Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RUSVM Pharmacology > Peripheral Nervous System-PSNS > Flashcards

Peripheral Nervous System-PSNS Flashcards

1
Q

Norepinephrine is released from _____________

A

Synaptic nerve endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Epinephrine is released fromm __________

A

Adrenal glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nicotinic receptors are ____________ and can be found where?

A

Ionotropic

Neuromuscular junction
CNS and autonomic ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Muscarinic receptors are ______________

A

Metabotropic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the most common locations of M1 receptors

A

GI smooth muscle

Urinary Bladder

Myocardium

Exocrine glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Activation of muscarinic receptors can cause ________ signs

A 
S alivation 
L acrimation 
U rination 
D igestion
D efecation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adernergic receptor a1 are most common where??

A 
Vascular smooth muscle 
Vasocontriction 
Increase BP 
Mydriasis 
Sphincter constriction 
Glycogenolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Adrenergic receptors a2 are most common where?

A

Brain and spinal cord
Vascular endothelium
Endocrine organs

Decrease insulin
Decrease renin
Decrease NE release
Decrease pancreatic secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Adrenergic receptor B1 are most common where?

A

Myocardium
Adipose tissue

Increase HR and contractility
Lipolysis
Smooth m. Relaxation
Increase renin -> increase BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Adrenergic receptors B2 are most common where?

A

Airway smooth m.
Vasculular smooth m.

Brochodilation 
Vasodilation 
Smooth m relaxation 
Increase blood to skeletal muscle 
Cyclopelegia 
Glycogenolysis 
Increase insulin 
Increase NE release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a mimetic drug?

A

Drugs that stimulate autonomic effects (agonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a lytic drug

A

Drugs that block autonomic effects (antagonistic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Autonomic drugs act directly by acting on the _______________

A

Receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Indirect acting drugs interact with _____________

A

Substances other than the receptor

Eg enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What receptor on the heart cause increased heart rate, increased contractility, and increased conduction of the AV node

A

Sympathetic B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Activation of what receptor on the vasculature will cause vasoconstriction

A

Sympathetic a1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Activation of what receptor on the vasculature will cause vasodilation

A

Sympathetic B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Activation of what receptor in the lungs causes bronchodilaton ?

A

sympathetic B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Activation of what receptors of the GI tract will cause decreased motility, close sphincters, and inhibit secretions

A

Sympathetic a1, B1, and B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Activation of what receptor causes relaxation of the detursor muscle

A

Sympathetic B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Activation of what receptor of the urinary bladder causes sphincter contraction

A

Sympathetic a1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are acetylcholine effects

A 
Bradycardia (neg chronotropy)
Decrease BP (neg ionotropy) 
Increase GI motility and secretion 
Smooth muscle contraction -uterus/bladder/bronchioles/iris 
Increased secretions 
Convulsions in CNS 
Stimulate autonomic ganglia and adrenal medulla 
Skeletal muscle contraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the most commonly used direct acting Parasymathomimetic drug?

A

Bethanechol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What receptor and action will Bethanechol work on

A

Muscarinic receptor agonist

Stimulate contraction of detrusor muscle of urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the indications of Bethanechol?

A

Increase urinary bladder muscle contractility (detrussor m atony)

Increase GI motility
Treat dysautonomia
Resproductive cases -uterine contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When should Bethanechol not be used?

A

Urethral/urinary tract obstruction

Or GI obstruction

27
Q

What are the parasympathomimetics reversible anticholinesterases?

A

Neostigmine
Pyridostigmine
Edrophonium

28
Q

What is the onset and duration of action of neostigmine ?

A

Relatively short onset

Humans effects in 10-30min and last for 4 hrs

29
Q

What are the indications of neostigmine?

A

Reversal agent of choice for reversal of competitive neuromuscular blockers
Stimulate GI motility and bladder emptying
Treat myasthenia gravis in dogs
Treat rumen atony

30
Q

What are some precautions to be aware of when using Neostigmine

A

SLUDD signs

May be dramatic in patients with pre-existing hight vagal tone

31
Q

When is Neostigmine used contraindicated

A

Peritonitis
GI obstruction
Late pregnancy
Presence of other cholinesterase inhibitors

32
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Neostigmine?

A

Indirect

Anticholiesterase
Choliesterase inhibitor

33
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Pyridostgmine

A

Indirect parasymatthomimetic
Anticholiesterase
Choliesterase inhibitor

34
Q

How does the onset and duration of pyridostigmine compare to neostigmine

A

Neostigmine = short (3min after oral dose and last 4hrs)

Pyridostigmine= 1hr after oral dose and lasts 8-12hrs
Used for maintenance therapy

35
Q

What are the indications for Pyridostigmine

A

Treatment of choice for myasthenia gravis in dogs -> long term maintenance therapy

36
Q

What are precautions of pyridostigmine ?

A

SLUDD, typically GI

pre-existing high vagal tone

37
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Edrophonium

A

Indirect acting parasympathomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor
Anticholinesterase

38
Q

What is the onset and duration of Edrophonium

A

Very fast acting-> onset in 1 min

Very short duration-> 10mins

39
Q

What are the indications for Edrophonium

A

Tensilon test

40
Q

What are the precautions of Edrophonium

A

Cholinergic SLUDD signs
Less commonly, more severe cholinergic crisis -> bronchoconstriction/secretions, bradycardia or tachycardia, hypotension, cardiac arrest

41
Q

What are the parasymathomimetics that are irreversible

A 
Echothiophate (ophthalmic)
Organophosphate insecticides (toxicity)
42
Q

What are the muscarinic effects of organophosphate toxicity

A

SLUDD

Diarrhea 
Dyspnea 
Urination 
Miosis 
Bronchospasm 
Bradycardia 
Emesis
Lacrimation
43
Q

What are the nicotinic effects of organophosphate toxicity

A

Muscle tremors
Muscle weakness
Muscle paralysis (including respiratory)
CNS effects

44
Q

What re the direct acting parasymatholytics?

A

Atropine
Glycopyrrolate
Oxybutynin
Probantheline

45
Q

What are the effects of atropine?

A 
Tachycardia 
Mydriasis (pupil dilation) 
Dries secretions 
Reduce salvation 
Slow gut 
Bronchodilaton 
Blurred vision 
Difficulty with urination
46
Q

What is the mechanism of action of atropine sulfate?

A

Direct acting parasympaholytic

Antimuscarinic

47
Q

Atropine sulfate is a ______________ compound that can cross the BBB

A

Tertiary

48
Q

What are the indications for atropine sulfate

A

Treat bradyarrhythmias/bradycardia
Cardiac arrest (not CPR cases)
Treatment of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor toxicity (organophosphate, carbamates)

Treatment of cholinergic crisis/anticholinesterase overdose

49
Q

What are the precautions of Atropine sulfate

A

Transient drop in HR after IV injection
May cause tachycardia or exacerbate tachyarrhythias
Rabbits have endogenous atropinases

50
Q

What are the contraindications to using atropine sulfate

A

Glaucoma
Tachycardia, tachyarrhythmias
Hypothermic bradycardia patients
Certain GI disease, obstructive uropathy, myasthenia gravis

51
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Glycopyrrolate

A

Direct acting parasympatholytic

Antimuscarinic

52
Q

Glycopyrrolate is a _______________ compound and does not cross the BBB

A

Quaternary

53
Q

What is the onset and duration of action of glycopyrrolate?

A

Slower onset and longer duration than atropine

54
Q

What are the indications to using glycopyrrolate

A

Same as atropine -slower kinetics
Pre-med in anesthesia
Reduce hypertension

55
Q

What are the precautions of using Glycopyrrolate

A

Same as atropine

Less likely to cause CNS effect -> quaternary compound

Less arrhythmogenic than atropine

Duration of action is LONGER

56
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Oxybutynin and Prpantheline

A

Direct acting parasympatholytic
Antimuscarinic

Oxybutynin wide distribution-> cross BBB
Propantheline does not cross BBB

57
Q

What are the indications for Oxybutynin and propantheline

A

Main: urinary antispasmodic to treat detrusor muscle instability (hyperactive bladder)

Propantheline also used to treat certain bradyarrhythmias

58
Q

What are contraindications to using oxybutynin and propantheline

A

Can cause other parasympatholytic signs but at normal dose => bladder and GI tract appear to be most affected

Glaucoma
Tachycardia
Ileus

59
Q

What drug is antispasmodic for GI indications

A

Aminopetamide

60
Q

What drug is antispasmodic for colic in horse

A

N-butylscopolammonium bromide

61
Q

What is the treatment of choice for myasthenia gravis

A

Pyridostigmine

62
Q

What is used to test myasthenia gravis?

A

Edrophonium

63
Q

Closed-angle glaucoma is a contraindications to the use of __________

A

Atropine

64
Q

T/F: atropine lasts longer than glycopyrrolate

A

False

Glycopyrrolate lasts longer than atropine

RUSVM Pharmacology (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions