Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RUSVM Pharmacology > Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics > Flashcards

Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics Flashcards

1
Q

Mathematical description of plasma concentration-time course

A

Pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are components of the dosage regimen?

A

Dosage
Route of administration
Frequency
Duration of administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an optimum dosage regimen?

A

Effective and Nontoxic (within the therapeutic window)

Without prolonged drug residues in tissue of food animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Time to peak plasma concentration

A

Rate of absorption (tmax)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_______________ is the fraction of the dose which reaches the systemic circulation intact

A

Systemic bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is systemic bioavailability calculated?

A

Systemic bioavailability (F%)= (AUC extravascular x100) / (AUC IV)

AUC= area under the plasma concentration-time curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the one-compartment model?

A

All tissues and organs that the drug penetrates (good enough reason to use penetrate???) behave as if they were in ready equilibrium with the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the two-compartment model?

A

Peripheral and central compartments behave differently

Initial decent (distribution phase): distribution from central compartment to peripheral compartment

Second decent (elimination phase): metabolism and excretion of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_________________ is estimated by the distribution phase half-time(t1/2a) in the two compartment model

A

Rate of distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_______________ is measured by the apparent volume of distribution

A

Extent of distribution (Vd)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the volume of fluid which would be required to contain the amount of the drug in the body if it were uniformly distributed, and the concentration in that fluid was equal to the concentration of the plasma

A

Apparent volume of distribution (Vd)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is apparent volume of distribution calculated?

A

IV: Vd (L/kg)= amount of drug in body (Dose)/ plasma drug concentration (cp)

Extravascular: Vd= dose x F% / Cp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vd < 1L/kg means?

A

Drug has limited distribution (tends to stay in plasma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vd = 1L/kg means?

A

Drug has a wide distribution (concentration of drug in tissue is the same as the plasma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vd > 1L/kg means?

A

Drug has a very wide distribution (concentration is greater in the tissue than plasma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

___________ is the time required for the body to eliminate one-half of the drug it contains

A

Half life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Elimination in first order kinetics means?

A

Rate of removal of drug from the plasma is proportional to concentration present at a given time (a constant percent of drug is eliminated per unit time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is elimination by zero-order kinetics?

A

Rate of elimination remains constant regardless of the amount of body in the drug (a constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aspirin in cats follows (first/zero) order kinetics of elimination ?

A

Zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What determines the rate at which plasma concentration of a drug rises during constant IV infusion to attain a steady state concentration ?

A

Half life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Plasma concentration when the maintenance rate of drug administration is equal to the rate of elimination

A

Steady state plasma concentration / plateau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many half life’s does it take for a drug to reach 90% of the steady-state concentration

A

3.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What percent of the steady state concentration is achieved after 4 half lives ?

A

93.75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F: A faster rate of infusion will change the time needed to achieve steady state concentration

A

False

The drug will have a higher steady state concentration if the rate of infusion is faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Rate of drug elimination from the body, by all routes, relative to the concentration of drug in the plasma

A

Total body clearance

CL(B) = CL (r) + CL (nr)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is plasma clearance?

A

Volume of plasma cleared of the drug per unit time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How is plasma clearance calculated?

A

CL (p)= rate of elimination(mg/min)/ plasma drug concentration (mg/mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is rate of elimination calculated?

A

Rate of elimination (mg/min) = urine flow (mL/min) x concentration of drug in urine (mg/mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is total body clearance calculated?

A

CL (B)= Vd x k / T1/2

K= 0.693

30
Q

Fraction of the drug removed from the perfusion blood by an organ

A

Extraction ratio

E= C(A) - C(v) / C(A)

C(A) = concentration of drug in arterial blood entering the organ 
C(v)= concentration of drug in venous blood leaving the organ
31
Q

Organ clearance

A

CL(organ)= extraction ratio x blood flow to the organ

32
Q

What are examples of drugs that have high hepatic extraction ratios??

A

Lidocaine, propranolol, diazepam, and nitroglycerin

33
Q

What is the maintenance dose

A

Dose required to maintain steady state plasma concentrations

Dose x F / dosing interval = CL(B) x C(p-ss)

34
Q

What is the loading dose ?

A

Dose required to achieve therapeutic concentration quickly

Loading dose = Vd x desired serum drug concentration

35
Q

To adjust a dose and dose interval due to renal disease, the calculation is?

A

Adjusted dose= normal dose x (patient renal clearance/normal renal clearance)

Adjusted interval= normal dose interval x (normal renal clearance / patients renal clearance)

36
Q

What are the targets for drug action?

A

Physical interactions:
-non-specific effects

Biological interaction:

  • non receptors
  • receptors (single transduction)
37
Q

What are non specific effects of drug action due to physical interactions?

A

Osmotic diuretics (attract water)

Antacids that act by direct neutralization of acid in the GItract

Radioactive iodine

38
Q

What are non-receptor targets of drug action through biological interaction?

