid nasal spray

178
Q

what are the antitussives?

A

codeine
dextromethorphan
benzonatate
diphenhydramine

179
Q

codeine

A

antitussive

180
Q

dextromethorphan

A

antitussive

181
Q

benzonatate

A

antitussive

182
Q

diphenhydramine

A

antitussive

183
Q

What are the expectorants?

A

guaifenesin

184
Q

guaifenesin

A

expectorant

185
Q

What are the mucolytics?

A

acetylcystine
hypertonic saline

186
Q

acetylcystine

A

mucolytic

187
Q

hypertonic saline

A

mucolytic

188
Q

What are the beta 2 adrenergic agonist bronchodilators?

A

albuterol
levabuterol
formoterol
salmeterol
terbutaline

189
Q

albuterol

A

beta 2 adrenergic agonist bronchodilators

190
Q

levabuterol

A

beta 2 adrenergic agonist bronchodilators

191
Q

formoterol

A

beta 2 adrenergic agonist bronchodilators

192
Q

salmeterol

A

beta 2 adrenergic agonist bronchodilators

193
Q

terbutaline

A

beta 2 adrenergic agonist bronchodilators

194
Q

What are the anticholinergic bronchodilators?

A

ipatropium
tiotropium

195
Q

ipatropium

A

anticholinergic bronchodilators

196
Q

tiotropium

A

anticholinergic bronchodilators

197
Q

What are the xanthine bronchodilators?

A

theophylline
methylxanthines

198
Q

theophylline

A

xanthine bronchodilator

199
Q

methylxanthines

A

xanthine bronchodilator

200
Q

What are the non bronchodilating respiratory medication classes?

A

leukotriene receptor antagonists
mast cell stabilizers
corticosteroids/glucocorticosteroids

201
Q

What are the bronchodilator medication classes?

A

beta adrenergic agonists
anticholinergics
xanthines

202
Q

What are the leukotriene non bronchodilating respiratory medications?

A

montelukast
zafirlukast
zileuton

203
Q

montelukast

A

leukotriene non bronchodilating respiratory medication

204
Q

zafirlukast

A

leukotriene non bronchodilating respiratory medication

205
Q

zileuton

A

leukotriene non bronchodilating respiratory medication

206
Q

Inhaled
Beclomethasone (Beconase, Qvar)
Budesonide (Pulmacort)
Budesonide and formoterol (Symbicort)
Fluticasone (Flonase)
Fluticasone and salmeterol (Advair HFA Inhaler)
Mometasone and formoterol (Dulera)
Oral:
Prednisone (Steraped)
Prednisolone (Predicort)
IV
Hydrocortisone (Solu-Corteg)
Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

A

glucocorticoid nonbronchodilating respiratory medications

207
Q

Cromolyn is a ?

A

mast cell stabilizer

208
Q

what are the mast cell stabilizers?

A

cromolyn

209
Q

What are the anticoagulants ?

A

heparin
low molecular weight heparins: enoxaparin, dalteparin
warfarin

210
Q

What are the antiplatelets?

A

aspirin

ADP inhibitors: clopidogrel, ticlopidine

Glypoprotein inhibitors: eptifibatide, tirofiban

211
Q

heparin

A

anticoagulant

212
Q

enoxaparin

A

anticoagulant

213
Q

dalteparin

A

anticoagulant

214
Q

warfarin

A

anticoagulant

215
Q

What re the centrally acting adrenergics for blood pressure?

A

clonidine
guanfacine
methyldopa

216
Q

clonidine

A

centrally acting adrenergic for blood pressure

217
Q

guanfacine

A

centrally acting adrenergic for blood pressure

218
Q

methyldopa

A

centrally acting adrenergic for blood pressure

219
Q

what are the cardiac glycosides?

A

digoxin

220
Q

digoxin

A

cardiac glycosides

221
Q

What are the different diuretic classes?

A

thiazide diuretics
loop diuretics
potassium sparingg diuretics
osmotic diuretics

222
Q

What are the different diuretic classes?

A

thiazide diuretics
loop diuretics
potassium sparing diuretics
osmotic diuretics

223
Q

What are the thiazide diuretics?

A

hydrochlorothiazide
chlorothiazide
(thiazide lke -metolazone)

224
Q

hydrochlorothiazide

A

thiazide diuretic

225
Q

chlorothiazide

A

thiazide diuretic

226
Q

metolazone

A

thiazide like diuretic

227
Q

What are the loop diuretics ?

A

ethacrynic acid
torasemide
furosemide
azosemide
bumetanide

228
Q

ethacrynic acid

A

loop diuretics

229
Q

torasemide

A

loop diuretics

230
Q

furosemide

A

loop diuretics

231
Q

azosemide

A

loop diuretics

232
Q

bumetanide

A

loop diuretics

233
Q

what are the potassium sparing diuretics ?

A

spironolactone
triamterene

234
Q

spironolactone

A

potassium sparing diuretics

235
Q

triamterene

A

potassium sparing diuretics

236
Q

What are the osmotic diuretics?

A

mannitol

237
Q

mannitol

A

osmotic diuretics

238
Q

digoxin immune fab

A

antidote for digoxin toxicity, only used in severe cases

239
Q

what are the nitrates/nitrites for angina?

A

nitroglycerin
isosorbide mononitrate

240
Q

nitroglycerin

A

nitrates/nitrites for angina

241
Q

isosorbide mononitrate

A

nitrates/nitrites for angina

242
Q

What are the antidiarrheal medications?

A

bismuth subsalicylate (pepto bismol)
diphenoxylate HCL (lomotil )
Loperamide hydroxychloride (immodium)

243
Q

bismuth subsalicylate

A

antidiarrheal medication

244
Q

diphenoxylate HCL

A

antidiarrheal medication (aka lomotil )

245
Q

loperamide hydroxychloride

A

antidiarrheal medication (aka immodium )

246
Q

What are the different classes for laxatives?

A

bulk forming
hyperosmotic cathartics
stool softeners
lubricants
saline laxatives

247
Q

What are the bulk forming laxatives

A

psyllium
bisacodyl

248
Q

psyllium

A

bulk forming laxative

249
Q

bisacodyl

A

bulk forming laxative

250
Q

what are the hyperosmotic cathartics laxatives ?

A

polyethylene glycol

251
Q

polyethylene glycol

A

hyperosmotic cathartics

252
Q

What are the stool softeners?

A

Docusate Sodium (Colace)
Docusate Sodium and Senna

253
Q

Docusate Sodium

A

stool softener

254
Q

Docusate Sodium and Senna

A

stool softener

255
Q

what are the lubricants?

A

mineral oil

256
Q

mineral oil

A

lubricant laxatives

257
Q

What are the saline laxatives?

A

Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)
Magnesium citrate (Best for Bowel Prep!)
Sodium phosphate (Fleets)

258
Q

Magnesium hydroxide

A

saline laxative (aka milk of mag)

259
Q

Magnesium citrate

A

saline laxative (best for bowel prep)

260
Q

sodium phosphate

A

saline laxative (fleets enema)

261
Q

What are the different classes of antiemetics?

A

antihistamine
serotonin receptor antagonist
anticholinergic
phenothiazine

262
Q

What are the antiemetic antihistamines?

A

Hydroxyzine hydrochloride
Meclizine hydrochloride
Dimenhydrinate

263
Q

hydroxyzine HCL

A

antiemetic antihistamine

264
Q

meclizine HCL

A

antiemetic antihistamine

265
Q

dimenhydrinate

A

antiemetic antihistamine

266
Q

What are the serotonin recptor antagonist antiemetics?

A

ondansetron HCL
metoclopramide

267
Q

ondansetron HCL

A

serotonin receptor antagonist antiemetics

268
Q

metoclopramide

A

serotonin receptor antagonist antiemetics

269
Q

What are the anticholinergic antiemetics?

A

scopalamine

270
Q

scopalamine

A

anticholinergic antiemetics

271
Q

What are the phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

Prochlorperazine
Promethazine hydrochloride

272
Q

Prochlorperazine

A

phenothiazine antiemetics

273
Q

Promethazine hydrochloride

A

phenothiazine antiemetics

274
Q

metolazone

A

thiazide like diuretic

Pharm (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions