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Path/Pharm Unit/Exam 1 > Pharm Unit 1 Basics > Flashcards

Pharm Unit 1 Basics Flashcards

1
Q

FPI=

A

Full Prescribing Information.

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2
Q

MOA=

A

Mechanism of Action.

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3
Q

These change biologic functioning via chemical action on the cell.

A

Drugs.

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4
Q

The study of how chemicals interact with living systems..

A

Pharmacology.

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5
Q

Chemicals our own body makes. Ex. cortisone.

A

Endogenous substances.

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6
Q

Drugs/substances administered to a person. Ex. prednisone.

A

Exogenous substances.

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7
Q

Undesired effects of chemicals on living systems.

A

Toxicology.

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8
Q

Harmful drugs or inorganic toxins.

A

Poisons.

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9
Q

Poisons of biologic origin (organics).

A

Toxins.

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10
Q

The total atomic weight of all the atoms in a molecule.

A

Molecular Weight (MW).

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11
Q

Organic compounds are based on these 5 elements:

A
  1. Carbon. 2. Hydrogen. 3. Oxygen. 4. Nitrogen. 5. Sulfur.
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12
Q

Neutral pH:

A

7.

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13
Q

Acidic pH:

A

1-7.

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14
Q

Basic pH:

A

7-14.

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15
Q

6 ways biochemistry affects drug activity:

A
  1. The physical state of the drug. 2. Size and shape (MW) of the drug (average MW 100-1,000). 3. Racemic drugs (right/dextro vs. left/levo orientation). 4. Bonding. 5. Diffusion. 6. Ionization and lipid permeability.
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16
Q

Hydrophilic substances are more __ soluable. (charged)

A

Water.

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17
Q

Lipophilic substances are more __ soluable. (neutral)

A

Lipid.

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18
Q

This means that the substance/drub is both water and lipid soluable.

A

Amphiphilic.

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19
Q

These astrocyte cells selectively absorb substances from the blood.

A

Neuroglia.

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20
Q

The 3 areas of the Brain that are not covered by the BBB.

A
  1. Pituitary gland. 2. Hypothalamus. 3. Pineal gland.
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21
Q

The expected benefit of the drug.

A

Therapeutic target/target outcomes.

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22
Q

DOC=

A

Drug of Choice.

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23
Q

When a drug is effective when used alone.

A

Monotherapy.

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24
Q

What the FDA has legally determined the clinical condition for the drug should be used for.

A

Label approved.

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25
Q

When clinicians prescribe drugs that are not label approved or a specific condition because the science of the drug and the available clinical evidence has demonstrated that the drug will work.

A

Off label use.

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26
Q

Possible reasons not to use a drug in a particular patient. Can be absolute or relative.

A

Contraindications.

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27
Q

The two types of Licit drugs in the US:

A
  1. Prescriptions (legend). 2. OTC/BTC.
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28
Q

This book lists all the approved drugs in the US.

A

The Orange Book.

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29
Q

CS=

A

Controlled Substances.

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30
Q

A way to draw attention to look alike drug names.

A

Tall Man Letters.

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31
Q

Drugs considered to have abuse potential and are under control of the DEA.

A

CS/Schedule drugs.

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32
Q

This schedule for CS is for illegal drugs with high potential for abuse. Ex. Heroin.

A

Schedule I/CI.

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33
Q

This schedule for CS is for lecit drugs with high potential for abuse and physical dependence. Ex. Oxycodone.

A

Schedule II/CII.

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34
Q

CSA=

A

The Controlled Substances Act.

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35
Q

This schedule for CS is for lecit drugs that still have potential for abuse, just not as much as other schedules Ex. Codeines.

A

Schedule III/CIII.

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36
Q

This schedule for CS is for lecit drugs that have less potential for abuse. Ex. Xanax.

A

Schedule IV/CIV.

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37
Q

This schedule for CS is for lecit drugs that have low potential for abuse. Ex. Tylenol with Codeine.

A

Schedule V/CV.

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38
Q

This is s 4-digit number assigned to each CS.

A

A DEA code number.

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39
Q

Actions of drugs on the body.

A

Pharmacodynamics.

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40
Q

Actions of the body on drugs.

A

Pharmacokinetics.

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41
Q

The __ of a drug reflects its strength of bonding to its specific receptor.

A

Affinity.

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42
Q

Sites on endogenous chemicals that can bind other chemicals.

A

Inert binding site.

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43
Q

When a drug has effects on the body beyond what is expected from the MOA.

A

Pleiotropic effects.

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44
Q

Drugs that are engineered in a lab.

A

Designer drugs.

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45
Q

EBM=

A

Evidence-based medicine.

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46
Q

6 Steps in the EBM process:

A
  1. Asses the patient. 2. Ask the question. 3. Acquire the evidence. 4. Appraise the evidence. 5. Apply: talk with the patients. 6. Self-Evaluation.
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47
Q

A trial in which the investigator and the patient are unaware of who is receiving the active drug or placebo. “Double blind”

A

Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT).

48
Q

A substance given to a patient with no known drug effect.

A

Placebo.

49
Q

A trial in which the investigator and patient are aware of the therapy. Example: a head to head trial of two drug to see which is better.

A

Open-label drug trial.

50
Q

USP=

A

United States Pharmacopeia.

51
Q

When generic brand drugs and Brand Name (Proprietary) drugs are interchangeable:

A

Bioequivalence.

52
Q

LD=

A

Lethal Dose.

53
Q

The lethal dose that kills 50% of the population using the drug. Usually obtained through animal studies.

A

LD50.

54
Q

Phase 1 of new drug development is done on:

A

healthy human volunteers.

55
Q

Phase 2 of new drug development is done on:

A

patients diagnosed with the disease.

56
Q

Phase 3 of new drug development is done on:

A

a larger number of patients. This is when the NDA is filed.

57
Q

Phase 4 of new drug development is when:

A

the drug has been released to the market, this is post-marketing.

58
Q

In new drug development, this is when the drug company owns the patent on the drug for a limit of 14 years.

A

Post-NDA approval.

59
Q

Drugs with limited usage for really rare diseases.

A

Orphan drugs.

60
Q

CDER=

A

Center for Drug Evaluation and Research.

61
Q

This number is assigned by the FDA and is a unique identifier for all human drugs.

A

NDC number.

62
Q

PI=

A

Prescribing Information.

63
Q

Under this act, certain vaccines must have permanent records kept.

A

The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986.

64
Q

This program financially compensates a child for a significant adverse event of disability due to a vaccination.

A

The Vaccine Injury Compensation Program.

65
Q

VAERS=

A

Vaccine Adverse Events Reporting System.

66
Q

CFSAN=

A

Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition.

67
Q

BBW=

A

Black Box Warnings.

68
Q

When a patient takes the medication as prescribed.

A

Compliance.

69
Q

When a patient takes the medication as prescribed and follows though on other elements of the management plan such as diet and exercise.

A

Adherence.

70
Q

When drug tolerance develops rapidly.

A

Tachyphylaxis.

71
Q

This occurs when a drug can have adverse effects such as withdrawal if the patient stops taking it.

A

Physical dependence.

72
Q

Feelings of satisfaction and desire to repeat drug experience, also called addiction.

A

Psychological Dependence.

73
Q

When drugs are marketed in a combined form to reduce “pill burden”.

A

Fixed-drug/dose combinations.

74
Q

The degree to which a drug is able to induce maximal effects of a defined outcome.

A

Efficacy.

75
Q

The dose of medication at which 50% of the population exhibits the desired effect.

A

ED50.

76
Q

ADR=

A

Adverse Drug Reactions. Also can be ADE or AE for “event”. This is not a medical error, it is a non-preventable reaction to the drug.

77
Q

Drugs added to a primary drug to allows the first drug to be used at a lower dose with lower toxicity.

A

Adjunctive Drugs.

78
Q

The dose at which 50% of the population using a drug will show the toxic effect.

A

TD50.

79
Q

How far away the therapeutic dose of a drug is from the toxic or lethal dose.

A

Therapeutic Index (TI).

80
Q

The dose range that give us benefit without toxicity. Efficacy vs. Safety.

A

Therapeutic Window.

81
Q

Any mistake made in diagnosis or treatment.

A

Medical error.

82
Q

IOM=

A

Institute of Medicine.

83
Q

Mistakes made in prescribing, transcribing, dispensing of administering medication.

A

Medication error.

84
Q

A mistake that has not caused harm.

A

Near miss.

85
Q

Harm caused by a mistake.

A

Preventable adverse event.

86
Q

Three types of ADR:

A
  1. Dose-related (toxic). 2. Predictable (side effects). 3. Immunologic or idiosyncratic (unrelated to pharmacologic action).
87
Q

This type of photosensitivity occurs within minutes and looks like a bad sunburn.

A

Phototoxic.

88
Q

This type of photosensitivity looks like contact dermititis and starts 24 hrs after sun exposure. Spreads through the body.

A

Photoallergic.

89
Q

Rash of red welts.

A

Urticaria.

90
Q

Severe itching.

A

Pruritis.

91
Q

A serious and potentially life-threatening reaction to medications, foods or other allergens. Occurs quickly and can cause dyspnea, urticaria and other symptoms. May need epinephrine.

A

Anaphylaxis.

92
Q

Anaphylaxis, IgE mediated, upper airway edema.

A

Type I hypersensitivity.

93
Q

An example of this type of hypersensitivity is hemolysis.

A

Type II hypersensitivity.

94
Q

Called serum sickness, due to immune complexes, symptoms are fever, purpuric rash and arthralgias.

A

Type III hypersensitivity.

95
Q

Contact dermititis.

A

Type IV hypersensitivity.

96
Q

This kind of reaction can occur after taking ampicillin and sulfa drugs. Sometimes called a fixed drug reaction.

A

Morbilliform rash.

97
Q

This can progress to Stevens-Johnson syndrome. A type of ligand-induced apoptosis after use of sulfa drugs, allopurinol and anticonvulsants.

A

Erythema multiforme.

98
Q

4 bullets of pharmacokinetics.

A
  1. Absorption. 2. Distribution to tissues. 3. Biotransformation. 4. Excretion.
99
Q

When the drug is changed in the body to some degree (usually first in the liver), can affect how much of the drug is dispersed to tissues.

A

First pass effect.

100
Q

If the parent is a ___-___, biotransformation actually converts it into the active drug.

A

Pro-drug.

101
Q

When the rate of elimination depends on the concentration of the drug in the plasma.

A

First order kinetics.

102
Q

When the rate of elimination of a drug is constant.

A

Zero order kinetics.

103
Q

A drug with no effect will enhance the effect of another drug.

A

Potentiation.

104
Q

One drug inhibits the effect of another drug.

A

Antagonism.

105
Q

Effect achieved by using combined drugs is greater that would be predicted than by simple additive effects (additive=two drugs to enhance 2+2=4).

A

Synergism. In synergism 2+2>4.

106
Q

The amount of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation.

A

Bioavailability.

107
Q

When drugs are converted to be excreted through urine.

A

Renal Excretion.

108
Q

When drugs are converted to be excreted through feces.

A

Hepatic Excretion.

109
Q

Drugs that inhibit the biotransformation enzymes which results in increased levels of drugs in the body.

A

Enzyme inhibition.

110
Q

Drugs induce the biotransformation enzymes resulting in decreased levels of drugs in the body.

A

Enzyme induction.

111
Q

If two drugs use the same biotransformation pathway, they have to take turns and thus increase body levels of both drugs.

A

Shared pathway interactions.

112
Q

Transporters n the GI tract that pump oral drugs back into the intestine.

A

P-glycoprotein transporters.

113
Q

LQTS=

A

Long QT Interval Syndrome.

114
Q

The fatal arrhythmia during cardiac distress.

A

Torsadas de pointes.

115
Q

The study of understanding the human genome to both explain and predict drug reactions.

A

Pharmacogenomics.

Path/Pharm Unit/Exam 1 (5 decks)

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