Pharm Unit 4 Flashcards

1
Q

List the intermediate acting NMBDs in order of fastest to longest time to maximum block

A

Roc (1.7 min) < Vec (2.4 min) < Atracurium (3.2 min) < Cisatracurium (5.2 min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which paralytics do not have an intubating dose of 0.1 mg/kg?

A

D-tubocurarine/Rocuronium (both are 0.6 mg/kg), atracurium (0.5 mg/kg) and mivacurium (0.15 mg/kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are 3 synonymous terms for NMBD reversal agents?

A

AChE inhibitors, cholinergic agents and competitive antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do our NMBD reversal drugs work?

A

By inhibiting AChE there is more ACh around to bind to alpha subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the max ceiling range for Neostigmine and edrophonium?

A

Neo = 40 - 70 mcg/kg
Edro = 1 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What 5 factors affect NM blockade reversal?

A

Depth of the NM Block
AChE Inhibitor choice
Dose administered
Rate of plasma clearance of NMBD
Anesthesia agent choice and depth (affects residual blockade)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Per the table from lecture one, what is the only paralytic that does not achieve 100% block?

A

d-tubocurarine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the dose of neostigmine, onset and duration?

A

0.04 - 0.07 mg/kg (or 40 - 70 mcg/kg)
Onset = 5 - 10 minutes
Duration = 60 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is neostigmine paired with and at what dose?

A

Glycopyrrolate at 0.2 mg per mg of Neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the dose, onset and duration of sugammadex?

A

2-16 mg/kg
Onset = 1 - 4 min
Duration = 1.5 - 3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the dose, onset and duration of edrophonium?

A

0.5 - 1 mg/kg
Onset = 1 - 2 minutes
Duration = 5 - 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is another name for TOF testing?

A

Acceleromyography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the duration of clinical response of short, intermediate and long acting paralytics?

A

Short = ~15 minutes
Intermediate = 35 - 45 minutes
Long = ~80 - 85 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the max dose of neostigmine?

A

5 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the clearance of Neostigmine

A

50% renal, 30-50% is cleared by the liver if there is no renal function, making the kidneys the primary organ that gets rid of neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the s/e of Neostigmine?

A

Increased Nicotinic/Muscarinic activity
CV: Bradycardia, dysrhythmias, asystole, ↓SVR
Pulmonary: Bronchoconstriction, increased airway resistance, increased salivation
GI: Hyperperistalsis, enhanced gastric fluid secretion, PONV
Eyes: Miosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are our anti-cholinergic agents we pair with reversal agents?

A

Atropine and glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the dose of atropine and glycopyrrolate?

A

Atropine = 7 - 10 mcg/kg (watch for tachycardia)
Glycopyrrolate = 7 - 15 mcg/kg (1 mg max)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What anti-cholinergic would you give alongside edrophonium?

A

Atropine (both drugs have a short duration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What anti-cholinergic would you give alongside neostigmine or pyridostigmine?

A

Glycopyrrolate (both drugs have a longer duration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What anti-cholinergic would you give in a patient with heart disease?

A

Glycopyrrolate slowly over 2 - 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the rule of thumb when giving glycopyrrolate and neostigmine together?

A

You need the ml’s of both to match, or have neostigmine be higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What reversal drugs work on Mivacurium, Gantacurium and Rocuronium?

A

Miva = Purified human plasma cholinesterase
Gan = Cystiene
Roc = Sugammadex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the trade name of sugammadex?

A

Bridion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the generic names of glycopyrrolate and neostigmine?

A

Glyco = Robinul
Neo = Prostigmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some chemical characteristics of sugammadex?

A

Y-cyclodextrin, made up of dextrose units from starch and highly water soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How does sugammadex work?

A

Taking advantage of intermolecular/thermodynamic bonds/forces and hydrophobic interactions, it encapsulates your paralytic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List these drugs in increasing ability of sugammadex to nullify: Vecuronium, Pancuronium and Rocuronium

A

Pancuronium < Vecuronium < Rocuronium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the primary elimination method of sugammadex?

A

In the urine, 70% in 6 hours, 90% in 24 hours. Give with care in renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the generic classification of sugammadex?

A

Selective relaxant-binding agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the moderate block, deep block and extreme block dose of sugammadex?

A

Mod = 2 mg/kg
Deep = 4 mg/kg
Extreme = 8 - 16 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

S/e of sugammadex?

A

(all are dose related)
N/V, pruritus, Urticaria, anaphylaxis, bradycardia or just doesn’t work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If a dose of sugammadex is given, and you have already given a dose of Roc but need to give another dose of Roc (can’t use a different drug in this scenario) how long would it take for a 0.6 mg/kg dose vs a 1.2 mg/kg dose to kick in?

A

0.6 = 4 hours (this timeframe would still be the case if you gave 0.1mg/kg of Vec)
1.2 = 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If you need to redose a paralytic after giving sugammadex, what paralytics could you give?

A

Sugammadex is used to reverse aminosteroids, so use benzylisoquinilones; atracurium, cisatracurium or mivacurium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are some cautions to giving sugammadex?

A

Pt is on oral contraceptives (can bind to progesterone, contraceptive won’t work for 7 days), pt is on toremifene (displaces NMBD from sugammadex), if pt is bleeding (elevates coagulation labs) and recurarization at lower than recommended doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is recurarization?

A

Reparalyzation, s/sx = drop in O2 sats, unresponsive patient, appears “floppy” or uncoordinated and ineffective abdominal/intercostal activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If you suspect recurarization, what are you treatment goals?

A

Re-sedate the patient and give additional reversal agents in divided doses (such as neostigmine of 0.05 mg/kg IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What was the first local anesthetic?

A

Cocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are are some non-anesthesia related uses for LA drugs?

A

(think lidocaine), treat dysrhythmias (Sodium channel blocker), treat pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the IV drip/dose of lidocaine?

A

Initial bolus: 1-2 mg /kg IV
Drip: 1-2 mg/kg/hour for 12 - 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

List the plasma lidocaine concentration and their side effects (in mcg/ml)

A

1-5 = Analgesia
5-10 = Circum-oral numbness, tinnitus, skeletal muscle twitching, hypotension, myocardial depression
10-15 = seizures, unconsciousness
15-25 = apnea, coma
25 < cardiovascular depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe the basic structure of an LA

A

A lipophilic portion connected by a hydrocarbon chain to the hydrophilic portion, bond between 1 (lipopholic) and 2 (intermediate chain) classifies it as an ester or amide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

With the intermediate chain, what differentiates an ester vs amide?

A

Ester = COOR in the chain
Amide = NHCO in the chain
In general; the bond between the lipophilic portion and the intermediate chain creates the differentiation of LAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are most LAs classified as in terms of pH?

A

Weak bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the ester LAs? Amide?

A

Ester = Procaine, chloroprocaine, tetracaine
Amides = lidocaine, prilocaine, mepivacaine, bupivacaine, levobupivacaine, ropivacaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

List the esters in terms of potency, onset, duration and max dose

A

Procaine (1), slow, 45-60 duration and max dose of 500 mg
Chloroprocaine (4), rapid, 30-45 duration and max dose of 600 mg
Tetracaine (16), slow, 60-180 duration and max dose of 100 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the trick to remember what is an amide vs an ester?

A

Amides have 2 “I’s” in the name
Esters have 1 “I”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the only rapid onset amide?

A

Lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the potency, onset, duration and max single dose of lidocaine

A

1, rapid, 60-120 minutes and 300 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the potency, onset, duration and max single dose of Bupivacaine

A

4, slow, 240-480 minutes and 175 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What LA has the highest fraction non-ionized?

A

Mepivacaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What LA has the highest lipid solubility?

A

Tetracaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What LA has the highest VD?

A

Prilocaine @ 191

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What LA has the highest clearance?

A

Mepivacaine, 9.78

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How do liposomes affect local anesthetics?

A

Uploads higher amount of LA into a molecule which causes more consistent release of LA into tissues

prolongs duration of action and decreases toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Basic MOA of LAs?

A

Bind to voltage gated Na channels and block/inhibit Na passage in nerve membranes -> slows depolarization and APs can’t reach threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are 3 factors affecting blockade with an LA?

A
  • Lipid solubility or non/ionized form
  • repetitively simulated nerve
  • diameter of the nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is MEC?

A

Minimum effective concentration of an LA, 1 MEC = 2-3 nodes of Ranvier blocked (about 1 cm blocked)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What fibers block fastest? Slowest?

A

Fast = Preganglionic B fibers
Slow = C fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How does pregnancy affect MEC of LA’s?

A

Increased sensitivity d/t decreased amount of plasma cholinesterases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which pKa’s have the most rapid onset?

A

Those closest to physiologic pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What factors influence absorption of an LA?

A
  • Site of injection
  • dosage
  • use of epinephrine
  • pharmacologic characteristics of the drug
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

List the routes of LA administration from least amount uptaken in the blood to most

A

SubQ < Sciatic < Brachial < Epidural < Paracervical < Caudal < Tracheal < IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the primary determinant of LA potency?

A

Solubility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the 2 primary factors that affect clearance of LAs?

A

CO and protein binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

List these LAs from least to most protein bound (Bupivacaine, mepivacaine and lidocaine)

A

Lidocaine < mepivacaine < bupivacaine (this is the MOST protein bound)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What metabolizes Amides?

A

Microsomal enzymes in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What amide metabolizes fastest? Slowest?

A

Fast = prilocaine
Int= licocaine, mepivacaine
Slow = Bupivacaine, ropivacaine and etidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What metabolite is formed from metabolism of esters?

A

para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What metabolizes esters? General concern?

A

Hydrolysis by plasma cholinesterase, they have an a metabolite with an allergy concern: PABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

In general, what metabolize faster, amides or esters?

72
Q

What LAs are subject to a first pass pulmonary effect?

A

Lidocaine, Bupivacaine and prilocaine

73
Q

What LA class has pregnancy concerns?

A

Amides (they cross the placental barrier more than esters). Another concern is ion trapping of the fetus

The fetus is more acidic than mother, LA’s favor ionized form more in fetus

can cause fetal seizures, coma, bradycardia, asystole

74
Q

List the amides from least to most protein bound

A

Prilocaine (55%) Lidocaine (70%) and Bupivacaine (95%)

75
Q

Lidocaine metabolite?

76
Q

What is the max dose of lidocaine with and without epi

A

Without = 300mg
With = 500 mg

77
Q

What is the primary concern with Prilocaine?

A

Can convert Hgb into MetHgb doses >600mgs

78
Q

Tx for MetHgb related to prilocaine?

A

Methylene blue 1-2 mg/kg IV over 5 min, max dose of 8 mg/kg

79
Q

Why does mepivacaine have longer duration of action compared to lidocaine?

A

lacks vasodilator activity that lidocaine has

80
Q

What LAs prefer to bind to a1-Acid glycoprotein?

A

Bupivicaine, Ropivacine

81
Q

What plasma protein do local anesthetics bind to?

A

a1-acid glycoprotein

82
Q

What esters are primarily broken down by hydrolysis? list them from fastest to slowest

A

chloroprocaine > procaine > tetracaine

83
Q

Why is Dibucaine not used as a local anesthetic? What is it used for?

A

Inhibits the activity of plasma cholinesterases by more than 70%

Used to diagnose succinylcholine allergy

84
Q

What LA is a weak acid?

A

Benzocaine

85
Q

What is the dose of benzocaine?

A

brief spray (20%) 1 second = 200-300mg

86
Q

Which populations are plasma and liver cholinesterases decreased in?

A
  • Parturients
  • neonates
  • elderly
  • severe hepatic disease
87
Q

What is the peak duration and duration of topical cocaine?

A

peak = 30-45min
duration= 60min after peak

88
Q

How does alkalization affect LAs?

A

Faster onset, enhances depth and increase the spread

89
Q

Which type of injection would be contraindicated to use alkanilized LA solutions

A

Spinals, alkalinized will increase spread which we don’t want in a spinal

90
Q

With a pH of 7.4, random drug is a weak acid with a pKa of 8.5, is it more ionized or non-ionized?

A

Non-ionized

91
Q

With a pH of 7.4 random drug is a weak base with a pKa of 9.1, is it more ionized or non-ionized?

A

More ionized

92
Q

What adjuvants can be mixed with LA’s? What do they do to the LA?

A

Dexmedetomidine IV, magnesium, chlonidine/ketamine and dexamethasone

all increase the duration of the block

93
Q

Why do we use constrictors with LAs?

A

The duration of action of a LA is proportional to the time the drug is in contact with nerve fibers. So by using a constrictor, we can increase the length of the LA

94
Q

What is the concentration of 1:200,000? 1:500,000?

A

(divide 1 mil/x) 5 mcg/ml and 2 mcg/ml

95
Q

What is the concentration of 1:10,000 and 1:1,000

A

10k = 100 mcg/ml or 0.1 mg/ml
1k = 1000 mcg/ml or 1 mg/ml

96
Q

What is 1% concentration? 2? 4?

A

1 = 10 mg/ml
2 = 20 mg/ml
4 = 40 mg/ml

97
Q

What is the 0.25% concentration? 0.5?

A

0.25 = 2.5 mg/ml
0.5 = 5 mg/ml

98
Q

Clinical Scenario: Your surgeon injected 20 mLs of Bupivacaine 0.25% with 1:200,000 of Epi.

What are the total mgs for Bupivacaine and the total mcgs for Epinephrine?

A

B: 0.25% = 2.5 mg/ml, 2.5 mg x 20 ml = 50 mg total

E: 1:200,000 = 5 mcg/ml x 20 = 100 mcg total

99
Q

What is the normal and epi dose of lidocaine and bupivacaine?

A

L: 300 mg alone, 500 w/epi
B: 175 mg alone, 225 w/epi

100
Q

Primary use for cocaine?

A

Nasal surgery

101
Q

What is EMLA?

A

Eutectic mixture of LAs

102
Q

What is the dose and onset of EMLA cream?

A

2.5% lido and 2.5% prilocaine, 1-2 gms per 10 cm sq of area, 45 minute onset

103
Q

Cautions to use of EMLA cream?

A

MetHgb, skin wounds or amide allergies

104
Q

When is subQ LA w/epi contraindicated?

A

Tissues with end arteries (digits, ears, nose, penis)

105
Q

What is the general trend of numbing with an LA?

A

Proximal body parts numb first followed by distal, proximal recovers first followed by distal (core numbs first and recovers first)

106
Q

What LAs is generally used in a Bier block?

A

Lidocaine is most commonly used (mepivacaine is the “better” choice per slide 66)

107
Q

Describe the steps of a Bier block

A

Iv start -> exsanguination -> double cuff -> LA injection -> IV DC

108
Q

With neuraxial anesthesia, list the systems of sensory, motor and SNS in correct sequence of blockade (first to blockade to last)

A

SNS then sensory then motor

109
Q

With spinal anesthesia (direct injection) describe the level of sensory effect, SNS and motor effects via level of the spinal cord

A

Sensory = same level of denervation
SNS = 2 spinal segments cephalad (above) of sensory
Motor = 2 spinal segments below

110
Q

What do we base the dosage of subarachnoid block on?

A

Height of patient (volume of subarachnoid space)
Segmental level of anesthesia desired
Duration of anesthesia desired

111
Q

What is most important when giving a drug via the subarachnoid space: dose, concentration or volume of drug?

112
Q

Most common drug used in an epidural?

113
Q

Describe the differential zone of SNS, sensory and motor blockade with an epidural

A

No difference

114
Q

Describe tumescent liposuction

A

SubQ infiltration of large volumes (5L) of dilute lidocaine (0.05% to 0.1%) with 1:100,000 (10 mcg/ml) of epi

115
Q

How would you dose neuraxial anesthesia in terms of volume?

A

1 ml starting at 5 foot tall, then 0.1 ml per inch above 5 feet

116
Q

PABA is a common source of allergic reactions with LAs, what is the other mentioned in lecture?

A

Methylparaben

117
Q

Are allergies more common in esters or amides? Why?

A

Esters because they have PABA

118
Q

LAST = LA systemic toxicity, what are 2 common reasons this can occur?

A

Entrance into the systemic circulation from inactive tissue redistribution and clearance metabolism or accidental direct IV injection

119
Q

What does the magnitude of systemic absorption depend on with LAs?

A

Dose, Vascularity of site, epinephrine use and physiochemical properties

120
Q

What lab value in conjunction with suspected toxic levels of lidocaine can promote seizures?

A

Hyperkalemia

121
Q

What changes EKG changes are consistent with high plasma concentrations of lidocaine?

A

Slowed conduction: prolonged PR, QRS widening

122
Q

IV bupivacaine is far more cardiotoxic than lidocaine, with toxic plasma levels, what EKG changes would you expect to see?

A

Precipitous hypotension, AV block, Cardiac dysrhythmias: SVTs, ST changes, PVCs, widening of QRS, V-tach

123
Q

What can predispose you to LA CV toxicity?

A

Pregnant, hypoxic/acidotic/hyercarbic, on BBS/Dig/CCBs, epi or neo may prevent systemic toxicity

124
Q

What is the most cardiotoxic amide?

A

Bupivacaine

125
Q

What are the 3 goals with suspected systemic LA toxicity?

A

1) Prompt airway management
2) Circulatory support
3) Removal of LA from receptor sites
(in this order per the slide, from lecture, Castillo says he would do 3, 1, 2)

126
Q

Basic interventions in CNS systemic toxicity?

A

100% O2, hyperventilate, barbiturates/benzos/propofol for seizures, epinephrine

127
Q

What is the best pharmacologic treatment LA systemic toxicity?

A

Lipid rescue

128
Q

What is the dose for lipid emulsion in lipid rescue? Adjunct medication? Last ditch effort if it doesn’t work?

A

Bolus: 1.5 ml/kg of 20% lipid emulsion
Infusion: 0.25 ml/kg/minute for 10 minutes
Adjunct: 10 - 100mcg of epi
Last ditch resort: CPB (cardiopulmonary bypass)

129
Q

Max dose of lipid rescue?

130
Q

What are the 3 categories of neural tissue toxicity (make sure to say toxicity in your best Serj Tankian voice)?

A

Transient Neurologic Symptoms (TNS)
Cauda Equina Syndrome
Anterior Spinal Artery Syndrome

131
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of transient neurologic symptoms (TNS)

A

Moderate to severe pain (lower back, buttocks & posterior thighs) within 6 to 36 hours after uneventful single-shot SAB

Cause = unknown, seen more often with lidocaine

Tx = Trigger point injection and NSAIDs

Generally recover in 1-7 days

132
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of cauda equina syndrome

A

Diffuse injury @ lumbosacral plexus  varying degrees of sensory anesthesia, bowel & bladder sphincter dysfunction, & paraplegia

Associated: large lumbar disc herniation, prolapse or sequestration with urinary retention.

Cause = unknown

133
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of anterior spinal artery syndrome

A

Lower extremity paresis with a variable sensory deficit.

Cause: uncertain if its thrombosis or spasm of the bilateral anterior spinal artery

Other etiologies = effects of hypotension or vasoconstrictors drugs; PVD, spinal cord compression d/t epidural abscess or hematoma

134
Q

Prilocaine and benzocaine are the 2 LAs most likely to have MetHgb issues, what 4 other drugs may also create MetHgb?

A

Lidocaine, nitroglycerine, phenytoin and sulfonamides

135
Q

Lidocaine toxicity effect on respirations?

A

Lidocaine depresses the ventilatory response to arterial hypoxemia, making this condition particularly dangerous in COPD patients

136
Q

What is the common cause of hepatotoxicity related to LA use?

A

Treatment of post-herpetic neuralgia using bupivacaine

137
Q

What parturient effects does cocaine have?

A

Decreased uterine blood flow = fetal hypoxemia

138
Q

What intermediate-acting NMBD has the longest time to maximal block?

A

Cisatracurium

139
Q

What are the anti-cholinergics paired with our AChE inhibitors?

A

Atropine and glycopyrrolate

140
Q

What organ primarily clears pyridostigmine and edrophonium?

A

The kidneys, around 75%

141
Q

What twitches constitute a moderate block? Deep block?

A

Mod = the 2nd twitch appears during a TOF
Deep = if twitch recovery requires 1-2 post-tetanic counts

142
Q

What amide must be avoided if pregnant?

A

Mepivacaine (prolonged elimination in the fetus/newborn)

143
Q

What is the extended release name of bupivacaine?

144
Q

What ester LA is the most protein bound?

A

Tetracaine

145
Q

What is the dose of lidocaine in tumescent LA?

A

35 - 55 mg/kg

146
Q

How much lidocaine can each gram of subQ tissue absorb?

147
Q

What preservative is found in both esters and amides?

A

Methylparaben

148
Q

What is the max dose of glycopyrrolate?

149
Q

In order for sugammadex to exert it’s effect, what state must the drug be in?

A

Unbound or free drug in plasma

150
Q

When does recurarization occur with sugammadex?

A

With too low of a dose

151
Q

What amide is the most protein bound? least?

A

Most = levobupivacaine
Least = prilocaine

152
Q

What amide is closest to physiologic pH?

A

Mepivacaine

153
Q

What LA has the highest lipid solubility?

A

Tetracaine

154
Q

What fast ester and slow amide may be combined?

A

Chloroprocaine and bupivacaine

155
Q

Generic name of Sux?

156
Q

Generic name of Cisatracurium?

157
Q

Generic name of Vecuronium?

158
Q

Generic name of Rocuronium?

159
Q

Generic name of Pancuronium?

160
Q

What ester has the shortest duration? Longest?

A

Short = Chloroprocaine
Long = Tetracaine

161
Q

What amides have the shortest duration (2 of them)?

A

Lidocaine and prilocaine

162
Q

What amides have the longest duration (3 of them)?

A

Bupivacaine, levobupivacaine and ropivacaine

163
Q

What amide is broken down by CYP450?

A

Ropivacaine

164
Q

What amide LA administration is not improved with concomitant administration of epi?

A

Bupivacaine

165
Q

Do motor or sensory fibers need a higher concentration of LA? Why?

A

Motor; because they have 2x the diameter they need more LA to anesthetize

166
Q

If the pKa of a weak base is 9.1 is it more ionized or non-ionized?

167
Q

If the pKa of a weak base is 4.5 is it more ionized or non-ionized?

A

Non-ionized

168
Q

Describe the concentration of tumescent liposuction solution

A

Lidocaine 0.05 - 0.1%
Epi at 1:100,000 or 10 mcg/ml

169
Q

What esters are not effective as topical agents?

A

Procaine and chloroprocaine

170
Q

What esters may be used topically?

A

Cocaine and tetracaine

171
Q

What amide has the highest possible dose you can give?

A

Prilocaine

172
Q

What ester has the highest possible dose you can give?

A

Chloroprocaine

173
Q

What amide has the highest lipid solubility?

A

Bupivacaine

174
Q

What amide is metabolized the fastest?

A

Prilocaine

175
Q

1st synthetic ester and amide LA?

A

Synthetic ester = Procaine
Synthetic amide = Lidocaine