induction drugs Flashcards

1
Q

The vessel rich group is ____% of CO

A

75%

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2
Q

The vessel rich group is made up of

A

brain, heart, liver, kidney

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3
Q

The muscle group is _____% of CO

A

18%

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4
Q

The muscle group is made up of

A

skeletal muscle, skin

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5
Q

The fat group is _____% of CO

A

5%

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6
Q

The vessel poor group is ____% of CO

A

2%

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7
Q

The vessel poor group is made up of

A

bone, tendon, cartilage, hair, nails

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8
Q

What are the 5 components of anesthesia

A
  1. Hypnosis
  2. Analgesia
  3. Muscle relaxation
  4. Sympatholysis
  5. Amnesia
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9
Q

Which anesthetics provide sedation but no analgesia?

A

barbituates and etomidate

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10
Q

Which stage of anesthesia do we want to extubate in, why?

A

Stage 1 because patient can protect their own airway

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11
Q

What are the 4 airway reflexes

A

sneeze, cough, swallow, gag

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12
Q

What stage do airway reflexes diminish

A

stage 2

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13
Q

What vital sign changes in stage 2 of anesthesia

A

HR increases, then decreases once stage 3

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14
Q

what is the MOA of barbiturates

A

potentiate GABA-a channel activity; directly mimics GABA

also acts on glutamate, adenosine, and neuronal nicotinic ACh receptors

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15
Q

Which anesthetic are CBF and CMRO2 not coupled

A

inhaled volatiles

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16
Q

Onset timing of barbiturates

A

rapid, 30seconds

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17
Q

Metabolism of barbiturates takes place in

A

Hepatocytes

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18
Q

Excretion of barbiturates

A

renal

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19
Q

Protein binding of barbiturates

A

70-85% bound to albumin

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20
Q

What is the effect on redistribution if the drug has a high protein binding capacity?

A

longer duration of action

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21
Q

barbiturates are considered weak acid or base?

A

acid

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22
Q

What are the 2 classifications of barbiturates

A

Oxybarbiturates and thiobarbituates

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23
Q

Which drugs are oxybarbiturates?

A

Methohexital, phenobarbital, pentobarbital

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24
Q

Which drugs are thiobarbiturates?

A

Thiopental, Thiamylal

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25
Q

Dose of thiopental

A

4-5mg/kg IV

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26
Q

Why should thiopental be dosed in IBW

A

Has a fat/blood coefficient of 11. rapid redistribution into fat

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27
Q

How does Methohexital’s duration of action compare to thiopental?

A

shorter DOA; has lower lipid solubility

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28
Q

At normal pH, thiopental is _____% non-ionized

A

61%

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29
Q

At normal pH, methohexital is ____% non-ionized

A

76%

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30
Q

Why is it that: the greater the ratio of fat to body weight = the less the blood volume (mL/kg)

A

adipose tissue has decreased blood supply

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31
Q

Methohexital is associated with what excitatory phenomena?

A

myoclonus and hiccoughs

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32
Q

Methohexital dose (IV and rectal)

A

1.5mg/kg IV
20-30mg/kg rectal

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33
Q

What is Methohexital’s effects on seizure threshold

A

Lowers seizure threshold, decreased seizure duration

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34
Q

What are barbiturates effects on CV system

A

Transient 10-20mmHg decrease in SBP, compensatory transient 15-20 increase HR bpm

Histamine release

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35
Q

Barbiturate use should be used in caution in which patient population

A

Caution with lack of baroreceptor response: hypovolemia, CHF, B-blockade

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36
Q

Barbiturate effects on ventilation

A

Dose dependent depression of ventilatory centers: pons and medulla less sensitive to CO2. Slowed RR and Vt when returning to spontaneous ventilation

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37
Q

Barbiturate effects on intra-arterial injection

A

Immediate arterial vasoconstriction, excrutiating pain, blanching and cyanosis. Can result in permanent nerve damage.

Tx = Lidocaine or papaverine to vasodilate and increase blood flow

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38
Q

Barbiturate use is the desired drug if ________ monitoring is required

A

SSEP

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39
Q

What are barbiturates effects on hepatic enzymes?

A

Induction of hepatic enzymes with chronic infusion: accelerated metabolism of anticoagulants, phenytoin, TCAs, digoxin, corticosteroids, bile salts, and vit K. May persist for 30days

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40
Q

What are barbiturates effects on the kidneys

A

Modest, transient decreases in renal blood flow and GFR

Tx= crystalloid 10-30ml/kg

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41
Q

Propofol MOA

A

selective modulator of y-aminobutyric acid (GABA) type A receptors

increases Cl- conductance and hyperpolarizes post synaptic neuron

Also potentiates activity at glycine receptors, partially contributes to hypnosis effect

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42
Q

Propofol doses (induction, conscious sedation, maintenance, antiemetic)

A

Induction: 1.5-2.5 mgkg IV
Conscious sedation; 25-100 mcg/kg/min
Maintenance: 100-300 mcg/kg/min
Sub-hypnotic/antiemetic: 10-15mg IV followed by 10mcg/kg/min

43
Q

Propofol concentration and composition

A

1% solution = 10mg/mL

10% soybean oil- medium for stabilization and dispersment
2.25% glycerol-emulsifier to avoid oil droplets, isotonic with blood
1.2% purified egg phosphatide (lecithin) (egg allergy cross reaction)

44
Q

Propofol is good to be used for how long after punctured?

45
Q

Prolonged propofol IV infusions can cause

A

increased triglycerides

46
Q

Ampofol is

A

low-lipid emulsion version of propofol, higher incidence of pain on injection

47
Q

Aquavan (fospropofol) is

A

water soluble pro-drug of propofol that reduces pain on injection

causes burning in genital area (dysesthia)
slower onset, larger Vd, and higher potency

48
Q

Main target of anesthetics

49
Q

Primary clearance of propofol occurs in

A

lungs > hepatic

50
Q

With IV medications, 1st pass occurs first where?

51
Q

Metabolism of propofol occurs in

A

liver: CYP450

water-soluble and glucuronic acid metabolites

52
Q

Which type of drugs are more prone to pulmonary 1st pass effect?

A

IV lipid soluble drugs

53
Q

Propofol 1.5-2.5mg/kg IV is equivalent to what dose of Thiopental or Methohexital?

A

Thiopental 4-5mg/kg IV
Methohexital 1.5mg/kg IV

54
Q

What is one of the most important advantages of propofol compared with alternative drugs administered for the same purpose?

A

More rapid return of consciousness with minimal residual CNS effects

55
Q

How does generic propofol differ from Diprivan

A

differ in respects to preservatives and pH. Diprivan uses disodium edetate with sodium hydroxide to adjust the pH to 7-8.5.

Generic incorporates sodium metabisulfite as the preservative and has a lower pH (4.5-6.4).

56
Q

Propofol is not a _______ compound

A

chiral; should not be mixed with other drugs.

ex. mixing propofol with lidocaine can cause oil droplets which may cause pulmonary embolism

57
Q

Propofol E1/2 time (hrs)

A

0.5-1.5hrs

58
Q

Propofol Vd (L/kg)

A

3.5-4.5 L/kg

59
Q

Propofol clearance (ml/kg/min)

A

30-60 ml/kg/min

60
Q

Propofol effects on BP and HR

A

both decreased

61
Q

Etomidate E1/2 time (hrs)

62
Q

Etomidate Vd (L/kg)

A

2.2-4.5 L/kg

63
Q

Etomidate Clearance (ml/kg/min)

A

10-20 ml/kg/min

64
Q

Etomidate effects on HR and BP

A

No change to either

65
Q

Ketamine E1/2time (hrs)

66
Q

Ketamine Vd (L/kg)

A

2.5-3.5 L/kg

67
Q

Ketamine Clearance (ml/kg/min)

A

16-18 ml/kg/min

68
Q

Ketamine effects on HR and BP

A

both increased

69
Q

In contrast to volatile anesthetics, immobility during propofol anesthesia is

A

not caused by drug-induced spinal cord depression

70
Q

What are propofol concerns in pregnancy and neonate?

A

Crosses the placenta but is rapidly cleared in the neonatal circulation.

Ion trapping can occur (occurs when a drug accumulates in the fetus due to a difference in pH between the mother and the fetus (fetus normally lower than mother).

71
Q

Green urine from propofol occurs because of

A

phenols, no alteration in renal function

72
Q

cloudy urine from propofol occurs because of

A

uric acid crystallization, no alteration in renal function

73
Q

Children require _____ doses of propofol compared to adults

A

higher; larger central distribution volume and clearance rate

74
Q

Elderly propofol dose

A

25-50% lower induction dose

75
Q

In addition to sedation, other effects of propofol are

A

anti-emetic: low incidence of PONV, chemotherapy-induced N/V

anticonvulsant and amnestic properties

anti-pruritic effects: d/t neuraxial opiods or cholestasis

analgesia at low doses

bronchodilator: decreased airway resistance, good for asthmatics

potent antioxidant

NOT a MH trigger

76
Q

Propofol is _____ effective than Zofran

77
Q

How does propofol exhibit anti-emetic effects

A

depresses subcortical pathways and has a direct depressant effect on the vomiting center (hindbrain).

78
Q

Propofol effects on CBF and CMRO2

A

decreased both, also decreased ICP

autoregulation r/t CBF and PaCO2 maintained

79
Q

Propofol effects on EEG

A

similar to Thiopental

no SSEP suppression (unless volatiles or nitrous added)

good for neuro cases

Can exert excitatory movements on induction/emergence; does NOT produce seizure, myoclonus

80
Q

EEG waveforms from most active to least active

A

Gamma (testing) > Beta (concentrating > Alpha (awake) > Theta (light sleep) > Delta (deep sleep)

81
Q

Propofol effects on BP compared to thiopental

A

Propofol has greater decrease in SBP than thiopental

inhibition of SNS, vascular smooth muscle relaxation = decreased SVR

decreased intracellular calcium

exaggerated in hypovolemia, elderly, LV compromise

82
Q

Propofol CV side effects

A
  • Bradycardia and hypotension
  • Decreased SNS response
  • May depress baroreceptor reflex
  • Profound bradycardia and asystole with healthy adult patients
83
Q

Propofol respiratory side effects

A
  • Dose dependent depression of ventilation, synergistic with opioids
  • INTACT hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction response
    -painful surgical stimulation counteracts the ventilatory depressant effects
84
Q

Propofol s/e on other organ systems

A
  • Pain on injection (vein size, give lido prior)
  • Decreased IOP
  • Inhibits platelet aggregation (not significant)
  • Allergic reactions
  • prolong myoclonus
  • abuse and misuse
85
Q

What is propofol infusion syndrome

A
  • Lactic acidosis from high dose infusions of >75mcg/kg/min longer than 24hrs.
  • Severe refractory and fatal bradycardia in children
  • s/sx = lactic acidosis, brady-dysrhythmias, rhabdo
  • dx= ABG and serum lactate concentrations
  • Reversible in the early stage
  • Cardiogenic shock, ECMO
86
Q

Ketamine is a derivative of

A

Phencyclidine (PCP)

87
Q

Ketamine resembles a cataleptic state in which

A

eyes remain open with a slow nystagmic gaze

pt noncommunicative but wakefulness is present; hypertonus and purposeful skeletal movements

88
Q

Advantages for ketamine over propofol and etomidate

A
  • no pain at injection site
  • profound analgesia at subanesthetic doses
89
Q

What preservative is in ketamine and what does it add to

A

Benzethonium Chloride, adds to cumulative analgesic effect

90
Q

What are disadvantages to ketamine

A
  • emergence delirium
  • increased aspiration risk s/t increased salivary secretions
  • prolongs duration of paralytics
  • abuse potential
91
Q

Differentiate S(+) Ketamine from R(-)Ketamine

A

S(+)= left isomer, more intense analgesia (2x more than racemic, 4x more than R), more rapid metabolism and recovery, less salivation, lower emergence reactions

92
Q

Ketamine MOA

A

Binds noncompetitively to N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors.
- Inhibits activation of NMDA receptors by glutamate and decreases the presynaptic release of glutamate.
- Glycine is an obligatory co-agonist

Other receptor sites: opioid, monoaminergic, muscarinic, and voltage-sensitive sodium and L-type calcium channels & neuronal nicotinic ACh receptors -> Analgesic effects

Weak actions at GABA-A receptors

93
Q

Ketamine protein binding

A

NOT protein binding

94
Q

What metabolite(s) are formed from ketamine

A

norketamine - active metabolite 1/5-1/3 potency; can prolong analgesia

95
Q

Ketamine Induction dosage

A

0.5-1.5mg/kg IV
4-8mg/kg IM
10mg/kg PO

96
Q

Ketamine maintenance/analgesia dose

A

0.2-0.5mg/kg IV - analgesia
4-8mg/kg IM

97
Q

Ketamine neuraxial analgesia dose

A

Epidural=30mgs

Intrathecal/spinal/SA= 5-50mg in 3mL saline

98
Q

If using ketamine for induction, what medication should be given preop?

A

Antisialagogue - glycopyrrolate

99
Q

according to lecture, Ketamine is a good choice for which patients

A

Acutely hypovolemic patients, asthmatic, MH risk

  • also used for burn patients, psychiatric disorders, reversal of opioid tolerance
100
Q

according to lecture, ketamine should be avoided for which patients

A
  • Pulmonary HTN
  • neuro/increased ICP (is a cerebral vasodilator)
101
Q

CNS effects of ketamine

A

Potent cerebral vasodilator
increases CBF 60%

  • excitatory activity in EEG, does NOT alter seizure threshold
  • increases amplitude with SSEP
102
Q

CV side effects of ketamine

A
  • resembles SNS stimulation= inc HR, BP, CO, MRO2
  • increases plasma epi & norepi levels, can cause unexpected drops in BP and CO s/t depleted catecholamine stores (treat with epi infusion)
103
Q

ketamine effects on airway and ventilation

A
  • Ventilatory response to CO2 is maintained
  • no significant depression of ventilation
  • Upper airway skeletal muscle tone and reflexes intact
  • Increased salivary and tracheobronchial mucous secretions
  • Bronchodilator activity, no histamine release
104
Q

Preventing emergence delirium from ketamine can be done by giving

A

IV benzos 5min prior to ketamine