Opioid agonist-antagonists Flashcards

1
Q

Advantages of opioid agonist-antagonists include

A
  • Analgesia
  • Limited depression of ventilation (still some but limited)
  • low potential for physical dependence
  • ceiling effect prevents additional responses
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2
Q

Phenomena where a drug’s impact on the body plateaus

A

Ceiling effect

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3
Q

Pentazocine as agonistic effects on which receptors?

A

delta(δ) and kappa (k) receptors

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4
Q

Pentazocine potency compared to Nalorphine

A

1/5th as potent as nalorphine

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5
Q

“gold standard” for comparing opioid agonist-antagonists

A

Nalorphine (equivalent to morphine)

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6
Q

Pentazocine is antagonized by

A

Naloxone (narcan)

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7
Q

How much is Pentazocine affected by 1st pass metabolism

A

highly, 20% available post PO

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8
Q

Pentazocine excretion

A

Glucuronide conjugates via urine

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9
Q

Pentazocine chronic pain dose

A

10-30mg IV, or 50mg PO (equivalent to 60mg codeine)

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10
Q

A common CV side effect from opioid agonist-antagonists is

A

decreased BP and increased HR as compensatory mechanism

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11
Q

Butorphanol agonist effect is ______ and antagonist effect is ____ to ____ compared to Pentazocine

A

agonist 20x and antagonist 10-30x higher than Pentazocine

(stronger than morphine)

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12
Q

Butorphanol has a _____ affinity for μ receptors, _____ affinity for k receptors, and _______ affinity for σ receptors

A

μ= low (antagonism)
k=moderate (analgesia and anti-shivering)
σ= minimal (low dysphoria)

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13
Q

E1/2 time of Butorphanol is

A

2.5-3.5hrs

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14
Q

Metabolism and Elimination of Butorphanol

A

Metab= liver
excretion = Bile/fecal > urine

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15
Q

Which receptor has a moderate affinity for Butorphanol’s effects to mitigate shivering and produce analgesia?

A

k- kappa receptors

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16
Q

Nalbuphine agonistic effect compared to morphine

A

equally potent

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17
Q

Nalbuphine antagonist effect compared to Nalorphine

A

1/4th as potent as Nalorphine

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18
Q

E1/2time of Nalbuphine

A

3-6hrs

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19
Q

A benefit of Nalbuphine that is different than the others

A

No increase in HR/BP, good for cardiac patients

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20
Q

Buprenorphine potency compared to morphine

A

μ receptor agonists 50x higher than morphine

(0.3mg IM = 10mg morphine)

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21
Q

DOA of Buprenorphine

A

8hrs

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22
Q

Because of its long duration of action, Buprenorphine has a _____ resistance to naloxone

A

prolonged/high resistance to naloxone

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23
Q

Which opioid agonist-antagonist is equally potent to morphine but causes higher amounts of dysphoria, so it is not commonly used?

A

Nalorphine

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24
Q

Meptazinol protein binding amount

A

25%

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25
Q

Naloxone, Naltrexone, and Nalmefene are considered

A

μ-opioid receptor antagonists, no agonist activity

competitive antagonists -> high affinity to opioid receptors

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26
Q

Naloxone uses

A
  • opioid-induced depression in post-op
  • neonate* (from mom)
  • opioid overdose
  • detect dependence
  • Hypovolemic/septic shock (inc. myocardial contract.)
  • Antagonism of general anesthesia (high doses)
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27
Q

Naloxone doses

A
  • 1-4 mcg/kg IV
  • 5 mcg/kg continuous infusion
  • > 1mg/kg IV for shock
  • epidural s/e= 0.25mcg/kg/hr IV
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28
Q

Naloxone DOA

A

30-45min, will likely require redosing

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29
Q

A dangerous s/e to Naloxone

A

cardiac dysrhythmias (v-fib), recommend to give slowly to avoid

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30
Q

Naltrexone is more effective when given _____

A

PO

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31
Q

Naltrexone DOA

32
Q

Naltrexone is primarily used for

A

alcoholism

33
Q

Nalmefene is _______ potent compared to naloxone

A

equipotent

34
Q

Nalmefene dose

A

15-25mcg IV q2-5min til 1mcg/kg

35
Q

Nalmefene E1/2time

36
Q

Methylnaltrexone is highly ionized and quarternary, meaning it

A

does not cross BBB, effects only peripherally

37
Q

Methylnaltrexone is used to

A

promote gastric emptying and antagonizes N/V; no alteration in centrally mediated analgesia

38
Q

Alvimopan is primarily used for

A

newer μ-selected PO opioid antagonist, used for post-op ileus

metabolized by gut flora

limited in long term use s/t CV events

39
Q

Suboxone is a combination of _____ and ______

A

buprenorphine and naloxone

40
Q

Embeda is a combination of ______ and ______

A

extended-release morphine and naltrexone

41
Q

OxyNal is a combination of _____ and _____

A

oxycodone and naltrexone

42
Q

Fentanyl decreases MAC of Iso and Desflurane by how much

43
Q

PCA dosing of morphine

A

basal= 0-2mg/hr, bolus= 1-2mg, interval= 6-10min

44
Q

PCA dosing of hydromorphone

A

basal=0-0.4mg/hr, bolus= 0.2-0.4mg, interval 6-10min

45
Q

PCA dosing of fentanyl

A

basal = 0-60mcg/hr, bolus= 20-50mcg, interval= 5-10min

46
Q

Neuraxial analgesia targets

A

opioid receptors in Lamina 2 (substantia gelatinosa) of spinal cord

47
Q

The 2 types of neuraxial analgesia includes

A

epidural and spinal/intrathecal/subarachnoid block (SAB)

48
Q

epidural dosing is _____ compared to spinal

A

5-10x higher

49
Q

In what analgesia does the drug diffuse across the dura

50
Q

which neuraxial used opioids are highly lipophilic

A

fentanyl and sufentanil

51
Q

which neuraxial used opioids are highly hydrophilic

A

morphine (slower onset, longer duration)

52
Q

Epidural uptake can occur via

A
  • epidural fat
  • epidural venous plexus
53
Q

Which epidural uptake can cause systemic effects?

A

uptake via epidural venous plexus

54
Q

which is a method used to reduce venous uptake in epidurals

A

use of vasoconstrictor in conjunction

55
Q

which vasoconstrictors can be used in epidurals

A

Epi (primary), phenylephrine

56
Q

Lipid solubility of fentanyl compared to morphine

A

800x more lipophilic than morphine

57
Q

lipid solubility of sufentanil compared to morphine

A

1600x more lipophilic than morphine

58
Q

_________ is when neuraxial opioids migrate upward

A

Cephalad movement

59
Q

Which spinal level are cardiac accelerator fibers located

60
Q

Which spinal level dermatome is at the nipple line

61
Q

Which spinal level dermatome is the xiphoid

62
Q

Which spinal level dermatome is the umbilical region

63
Q

Which opioid when given spinally is more likely have cephalad migration

A

morphine (mixes with CSF d/t its hydrophilic property)

64
Q

What causes an increase in cephalad movement

A

coughing and straining (valsalva)

65
Q

What is baracity?

A

whether the drug sinks or floats

66
Q

Hyperbaric drugs ____

67
Q

Hypobaric drugs _____

68
Q

What local anesthetic baracity would affect the right hip of a patient positioned in the left lateral position?

69
Q

Opioid epidural admin/CSF peak times

A

fentanyl= 20min
sufentanil= 6min
morphine= 1-4hrs

70
Q

Opioid epidural admin/plasma peak

A

fentanyl= 5-10min, similar to IM
sufentanil= <5min, similar to IM
morphine= 10-15min, similar to IM

71
Q

Opioid intrathecal/CSF/cervical levels

A

fentanyl= minimal
sufentanil= minimal
morphine= 1-5hrs

72
Q

Neuraxial anesthesia can cause pruritis if it reaches the ________

A

trigeminal nucleus in brainstem

73
Q

Treatment of pruritis due to neuraxial analgesia

A

Naloxone, antihistamines, gabapentin, propofol 10-20mg IV

74
Q

S/e of neuraxial analgesia include

A
  • ventilatory depression
  • “neuropathic” Pruritis
  • N/V
  • urinary retention in men
  • sedation
  • CNS excitation (tonic skeletal muscle rigidity like seizure activity)
  • herpes simplex labialis viral reactivation 2-5days after epidural opioid
  • neonatal morbidity
75
Q

Women are instructed not to breastfeed for how long after given neuraxial analgesia