A

Ion channels -physically obstruct or modulate opening and closing

Enzymes - compete for binding sites or produce abnormal metabolites

Carrier proteins - alter proteins and inhibit their actions

39
Q

What are the receptor interactions for drug action?

A

Specific recognition sites fore endogenous chemical messengers :

Ion channels (inotropic receptors)
G protein coupled (metabotrophic receptors)
Kinase linked
Nuclear receptors (transcription factor receptors)

40
Q

Drugs that bind ligand-gated channels have what affect?

A

Allows/prevents ions passing through

Eg Nicotinic ACh r)eceptors or GABA receptors (neurotransmitters

41
Q

What is a G protein coupled receptor and what affects does its activation have?

A

Transducer an extracellular signal to an intracellular one
-ligand binds to the receptor which displaces GDP from the Gprotein and it is replaced with GTP

GTP regulates enzyme/ion channel activity

GTP->GDP stops the action

42
Q

What are the intracellular systems of a Gprotien coupled receptor?

A
  • cAMP: adenylyl cylase catalyzes ATP to cAMP-> protein kinase A
  • PIP2: phospholipase C -> cleaves PIP2 to IP3 and DAG -> IP3 works on ER to release Ca and DAG activates membrane protein kinase C
43
Q

What are the Gprotein subunits?

A

S- stimulators

I- inhibitory

q- couples to PLC

44
Q

If a drug couples to G(s) protein receptor what affect will it have?

A

Positive

Increase cAMp
Phosphorylation cellular constituents

45
Q

If a drug couples of G(i) protein receptor what will the effects be?

A

Negative

Decrease cAMP
Increased outward K+ and close Ca and K channels

46
Q

If a drug couples of G(q) protein receptor what effect will it have?

A

Positive

Couple to phospholipase C
Increase Ca release from SER

47
Q

Drugs that bind to kinase-linked receptors will have what affect?

A

Extracellular receptor -> intracellular kinase domain ->phosphorylation and activation of proteins => insulin, IGF-1, cytokines (generally growth promoting hormones and factors)

48
Q

_________________ receptors are in the cytoplasm and on binding they will trans locate to nucelus to bind to DNA and alter specific gene transcription

A

Nuclear receptors

49
Q

How are receptors up regulated ?

A

Increased number at cell surface

50
Q

How are receptors down regulated ?

A

Decrease in number of receptors and effect

Internalization
Recycling
Sequestration
Degradation

51
Q

____________ is a gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug when given repeatedly over days to months

A

Tolerance

52
Q

___________________ is an acute tolerance that develops over a short period of time

A

Tachyphylaxis

53
Q

What are the types of ligand?

A

Agonist
Antagonist
Inverse agonist
Mixed agonist-antagonist

54
Q

what is an agonist

A

Mimics the effect of an endogenous ligand

Affinity and efficacy

55
Q

What is the difference between a full agonist and a partial agonist?

A

Full agonist- spare receptors (receptor reserve) and titrational effect (Eg Methadone)

Partial agonist- binds to receptor but does not cause as much effect as a full agonist, still blocks that receptor from full agonist binding “ceiling effect” (once fill effect is reached adding more will not cause a change) (Eg Buprenorphine)

56
Q

A ___________ binds to the same receptor, prevents an agonist from binding, and inhibits the effects of the receptor

A

Antagonist

Naloxone

57
Q

What time of antagonism is reversible and has concentration-dependent binding

A

Competitive

58
Q

What type of antagonism is irreversible and prevents action of antagonist at ANY concentration.

A

Noncompetitive

‘Covalently bound to receptor’

59
Q

___________ binds to the same receptor site and produces the opposite effect as agonist. Give an example

A

Inverse agonist

B- carboline

60
Q

___________________ acts as an agonist on one type of receptor and as an antagonist on other types of receptors. Give an example.

A

Mixed agonist-antagonist

Butorphanol - k opioid agonist (sedation) and u opioid antagonist (analgesic)

61
Q

__________ is the concentration of a drug needed to produce the effect

A

Potency

62
Q

Point at which increasing concentration does not yield greater response

A

Maximal effect (ceiling)

63
Q

What is the efficacy of a drug

A

Maximal effect a drug can have

Partial agonist may never be able to achieve full efficacy

64
Q

What is the effective concentration

A

50% of maximal response in vitro

Relates to the concentration of the drug at the site

65
Q

What is the effective dose

A

Desired effect in 50% of the population

Relates to the dose given to individuals and observed effect

66
Q

What is the does between the lethal dose and the effective dose?

A

Therapeutic index

TI=LD50 / ED50

67
Q

___________ means that the dose required to cause death is close to the dose required to have a therapeutic effect

A

Narrow therapeutic index

68
Q

________________ means that the dose required to cause death is much higher than the dose required to have a therapeutic effect

A

Wide therapeutic index

69
Q

How is the standard safety margin calculated?

A

SSM= (LD1-ED99) / ED99

70
Q

___________ is the time required after drug administration for a response to be observed (latent period)

A

Onset of action

71
Q

____________ is the length of time that a drug is effective

A

Duration of action

RUSVM Pharmacology (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions