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Pharm One Liners High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

Time it takes for amount of drug to fall to half of its value, constant in first order kinetics (majority of drugs)

A

Half-life (T1/2)

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2
Q

Rifampin, phenobarbital, phenytoin, carbamazepine, St. Johns wort

A

Inducers of CYP450 (particularly CYP3A4)

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3
Q

Ritonavir (protease inhibitors), cimetadine, macrolides, ketoconazole (azoles), quinidine, amiodarone, grapefruit juice

A

Inhibitors of CYP450 (particularly CYP3A4)

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4
Q

Ability of drug to produce the maximal biologic effect

A

Efficacy

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5
Q

Mechanism of action utilizes intracellular receptors

A

Steroid and hormones

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6
Q

Mechanism of action utilizes transmembrane receptors that have intrinsic enzymatic activity

A

Insulin, EGF, TGFbeta, PDGF, ANP

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7
Q

Antidote for organophosphate/anticholinesterase poisoning

A

Atropine, pralidoxime (2-PAM)

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8
Q

Antidote acetaminophen poisoning

A

N-acetylcysteine

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9
Q

Antidote used for heparin toxicity

A

Protamine sulfate

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10
Q

Antidote used for warfarin toxicity

A

Vitamin K1 and fresh frozen plasma

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11
Q

Antidote for tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), streptokinase

A

Aminocaproic acid

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12
Q

Antidote for opioid toxicity

A

Naloxone (IV)

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13
Q

Antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity

A

Flumazenil

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14
Q

Antidote for methotrexate toxicity

A

Leucovorin

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15
Q

This agent has greater affinity for muscarinic receptors and used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention

A

Bethanechol

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16
Q

Toxicity of cholinergics

A

DUMBELSS (diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchoconstriction, excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, lacrimation, salivation, and sweating)

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17
Q

Antimuscarinic that treats Parkinsonism and extrapyramidal disease

A

Benztropine, trihexyphenidyl

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18
Q

Antimuscarinic for the treatment of motion sickness

A

Scopolamine

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19
Q

Produce mydriasis and cycloplegia

A

Atropine, anti-muscarinics

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20
Q

Antimuscarinic that causes bronchodilation in asthma and COPD

A

Ipratropium, tiotropium

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21
Q

Its ability to vasoconstrict and increase blood pressure makes it useful as local decongestant and for the therapy of spinal shock (temporary maintenance of blood pressure)

A

Alpha 1 agonists

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22
Q

Alpha 1 agonist toxicity

A

Hypertension

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23
Q

Selective alpha 1 blocker used for hypertension, benign prostatic hyperplasia, may cause first dose orthostatic hypotension

A

Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin

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24
Q

Alpha 1a-selective blocker used for benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Tamsulosin

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25
Q

Side effect of alpha blockers

A

Orthostatic hypotension (especially with first dose) and reflex tachycardia

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26
Q

Selective beta 1 receptor blockers useful for treating cardiac conditions in patients with asthma

A

Acebutolol, betaxolol, esmolol, atenolol, metoprolol (A BEAM)

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27
Q

Non-selective beta blocker that lacks local anesthetic activity, indicated for glaucoma

A

Timolol

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28
Q

Side effects of beta blockers

A

Bradycardia, AV block, impotence, dyslipidemia, exacerbation of COPD

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29
Q

Beta blockers’ effect on the heart in antianginal therapy

A

Reduce heart rate, blood pressure, contractility, and increase end-diastolic volume

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30
Q

Captopril and enalapril (-PRIL ending) are

A

ACE inhibitors

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31
Q

Side effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

A

Dry cough, hyperkalemia, angioedema

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32
Q

Inactivated by angiotensin converting enzyme, contributes to dry cough and angioedema

A

Bradykinin

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33
Q

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in

A

Pregnancy, hyperkalemia

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34
Q

Mechanism of action of losartan and valsartan

A

Block Angiotensin II Type 1 (AT1) Receptors

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35
Q

Side effect associated with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors but not angiotensin receptor blockers

A

Dry cough

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36
Q

Calcium channel blockers with predominate effect on arteriole dilation

A

Nifedipine, amlodipine, nimodipine (dihydropyridines)

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37
Q

Calcium channel blockers with predominant effect on the heart

A

Verapamil, diltiazem (non-dihydropyridines)

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38
Q

Side effects of calcium channel blockers

A

Constipation, peripheral edema, cardiac depression, AV block

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39
Q

Alpha 2 agonist used in pregnant women with hypertension

A

Methyldopa

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40
Q

Methyldopa is contraindicated in

A

Geriatrics due to its CNS (depression) effects

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41
Q

Side effect of hydralazine

A

Lupus-like syndrome

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42
Q

MOA and effect of nitric oxide

A

Stimulates cGMP, leads to vascular smooth muscle relaxation

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43
Q

Mechanism of action of sildenafil

A

Inhibits phosphodiesterase-5, which keeps it from degrading cGMP (allowing for smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation)

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44
Q

Mechanism of action of organic nitrates

A

Requires an enzymatic process to form NO, relaxes vascular smooth muscle of veins

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45
Q

Mechanism of action of class I antiarrhythmics

A

Sodium channel blockers

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46
Q

Mechanism of action of class III antiarrhythmics

A

Potassium channel blockers

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47
Q

Limiting side effect of class Ia and III antiarrhythmics

A

Prolongs QT interval

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48
Q

Most common side effects of quinidine that limits its use

A

Cinchonism

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49
Q

Side effect of procainamide

A

Systemic lupus-like syndrome

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50
Q

Drug of choice for management of acute ventricular tachycardia

A

Amiodarone

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51
Q

Side effects of Amiodarone

A

Thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, liver damage and pulmonary fibrosis

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52
Q

Life threatening cardiac event that prolong QT leads to

A

Torsades de pointes

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53
Q

Mechanism of action of statins

A

inhibits HMG COA reductase

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54
Q

Two side effects of HMG COA reductase inhibitors

A

Rhabdomyolysis and Hepatotoxicity

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55
Q

Two parameters to obtain before initiation of statins

A

LFT’s, creatine kinase

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56
Q

How grapefruit juice increases statin effect

A

Inhibit CYP450 3A4

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57
Q

Fibrates increase activity of

A

Lipoprotein lipase

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58
Q

Mechanism of action involves indirect reduction of liver triglyceride synthesis

A

Niacin, fibrates

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59
Q

Side effects of niacin

A

Cutaneous flush

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60
Q

Side effect of aspirin

A

GI bleeding

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61
Q

Vitamin K dependent anticoagulant with zero-order kinetics of elimination

A

Warfarin (PT)

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62
Q

Heparin (PTT) increases activity of

A

Antithrombin 3

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63
Q

Specific side effect of heparin

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

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64
Q

Mechanism of action of thrombolytics

A

Lyse thrombi by catalyzing the formation of plasmin which cleaves fibrin

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65
Q

Indications for thrombolytics

A

Pulmonary embolism, severe deep vein thrombosis

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66
Q

Diuretic used as prophylactic for mountain sickness and glaucoma

A

Acetazolamide

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67
Q

Side effects of acetazolamide

A

Alkalization of the urine (precipitate Ca salts), metabolic acidosis, hypokalemia, paresthesias, and encephalopathy in patients with hepatic impairment

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68
Q

Site of action of loop diuretics

A

Thick ascending limb (NKCC channel)

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69
Q

Side effects of loop diuretics

A

Hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and ototoxicity (also hyperglycemia and hypocalcemia)

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70
Q

An electrolyte that is lost in the urine by acute treatment with loop diuretics but can be retained by thiazides

A

Calcium

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71
Q

Site of action of thiazide diuretics

A

Early distal convoluted tubule (Na-Cl Symporter)

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72
Q

Side effects of thiazide diuretics

A

Hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hyperlipidemia, and hyperglycemia (also hypercalcemia)

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73
Q

Mechanism of action of amiloride

A

Inhibit epithelial sodium channels (ENaC) in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct

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74
Q

Diuretic used to treat primary aldosteronism

A

Spironolactone, eplerenone

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75
Q

Side effect of spironolactone

A

Gynecomastia, hyperkalemia, and impotence

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76
Q

Diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure

A

Mannitol

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77
Q

Antidiuretic hormone analog used for central diabetes insipidus and nocturnal enuresis

A

Desmopressin

78
Q

Cheap wide spectrum antibiotic drug of choice for otitis media

A

Amoxicillin

79
Q

Drug of choice for N. gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

80
Q

Drug used for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

81
Q

Mechanism of action of vancomycin

A

Binds D-Ala-D-Ala on murein monomers and prevent polymerization of the murein monomers

82
Q

Drug of choice for giardia, entamoeba, pseudomembranous colitis (C. Diff.), and trichomonas

A

Metronidazole

83
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of mild to moderate pseudomembranous colitis

A

Metronidazole

84
Q

Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV

85
Q

Reason fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in children and pregnancy

A

Cartilage damage

86
Q

Anemia caused by trimethoprim

A

Megaloblastic anemia

87
Q

Anti-bacterials that cause hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients

A

Sulfonamides

88
Q

Mechanism of action of sulfonamides

A

Inhibit dihydropteroate synthase

89
Q

Quadruple therapy for the treatment of tuberculosis

A

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, and Ethambutol

90
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis in exposed patients

91
Q

Common side effect of Rifampin

A

Orange urine discoloration

92
Q

Technique used to diagnose perianal itching, and the drug used to treat it

A

Scotch tape technique (Pinworm test - Enterobius vermicularis); mebendazole (can also use albendazole)

93
Q

Drug of choice for influenza A and B

A

Oseltamivir or Zanamivir

94
Q

Drug of choice for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

95
Q

Drug of choice for herpes and its mechanism of action

A

Acyclovir; activated by viral thymidine kinase, inhibits viral DNA replication

96
Q

Anti-retroviral class that causes drug interactions by causing inhibition of CYP enzymes

A

Protease inhibitors

97
Q

Prostaglandins that cause abortions

A

Prostaglandin E1 (misoprostol), PGE2, and PGF2alpha

98
Q

Prostaglandin analog used as 2nd line for erectile dysfunction

A

Alprostadil (PGE1)

99
Q

Prostaglandin analog used in pediatrics to maintain patency of ductus arteriosis

A

Alprostadil (PGE1)

100
Q

NSAID that may be used for closure of patent ductus arteriosus

A

Indomethacin

101
Q

Two main actions of acetaminophen

A

Antipyretic and analgesic activity

102
Q

Inhibitor of lipoxygenase

103
Q

Agent that inhibits xanthine oxidases and used to treat chronic gout

A

Allopurinol, febuxostat

104
Q

DMARDs are slow acting drugs for this indication

A

Rheumatic diseases

105
Q

1st line for rheumatoic arthritis for most patients

A

Low-dose methotrexate

106
Q

Dose-limiting toxicity of methotrexate

A

Myelosuppression

107
Q

Drug for treating malignant hyperthermia associated with drug-drug interaction between halogenated anesthetics and depolarizing neuromuscular blocker (succinylcholine)

A

Dantrolene

108
Q

Mechanism of action of cromolyn

A

Prevent mast cell degranulation (by blocking opening of Cl- channels)

109
Q

Ergot dopamine agonist used to suppress prolactin release

A

Bromocriptine

110
Q

Synthetic human corticotropin used for diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency

A

Cosyntropin

111
Q

Agent used to stimulate uterine contraction and labor, milk letdowns, and control postpartum bleeding

112
Q

Agent of choice for the treatment of hypothyroidism

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

113
Q

Thioamide less likely to cross placenta, inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in high doses, and indicated for pregnant women in 1st trimester

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

114
Q

Propylthiouracil (PTU) mechanism of action

A

Inhibits thyroid peroxidase

115
Q

Side effects of corticosteroids

A

Iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome, hyperglycemia, impaired wound healing, osteoporosis, peptic ulcers, myopathy, adrenal suppression (> 2 week treatment)

116
Q

Intermediate-acting insulin with variable pharmacokinetics; use is mostly replaced by long-acting insulin

A

Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin

117
Q

First line drug for the treatment of type 2 diabetes

118
Q

Most serious side effect of metformin

A

Lactic acidosis

119
Q

May be used intranasally to decreases bone resorption

A

Calcitonin (salmon prep)

120
Q

Selective estrogen receptor modulator most commonly used for the treatment of breast cancer

121
Q

Selective estrogen receptor modulator used for prevention of osteoporosis and invasive breast cancer

A

Raloxifene

122
Q

Androgen receptor agonist used to treat hypogonadism and promote secondary sex characteristics

A

Testosterone

123
Q

Distribution of histamine receptors H1, H2, and H3

A

Smooth muscle and mast cells; stomach, heart, and mast cells; nerve endings, CNS respectively

124
Q

1st generation antihistamine that is highly sedating

A

Diphendydramine

125
Q

Three 2nd generation antihistamines

A

Fexofenadine, loratadine, and cetirizine

126
Q

H2 antagonist that causes the most interactions with other drugs

A

Cimetidine

127
Q

5HT-1A receptor partial agonist indicated for generalized anxiety disorder; due to longer onset of action, is less effective for acute anxiety

128
Q

5HT-1D/1B agonist used for migraine headaches

A

Sumatriptan and -triptans

129
Q

H1 antihistamine with 5HT2 antagonist activity that is mostly used for carcinoid tumor but may be used to treat serotonin syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine

130
Q

5HT-3 antagonist used for the prevention of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting

A

Ondansetron and -setrons

131
Q

Three beta blockers that decrease aqueous production

A

Timolol (nonselective), betaxolol (selective), carteolol (nonselective)

132
Q

Prostaglandin 2 alpha analog used to increase aqueous humor outflow

A

Latanoprost

133
Q

Mechanism of action of benzodiazepines

A

Increase frequency of GABA-mediated chloride ion channel (GABAA) opening

134
Q

Mechanism of action of barbiturates

A

Increase duration of GABAA chloride channel opening

135
Q

Three nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics that lack suppressive effect on REM and are preferred over benzodiazepines for the treatment of insomnia

A

Zolpidem, zaleplon, eszopiclone

136
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of acute status epilepticus

A

Diazepam, lorazepam

137
Q

Drug of choice for partial seizures

A

Carbamazepine

138
Q

Drugs of choice for generalized tonic-clonic seizures

A

Carbamazepine, phenytoin, valproic acid

139
Q

Antiepileptic agent that exhibits zero-order kinetics, causes fetal hydantoin syndrome, and induces CYP450

140
Q

Side effects of phenytoin

A

Gingival hyperplasia, nystagmus, diplopia and ataxia

141
Q

Drug of choice for myoclonic seizures that may also be used for absence seizures

A

Valproic acid

142
Q

Drug of choice for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

143
Q

Antiepileptic drug used also for pain of neuropathic orgin

A

Gabapentin

144
Q

Mechanism of action of opioids on analgesia

A

Activate mu receptors to 1. close presynaptic Ca2+ channels to inhibit neurotransmitter release, 2. open postsynaptic K+ channels to hyperpolarize cell membrane

145
Q

Tolerance to all effects of opioid agonists can develop except

A

Miosis, constipation

146
Q

Opioid that can be given PO, IV, IM, and intrathecal to relieve anxiety associated with pulmonary edema

147
Q

Opioid available trans-dermally

148
Q

Long-acting opioids used for the management of withdrawal states (these drugs are used for pts with an opioid addiction)

A

Methadone, buprenorphine

149
Q

Moderate opioid agonists

A

Codeine, hydrocodone, and oxycodone

150
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given IV

151
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given orally

A

Naltrexone

152
Q

Rare, but fatal side effect associated with combination of halogenated inhalation anesthetic and depolarizing neuromuscular blocker (succinylcholine)

A

Malignant hyperthermia

153
Q

Opioid safe for use of analgesia and anesthesia during cardiac surgery

154
Q

Produces dissociative anesthesia but has significant analgesic activity

155
Q

Precursor of dopamine that can cross the blood-brain-barrier and used to alleviate motor dysfunction in Parkinson’s disease

A

Levodopa (L-dopa)

156
Q

Inhibits peripheral DOPA decarboxylase, reduces peripheral side effects of dopamine precursor and enhances its delivery to the brain

157
Q

Inhibits monoamine oxidase type B (MAO-B), used as monotherapy for early or mild Parkinson’s disease or adjunct to improve motor function in patients with fluctuations in clinical response

A

Selegiline

158
Q

Three main classes of CNS depressant drugs of abuse

A

Alcohol, opioid, barbiturate/benzodiazepine

159
Q

Agent that is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase or microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system (MEOS) to acetaldehyde; displays zero-order kinetics of elimination

160
Q

Enzyme that is induced through chronic exposure to alcohol, may contribute to tolerance

A

Microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (MEOS)

161
Q

Neurological abnormality caused by chronic alcohol use and thiamine deficiency

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

162
Q

Respiratory and CNS depression, pinpoint pupils, seizures, and needle track marks are symptoms of this intoxication

163
Q

Opioid receptor antagonist that is used to treat opioid intoxication, may cause more rapid and intense symptoms of withdrawal

164
Q

Two date rape drugs that work through enhancement of GABA receptors in the brain

A

Flunitrazepam, GHB (γ-hydroxybutyrate)

165
Q

Benzodiazepine antagonist used to treat benzodiazepine intoxication

A

Flumazenil

166
Q

Treatments available for nicotine addiction

A

Patch, gum, lozenge, bupropion, varenicline

167
Q

Synthetic ergot derivative that can produce perceptual hallucinations and used as an illicit drug; may cause paranoia

A

LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide)

168
Q

Active ingredient is tetrahydrocannabinol (THC); side effects include impairment of judgment, altered sense of time, increased appetite, and hallucinations

169
Q

Primary mechanism of action of typical antipsychotics

A

Inhibits D2 receptors

170
Q

Common endocrine side effects of all typical antipsychotic drugs

A

Hyperprolactinemia, galactorrhea

171
Q

Common side effects of low potency typical antipsychotic drugs

A

Dry mouth (anticholinergic), sedation (antihistamine), hypotension (α1 block)

172
Q

Side effects more commonly associated with high potency typical antipsychotic drugs

A

Extrapyramidal symptoms: Dystonia (continuous spasms/muscle contractions), Akathisia (motor restlessness), Bradykinesia (slow movement), Tardive Dyskinesia (irregulary, jerky movements - typically in the face)

173
Q

Life-threatening side effect associated with typical antipsychotic drugs

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

174
Q

Treatment for drug-induced neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Dantrolene

175
Q

Primary mechanism of action of atypical antipsychotics

A

Inhibit 5-HT2 receptors

176
Q

Atypical antipsychotic that can produce potentially fatal agranulocytosis and increase incidence of seizures

177
Q

Three life-threatining side effects associated with tricyclic antidepressants

A

Convulsion, cardiotoxocity, coma (3 C’s)

178
Q

Serious side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors when used with other drugs such as monoamine oxidase inhibitors, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors, or tricyclic antidepressants

A

Serotonin Syndrome

179
Q

Antidepressant that non-selectively inhibits neuronal reuptake; less likely to cause sedation, autonomic, cardiovascular, or sexual dysfunction; also used for smoking cessation

180
Q

Antidepressant that inhibits serotonin reuptake but also antagonizes 5HT-2 receptors; causes priapism

181
Q

First line drug for classic bipolar disorder with euphoric mania

182
Q

Side effects of lithium

A

Tremor, hypothyroidism, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, fetal cardiac defects

183
Q

Antineoplastic folic acid analog that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

A

Methotrexate

184
Q

Two antineoplastics that require dose-reduction in patients who are taking allopurinol

A

Azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine

185
Q

Hyperstabilizes microtubule polymer and prevents microtubule breakdown

A

Paclitaxel, -taxels

186
Q

Nitrosureas that spontaneously form active intermediates that cross-link DNA; can cross blood-brain-barrier and is indicated for brain tumors

A

Carmustine, -mustines, streptozocin

187
Q

Iron-chelator that is used to protect against anthracycline-induced cardio-toxicity

A

Dexrazoxane

188
Q

DNA intercalating agent with minimal myelosuppression that induces formation of free radicals; dose-limiting side effects include pulmonary fibrosis and mucocutaneous reactions

189
Q

Agent used for megaloblastic anemia (but does not reverse neurologic symptoms) and decrease neural tube defects during pregnancy

A

Folic acid

190
Q

Agent used for pernicious anemia

A

Cyanocobalamin (Vit B12)

191
Q

Agent used for anemias (especially with renal failure)

A

Erythropoietin

BOARDS (21 decks)

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