Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BOARDS > Pharm One Liners > Flashcards

Pharm One Liners Flashcards

1
Q

Relates the amount of drug in the body to the plasma concentration

A

Volume of distribution (VD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Plasma concentration of a drug at a given time

A

Cp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its plasma concentration

A

Clearance (CL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hepatic metabolism of the drug before it reaches the systemic circulation

A

First pass effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The fraction of unchanged drug that reaches systemic circulation after administration

A

Bioavailability (F)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When the rate of drug input equals the rate of drug elimination

A

Steady state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Different steps of Phase I

A

Oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name 3 Phase II conjugation reactions

A

Glucuronidation, acetylation, glutathione conjugation, glycine conjugation, sulfation, methylation, water conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Constant percentage of drug metabolized per unit time

A

First order kinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Constant amount of drug metabolized per unit time

A

Zero order kinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Target plasma concentration times (volume of distribution divided by bioavailability)

A

Loading dose (Cp*(Vd/F))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Concentration in the plasma times (clearance divided by bioavailability)

A

Maintenance dose (Cp*(CL/F))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Strength of interaction between drug and its receptor

A

Affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Selectivity of a drug for its receptor

A

Specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Amount of drug necessary to elicit a biologic effect compared with another drug

A

Potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ability of a drug to produce maximal response after binding to the receptor

A

Full agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ability to produce less than maximal response after binding to the receptor

A

Partial agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ability to bind reversibly to the same site as the drug and without activating the effector system

A

Competitive antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ability to bind irreversibly to the active site or bind to a site distinctly separate from the agonist binding site

A

Noncompetitive antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mechanism of action utilizes ligand gated ion channels

A

Acetylcholine, nicotine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dose that produces therapeutic response in 50% of the population

A

ED50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dose that is toxic to 50% of the population

A

TD50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dose that is lethal to 50% of the population

A

LD50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Window between therapeutic effect and toxic effect

A

Therapeutic index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Drugs that have a high margin of safety is indicated by

A

High therapeutic index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Drugs that have a narrow margin of safety is indicated by

A

Low therapeutic index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Antidote for lead poisoning

A

Edetate calcium disodium, succimer, or dimercaprol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Antidote for cyanide poisoning

A

Nitrates, thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Antidotefor anticholinergic poisoning

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Antidote for iron salt poisoning

A

Deferoxamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Antidote for arsenic, mercury, and gold poisoning

A

Dimercaprol, succimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Antidote for Wilson’s disease (copper poisoning)

A

Penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Antidote for methanol and ethylene glycol toxicity

A

Fomepizole, ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Antidote for tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)

A

Sodium bicarbonate (alkalinize plasma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Antidote for carbon monoxide poisoning

A

100% O2 and hyperbaric O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Antidote for digitalis toxicity

A

Digibind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Antidote for beta-blocker overdose

A

Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Method to reduce salicylate intoxication

A

Sodium bicarbonate (alkalinize urine), dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Muscarinic that is very lipid soluble and used in glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Muscarinic used to treat dry mouth in Sjögren’s syndrome

A

Pilocarpine or Cevimeline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cholinesterase inhibitor, short duration of action, used in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

A

Edrophonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cholinesterase inhibitor, intermediate duration of action, used off-label for postoperative paralytic ileus and urinary retention

A

Neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cholinesterase inhibitor, lipid soluble, indicated for atropine overdose and glaucoma

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Treatment of myasthenia gravis and sometimes used prophylactically for organophosphate poisoning in chemical warfare

A

Pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Organophosphate, indicated for glaucoma but not used much clinically due to long duration of action

A

Echothiophate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Insecticide organophosphate

A

Malathion, parathion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The most important cause of acute deaths in cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity

A

Respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Used in treatment of muscarinic symptoms in organophosphate overdose

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Mechanism of action of atropine

A

Nonselective antimuscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Antimuscarinic indicated for overactive bladder muscle dysfunction

A

Oxybutynin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Toxicity of anticholinergics

A

Anti-DUMBBELSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Another pneumonic for anticholinergic toxicity

A

“dry as a bone, red as a beet, mad as a hatter, hot as a hare, blind as a bat”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Atropine fever is the most dangerous effect and can be lethal in this population group

A

Infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Contraindications to use of atropine

A

Infants, closed angle glaucoma, prostatic hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Pneumonic for beta receptors

A

You have 1 heart (Beta 1) and 2 lungs (Beta 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Indirect acting sympathomimetic, reuptake inhibitor, commonly abused, indicated for attention deficit disorder and weight reduction

A

Methamphetamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Alpha agonist indicated for nasal congestion, hypotension, and mydriasis induction

A

Phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Short acting beta 2 agonist, drug of choice for acute asthma

A

Albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Longer acting beta 2 agonist, indicated for prophylaxis of asthma

A

Salmeterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Its ability to increase heart rate makes it useful as adjunct therapy for acute heart failure and hypovolemia or septic shock

A

Beta 1 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Indicated for symptomatic orthostatic hypotension

A

Midodrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Beta 2 agonist used to suppress premature labor, but cardiac stimulatory effects may be hazardous to mother and fetus

A

Terbutaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Indirect acting sympathomimetic, improves urinary continence in children and elderly with enuresis

A

Ephedrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Beta agonists used in acute congestive heart failure

A

Dobutamine and dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Beta 1 agonist toxicity

A

Sinus tachycardia and serious arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Beta 2 agonist toxicity

A

Skeletal muscle tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Irreversible, nonselective alpha-blocker indicated for pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Reversible, nonselective alpha blocker indicated for pheochromocytoma

A

Phentolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Blocks alpha 1 and beta receptors and indicated for the treatment of CHF

A

Labetalol and carvedilol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Beta blockers with partial agonist activity, can bronchodilate and may have an advantage treating patients with asthma

A

Pindolol and acebutolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Short-acting beta blocker that can be given parenterally

A

Esmolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Clinical uses of these agents include treatment of hypertension, angina, arrhythmias, and chronic congestive heart failure

A

Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Beta-blockers should be used cautiously in

A

Asthma (bronchospastic effects), diabetes (block signs of hypoglycemia) and peripheral vascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Beta blockers are used for this type of angina attack

A

Classic (exertional) angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

A nonselective beta blocker with alpha 1 blocking effect indicated for congestive heart failure

A

Carvedilol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

This class of drugs inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers

A

Block L-type calcium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Side effects of methyldopa

A

Positive Comb’s hemolytic anemia, SLE-like syndrome, CNS depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Side effect of clonidine

A

Rebound hypertension, sedation, dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Direct vasodilator of arteriolar smooth muscle by increasing cGMP and inhibit IP3-induced calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Hydralazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Arterial vasodilator that works by opening K+ channels

A

Minoxidil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Side effect of minoxidil

A

Hypertrichosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

IV nitrate used in hypertensive crisis

A

Nitroprusside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Nitroprusside vasodilates

A

Arteries and veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Side effect of nitroprusside

A

Cyanide poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Drugs used in the management of exertional (classic) angina

A

Nitrates, calcium channel blockers, beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Aspirin reduces mortality in unstable angina by

A

Inhibiting platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Nitrate free intervals are needed due to

A

Tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Side effects of nitrates

A

Reflex tachycardia, hypotension, flushing, and throbbing headache due to meningeal artery dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Mechanism of action of cardiac glycosides (eg. digoxin)

A

Inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase and indirectly increase intracellular calcium and cardiac contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Indication of digoxin

A

Atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by

A

Hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Phosphodiesterase (PDE3) inhibitors indicated for acute congestive heart failure; long term use is associated with increased mortality

A

Amrinone and milrinone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Side effect of amrinone and milrinone

A

Thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Agent used in acutely decompensated congestive heart failure resembling natriuretic peptide

A

Nesiritide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Mechanism of action of class II antiarrhythmics

A

Beta -blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Mechanism of action of class IV antiarrhythmics

A

Calcium channel blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Major drug interaction with quinidine

A

Increases concentration of digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Contraindication of disopyramide use

A

Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Used as last line antiarrhythmic agents due to proarrhythmic property; strongest sodium channel blocker

A

Class IC (flecainide, propafenone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Anti-arrhythmic agents that decrease mortality

A

B-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Used intravenously for acute tachycardia during and post- surgery

A

Esmolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Antiarrhythmic effective in most types of arrhythmia

A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Class III antiarrhythmic that exhibits properties of all 4 classes

A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Antiarrhythmic that exhibits Class II and III properties

A

Sotalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Side effect of sotalol

A

prolongs QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Drug of choice for narrow complex paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)

A

Adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Mechanism of action of adenosine

A

Activates G-protein coupled K+ channels in atrium, SA and AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Anti-arrhythmic with <10 second duration of action

A

Adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Drug of choice for early after depolarizations (Torsade)

A

Magnesium sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors are contraindicated in

A

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Concurrent use of fibrates and statins increases risk of

A

Rhabdomyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Class of agents for cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevalem

A

Bile acid-binding resins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Major nutritional side effect of bile acid-binding resins

A

Impair absorption of fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E,K)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Side effect of fenofibrate and gemfibrozil

A

Gallstone formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Cutaneous flush due to niacin can be reduced by pretreatment with

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Inhibits intestinal cholesterol absorption by inhibiting Niemann Pick C1 Like 1 (NPC1L1) Protein

A

Ezetimibe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Mechanism of action of aspirin

A

Irreversibly blocks COX1 and COX2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Agent used to treat myocardial infarction (MI) and to reduce incidence of subsequent MI

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Antiplatelet drug reserved for patients allergic to aspirin

A

Ticlopidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Side effect for ticlopidine

A

Neutropenia and agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Irreversible inhibitor of platelet P2Y12 receptors; effective in preventing transient ischemic attack

A

Clopidogrel and ticlopidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor indicated for intermittent claudication

A

Dipyridamole, cilostazol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Block glycoprotein IIb/IIIa involved in platelet cross-linking

A

Abciximab, tirofiban and eptifibatide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Route of administration of warfarin

A

Oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Contraindication of warfarin

A

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy

A

Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Routes of administration of heparin

A

IV and SC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Side effect of both warfarin and heparin

A

Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Two anticoagulant used for prophylaxis and treatment of thrombosis in patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A

Bivalirudin, argatroban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Thrombolytic used for acute myocardial infarction and ischemic (non-hemorrhagic) cerebral vascular accident (stroke)

A

Alteplase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Side effect of tissue plasminogen activators

A

cerebral hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Thrombolytic that can cause allergic reaction and non-selective systemic fibrinolysis

A

Streptokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A

Acetazolamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Mechanism of action of loop diuretics

A

inhibits Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Diuretic used in hypertensive patients with renal failure

A

Loop diuretics (furosemide, ethacrynic acid, butmetanide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Aminoglycosides used with loop diuretics potentiate this adverse effect

A

Ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Mechanism of action of thiazide diuretics

A

Inhibit Na+/Cl- cotransport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Diuretic used as first line for treatment of hypertension

A

Thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Class of drugs that may cause cross-sensitivity with thiazide diuretics

A

Sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Mechanism of action of spironolactone

A

Inhibit mineralocorticoid (aldosterone) receptor resulting in inhibition of Na/K-ATPase and ENaC synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Diuretics work in congestive failure by

A

Reducing preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Agents used for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion

A

Tolvaptan and conivaptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

An early generation tetracycline that may be used for chronic persistant syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion

A

demeclocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Side effect of demeclocycline

A

Stunted bone growth and teeth discoloration for children under 8 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Antibacterials for optimal treatment of acute uncomplicated cystitis

A

Nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, fosfomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Antibacterials for optimal treatment of acute pyelonephritis

A

Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin), trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Mechanism of action of penicillin

A

Block cell wall synthesis by inhibiting transpeptidase and block peptidoglycan cross-linkage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Penicillins active against penicillinase secreting bacteria

A

Methicillin, nafcillin, and dicloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Class of antibiotics that have 10% cross sensitivity with penicillins

A

Cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Penicillins active against pseudomonas

A

Piperacillin and ticarcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Beta lactam that can be used in penicillin-allergic patients

A

Aztreonam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Side effect of imipenem

A

Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of serious pseudomembranous colitis

A

Oral vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Antibiotic causing red-man syndrome, and prevention

A

Vancomycin, can be prevented by infusion

at a slow rate and antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Drug causes teeth discoloration

A

Tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Mechanism of action of tetracycline

A

Decreases protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosome and prevent binding of tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Two toxicities of aminoglycosides

A

Nephro and ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Aminoglycoside less used due to its irreversible vestibular toxicity

A

Streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Mechanism of action of macrolides (erythromycin, clarithromycin)

A

Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to 23S rRNA of 50S ribosome subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Drug of choice for Legionnaires’ disease

A

Azithromycin or levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Drug notorious for causing pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Drug that causes gray baby syndrome and aplastic anemia

A

Chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Inhibits isoleucyl tRNA and used topically for impetigo

A

Mupirocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Side effect of metronidazole when given with alcohol

A

Disulfiram-like reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Neurotoxicity with isoniazid can be prevented by

A

Administration of Vit B6 (pyridoxine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Side effect of isoniazid

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus, peripheral neuritis, hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Drug of choice for leprosy

A

Dapsone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Toxicity of amphotericin

A

Nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Side effect of ketoconazole only in men

A

Gynecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Mechanism of action of nystatin

A

Binds to ergosterol and creates a pore in fungal membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Drug used in exoerythrocytic cycle of malaria

A

Primaquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Drug of choice for cytomegalovirus (CMV) treatment

A

Ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Side effect of ganciclovir

A

Myelosuppression (neutropenia)

176
Q

First line for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infections

A

IFN + nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)

177
Q

First line for the treatment of chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV) infections in genotype 1 patients

A

IFN + ribavirin + protease inhibitor (-previr)

178
Q

HIV medication used to reduce mother-to-child transmission during birth

A

Zidovudine, nevirapine

179
Q

Antivirals associated with neutropenia

A

Ganciclovir, zidovudine, interferon

180
Q

Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors approved for both HIV and HBV infections

A

Tenofovir, lamivudine

181
Q

Antiviral/antiretroviral that are teratogens

A

Efavirenz, and ribavirin

182
Q

Anti-retroviral with a dose limiting toxicity of pancreatitis and peripheral neuropathy

A

Didanosine

183
Q

Three anti-retroviral agents associated with fatal Stephen-Johnson syndrome

A

Nevirapine, efavirenz, etravirine

184
Q

Anti-retroviral class that causes drug interactions by causing induction of CYP enzymes

A

Non-nucleos(t)ide reverse transcriptase inhibitors

185
Q

Class of drugs that reversibly inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX)

A

NSAIDS

186
Q

Mechanism of action of non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)

A

inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase (cox)

187
Q

Four main actions of NSAIDS

A

Anti-inflammatory, analgesia, antipyretic and antiplatelet activity

188
Q

Irreversible, nonselective COX inhibitor that displays zero-order kinetics of elimination

A

Aspirin

189
Q

The reason why aspirin is contraindicated in children with viral infection

A

Potential for development of Reye’s syndrome

190
Q

Two side effects of salicylates

A

Tinnitus, GI bleeding

191
Q

Prostaglandin analog indicated for severe pulmonary hypertension

A

Epoprostenol (PGI2)

192
Q

NSAID available orally, IM, IV, nasally, and ophthalmically

A

Ketoralac

193
Q

NSAID used mostly for anesthesia and has limited duration (<5 days) due to nephrotoxicity

A

Ketoralac

194
Q

Difference between COX 1 and COX 2

A

COX 1: constitutive, COX 2: inducible during inflammation

195
Q

Selective COX 2 inhibitor

A

Celecoxib

196
Q

COX 2 inhibitors may have reduced risk of

A

Gastric ulcers and GI Bleeding

197
Q

COX 2 inhibitors should be used cautiously in patients with

A

Pre-existing cardiac or renal disease

198
Q

Side effect of acetaminophen

A

Hepatotoxicity

199
Q

Major side effect of zileuton that limits its use

A

Liver toxicity

200
Q

Two leukotrienes (LTD4) receptor antagonists used in asthma

A

Zafirlukast and montelukast

201
Q

First line drugs for acute gout

A

Indomethacin, naproxen

202
Q

NSAID avoided in gout because low doses increases uric acid levels

A

Aspirin

203
Q

Mechanism of action of colchicine

A

Inhibits microtubule assembly, decreases leukocyte migration and phagocytosis

204
Q

Side effects of colchicine

A

Diarrhea, liver toxicity, myelosuppression

205
Q

Agent used to treat chronic gout by increasing uric acid excretion through inhibition of URAT1 anion transporter

A

Probenecid

206
Q

Recombinant uricase that enhances uric acid metabolism and indicated for gout refractory to conventional therapy

A

Pegloticase

207
Q

A mixture of two agents with one agent active for rheumatic disease and the other for inflammatory bowel disease

A

Sulfasalazine

208
Q

Alternative to methotrexate as 1st line for rheumatoid arthritis through inhibition of dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, which leads to decreased pyrimidine synthesis

A

Leflunomide

209
Q

Side effect of penicillamine

A

Hypersensitivity (rash), nephrotoxicity, myopathy, myelosuppression

210
Q

Anti-malarial drug used in rheumatoid arthritis

A

Hydroxychloroquine

211
Q

Side effect of hydroxychloroquine

A

Retinopathy

212
Q

Two drugs that bind and prevent action of tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)

A

Infliximab and etanercept

213
Q

Structurally related to acetylcholine, used to produce muscle paralysis in order to facilitate surgery or artifical ventilation. Full doses lead to respiratory paralysis and require ventilation

A

Neuromuscular blocking drugs

214
Q

This class of agents block acetylcholine receptors at motor endplates and its effects can be reversed by cholinesterase inhibitors

A

Nondepolarizing blockers

215
Q

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker with long duration of action and is most likely to cause histamine release

A

Tubocurarine

216
Q

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker with short duration of action

A

Mivacurium

217
Q

Two non-depolarizing blockers that undergo Hofmann elimination, which is useful for patients with renal and hepatic deficiency

A

Atracurium, cisatracurium

218
Q

Non-depolaring neuromuscular blocker with long duration of action that can block muscarinic receptor in the heart

A

Pancuronium

219
Q

These drugs strongly potentiate and prolong effect of neuromuscular blockers

A

Inhalation anesthetics (isoflurane), antibiotics (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines)

220
Q

Depolarizing blocker that causes muscle relaxation and paralysis and can cause postoperative muscle pain

A

Succinylcholine

221
Q

Two life-threatening side effects of succinylcholine

A

Hyperkalemia, malignant hyperthermia

222
Q

During Phase I depolarizing block this class of agents enhance muscle paralysis, but during Phase II block they may reverse muscle paralysis

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

223
Q

Drug of choice for reversal of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade

A

Neostigmine

224
Q

Enzyme which theophylline inhibits

A

Phosphodiesterase

225
Q

Growth hormone analog used in growth hormone deficiency

A

Somatropin

226
Q

Somatostatin analog used for acromegaly, carcinoid, glucagonoma and other growth hormone-producing pituitary tumors

A

Octreotide

227
Q

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone analog used for infertility (pulsatile administration) or suppression of gonadotropin production (continuous administration)

A

Leuprolide

228
Q

Competitive antagonists at gonadotropin releasing hormone receptors used to prevent LH surge during controlled ovarian hyperstimulation

A

Ganirelix

229
Q

An isomer of T3 which may be used in myxedema coma

A

Liothyronine (T3)

230
Q

Thioamide agents used in hyperthyroidism

A

Methimazole and propylthiouracil (PTU)

231
Q

Can be effective for short term therapy of thyroid storm, but after several weeks of therapy causes an exacerbation of hyperthyroidism

A

Iodide salts (potassium iodide)

232
Q

Permanently cures thyrotoxicosis, patients will need thyroid replacement therapy thereafter. Contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Radioactive iodine

233
Q

Used for the symptomatic treatment of thyrotoxicosis by blocking cardiac adverse effects

A

Beta-blockers such as propranolol and esmolol

234
Q

Used for Addison’s disease, congenital adrenal hyperplasia inflammation, immune suppression, and asthma

A

Glucocorticoids

235
Q

Two short-acting glucocorticoids

A

Hydrocortisone (cortisol), cortisone

236
Q

Four intermediate-acting glucocorticoids

A

Prednisone, prednisolone, methylprednisolone, and triamcinolone

237
Q

Two long-acting glucocorticoids

A

Betamethasone, dexamethasone

238
Q

Mineralocorticoids

A

Fludrocortisone and deoxycorticosterone

239
Q

Inhibits conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone therefore inhibiting corticosteroid synthesis

A

Aminoglutethimide

240
Q

Antifungal agent used to inhibit adrenal and gonadal steroid synthesis

A

Ketoconazole

241
Q

Selective inhibitor of 11-hydroxylation and interferes with cortisol and corticoterone synthesis; used for adrenal function tests and is the only adrenal-inhibiting medication that can be administered to pregnant women with Cushing’s syndrome

A

Metyrapone

242
Q

Glucoroticoid receptor antagonist that is used as an antiabortifacient due to its strong antiprogestin activity

A

Mifepristone (RU486)

243
Q

Three rapid-acting insulin used for postprandial glycemia

A

Aspart, lispro, glulisine

244
Q

Short-acting insulin used intravenously for ketoacidosis

A

Regular insulin

245
Q

Two long-acting insulin preparations that provide basal glycemia control

A

Glargine, detemir

246
Q

Major side effect of insulin

A

Hypoglycemia

247
Q

First generation sulfonylurea that is safest for elderly diabetics due to its short half-life

A

Tolbutamide

248
Q

First generation sulfonylurea contraindicated in elderly diabetics because of very long half-life

A

Chlorpropamide

249
Q

Three second generation sulfonylureas

A

Glyburide, glipizide, glimepiride

250
Q

Mechanism of action of sulfonylureas

A

Close K+ channels, depolarize cell, open voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, release insulin

251
Q

Common side effect of first generation sulfonylureas

A

Disulfiram-like reactions with alcohol use

252
Q

Common side effect of second generation sulfonylureas

A

Hypoglycemia

253
Q

A meglitinide insulin secretagogue that has no sulfur in its structure and may be used in type 2 diabetics with sulfonylurea allergy

A

Repaglinide

254
Q

A D-phenylalanine derivative insulin secretagogue that is useful for type 2 diabetics with very reduced renal function

A

Nateglinide

255
Q

Mechanism of action of repaglinide and nateglinide

A

Close K+ channels, depolarize cell, open voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, release insulin

256
Q

Mechanism of action of metformin

A

¯ gluconeogenesis, ­ peripheral glucose uptake; increase insulin sensitivity

257
Q

Two thiazolidinediones

A

Pioglitazone, rosiglitazone

258
Q

Mechanism of action of thiazolindinediones

A

Activate PPAR-gamma, ­ transcription of insulin-responsive genes, ­ GLUT4 glucose transporter, ­ insulin sensitivity

259
Q

Side effect of thiazolindinediones

A

Weight gain, edema, heart failure, hepatotoxicity

260
Q

Two alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

Acarbose, miglitol

261
Q

Mechanism of action of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

Act on intestine, delay digestion and absorption of glucose

262
Q

Side effect of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

Flatulence , diarrhea, abdominal cramps

263
Q

Amylin analog that delays gastric emptying and suppresses glucagon release

A

Pramlintide

264
Q

Two glucagon-like polypeptide-1 (GLP-1) analogs that increase insulin secretion and suppress postprandial glucagon release

A

Exenatide, liraglutide

265
Q

Three dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors that reduce breakdown of glucagon-like polypeptide-1, resulting in increased insulin secretion and suppress postprandial glucagon release

A

Sitagliptin, saxagliptin, linagliptin

266
Q

Bisphosphonates

A

Alendronate and -dronates

267
Q

Mechanism of action of bisphosphonates

A

Inhibits osteoclast activity and prevent bone resorption

268
Q

Uses of bisphosphonates

A

Osteoporosis, Paget’s disease, hyperglycemia

269
Q

Major side effects of bisphosphonates

A

Corrosive esophagitis, osteonecrosis of the jaw

270
Q

First generation bisphosphonate when used long-term causes osteomalacia

A

Etidronate

271
Q

Vitamin given with calcium to ensure proper absorption

A

Vitamin D

272
Q

Its use can increase risk of endometrial and breast cancer, cause postmenopausal uterine bleeding, but can stabilize bone mineral loss

A

Estrogen

273
Q

Antiestrogen drugs used for treatment of infertility in anovulatory women

A

Clomiphene

274
Q

Common side effect of tamoxifen and clomiphene

A

Hot flushes

275
Q

Two estradiol derivatives with higher oral bioavailability and longer half-lives that are primarily used as oral contraceptives

A

Ethinyl estradiol and mestranol

276
Q

5 alpha-reductase inhibitor used for benign prostatic hyperplasia and male pattern baldness

A

Finasteride

277
Q

Partial androgen agonist used for endometriosis and hereditary angioedema

A

Danazol

278
Q

Androgen receptor antagonist used to treat prostate cancer

A

Flutamide

279
Q

Androgen receptor antagonist used for hirsutism in females

A

Cyproterone

280
Q

A class of endogenous substances that include histamine, serotonin, prostaglandins, and vasoactive peptides that work in autocrine or paracrine manner

A

Autacoids

281
Q

Two peptide that increase capillary permeability and edema

A

Bradykinin and histamine

282
Q

Most common side effect of 1st generation antihistamines

A

Sedation, anticholinergic

283
Q

1st generation antihistamine that is least sedating

A

Chlorpheniramine

284
Q

Major indication for H1 antihistamines

A

IgE mediated allergic reaction (allergic rhinitis, urticaria)

285
Q

Antihistamine that is indicated for allergies, motion sickness, and insomnia

A

Diphenhydramine

286
Q

Antihistamine with motion sickness as the only indication

A

Dimenhydrinate

287
Q

Indication for H2 antagonists

A

Acid reflux disease, duodenal ulcer and peptic ulcer disease

288
Q

Location of serotonin type-1 (5HT-1) receptors

A

Mostly in the brain

289
Q

Ergot alkaloid indicated for migraine headaches

A

Ergotamine

290
Q

Reason ergot alkaloids are contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Uterine contractions

291
Q

Two side effects of ergot alkaloids

A

Prolonged vasospasm and hallucinations resembling psychosis

292
Q

Two drugs that may be used off-label for ischemia and gangrene caused by ergot alkaloids overdose

A

Nitroprusside, nitroglycerin

293
Q

Serotonin receptor responsible for serotonin syndrome

A

5HT2

294
Q

Location of serotonin type-3 (5HT-3) receptors

A

GI tract, vomiting center of medulla

295
Q

Ganglion blockers that were indicated (but not anymore) for severe hypertension

A

Hexamethonium, trimethaphan

296
Q

Two direct-acting cholinomimetics that increase aqueous outflow through ciliary muscle contraction and opening of trabecular meshwork

A

Pilocarpine, carbachol

297
Q

Two indirect-acting cholinomimetics that increase aqueous outflow through ciliary muscle contraction and opening of trabecular meshwork

A

Physostigmine, echothiophate

298
Q

Nonselective alpha agonist that decreases aqueous production

A

Epinephrine

299
Q

Selective alpha 2 agonist that decreases aqueous production

A

Brimonidine

300
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used to decrease aqueous humor production

A

Acetazolamide

301
Q

Common side effect of sedative hypnotics

A

CNS depression

302
Q

Occurs when sedative hypnotics are used long-term

A

Tolerance and physical dependence

303
Q

Main route of metabolism for benzodiazepines

A

Hepatic

304
Q

Useful side effect of benzodiazepines in patients undergoing stressful procedures or surgery

A

Anterograde amnesia

305
Q

Three benzodiazepines that are metabolized only by Phase II conjugation and therefore is useful in elderly patients

A

Lorazepam, oxazepam, and temazepam

306
Q

Two benzodiazepines that have active metabolites with long half-lives

A

Diazepam, chlordiazepoxide

307
Q

Clinical uses of benzodiazepines

A

Anxiety, insomnia, alcohol detoxification, status epilepticus, spasticity

308
Q

Reason why benzodiazepines are safer than barbiturates

A

Benzodiazepines work only in presence of GABA

309
Q

Most serious side effects of barbiturates

A

Respiratory and cardiovascular depression

310
Q

Barbiturates may precipitate this hematologic condition

A

Porphyria

311
Q

Barbiturates decrease the effectiveness of many other drugs via this pharmacokinetic property

A

Induce CYP450

312
Q

Effect of benzodiazepines and barbiturates on sleep architecture

A

Suppress REM

313
Q

Mechanism of action of zolpidem

A

Activates BZ1 subtype of GABAA receptor

314
Q

Antiepileptic drug used as first line for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

315
Q

Antiepileptic drug that can induce CYP450, is teratogenic, and can cause diplopia, ataxia, and blood dyscrasias; follows first order kinetics of elimination

A

Carbamazepine

316
Q

Mechanism of action of Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, Lamotrigine

A

Blocks sodium channels

317
Q

Mechanism of action of valproic acid

A

Blocks sodium channels, T-type calcium channels, and increase GABA concentration

318
Q

Antiepileptic drug that can cause fatal hepatotoxicity and neural tube defects

A

Valproic acid

319
Q

Mechanism of action of Ethosuximide

A

Blocks T-type calcium channels

320
Q

Antiepileptic drugs that may also be used for bipolar disorder

A

Valproic acid, carbamazepine, gabapentin

321
Q

Serious side effect of lamotrigine that makes it require slow titration

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

322
Q

Side effects of these drugs include nausea and vomiting, euphoria, dependence, tolerance, sedation, respiratory depression, constipation

A

Opioids

323
Q

Strong opioid agonists

A

Morphine, methadone, meperidine, and fentanyl

324
Q

Opioids used in anesthesia

A

Morphine and fentanyl

325
Q

Opioid with antimuscarinic activity

A

Meperidine

326
Q

Opioid that can cause hyperpyrexic coma with MAOI and serotonin syndrome with SSRI

A

Meperidine

327
Q

Partial opioid agonist that has a long duration of action and is resistant to naloxone reversal

A

Buprenorphine

328
Q

Opioids indicated for use as antitussive

A

Dextromethorphan, Codeine

329
Q

Opioids indicated for use as antidiarrheal

A

Diphenoxylate, Loperamide

330
Q

Directly proportional to the potency of inhalation anesthetics

A

Lipid solubility

331
Q

Inversely proportional to the potency of inhalation anesthetics

A

Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)

332
Q

Inversely proportional to the rate of induction and recovery of inhalation anesthetics

A

Blood:gas partition coefficient

333
Q

Mechanism of action of inhalation anesthetics

A

Potentiation of GABA at GABAA receptors; also reduce Na and Ca influx

334
Q

Currently the only non-halogenated inhalation anesthetic

A

Nitrous oxide

335
Q

Inhalation anesthetic with the most analgesic activity

A

Nitrous oxide

336
Q

Inhalation anesthetic with the least respiratory and cardiovascular depression and therefore is used frequently as a component of balanced anesthesia

A

Nitrous oxide

337
Q

Inhalation anesthetic that can cause fatal hepatotoxicity and cardiac arrhythmia and is no longer used in the US

A

Halothane

338
Q

Inhalation anesthetic that is withdrawn from the market due to fatal nephrotoxicity

A

Methoxyflurane

339
Q

Inhalation anesthetic that at high concentrations can produce CNS excitation, leading to seizures

A

Enflurane

340
Q

Close to ideal inhalation anesthetic that exhibits rapid and smooth induction and recovery, with little organ system toxicity

A

Sevoflurane

341
Q

Barbiturate used for the induction of anesthesia

A

Thiopental

342
Q

A short-acting benzodiazepine commonly used adjunctively with inhalation anesthetics and opioid analgesics for a balanced anesthesia

A

Midazolam

343
Q

Produces both rapid anesthesia and recovery, has antiemetic activity, but may cause marked hypotension

A

Propofol

344
Q

Mechanism of action of the intravenous anesthetic that causes dissociative anesthesia

A

Block NMDA receptor

345
Q

Side effects of dissociative anesthetic

A

Cardiovascular stimulation, increased cerebral blood flow, vivid dreams, hallucinations

346
Q

Neuroleptanesthesia can be produced by a combination of these two agents

A

Fentanyl and droperidol

347
Q

Mechanism of action of local anesthetics

A

Block voltage-gated sodium channels

348
Q

This condition may necessitate larger doses of local anesthetics because the drugs become ionized and cannot penetrate the neuronal membranes

A

Low pH

349
Q

Almost all local anesthetics have this property and sometimes require the administration of vasoconstrictors to prolong activity

A

Vasodilation

350
Q

The only local anesthetic with vasoconstrictive property, but due to abuse potential, only occasionally used for nasal surgery

A

Cocaine

351
Q

This type of local anesthetic is more likely to cause hypersensitivy reactions

A

Ester-type (local anesthetic with one “I” in name)

352
Q

Local anesthetic most widely used for obstetric anesthesia but causes the most cardiac depression

A

Bupivacaine

353
Q

Side effect of most local anesthetics

A

CNS excitation

354
Q

Common side effect of antipsychotics, MPTP (contaminant in illicit meperidine analog), and cholinergic excess

A

Drug-induced Parkinsonism

355
Q

Two fluctuations in clinical response associated with long-term use of dopamine precursor

A

“Wearing off” and “on-off-phenomenon”

356
Q

Inhibits of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT), used as adjunct to improve motor function in Parkinson’s patients with fluctuations in clinical response

A

Entacapone, tolcapone

357
Q

Ergot type 2 dopamine receptor (D2) agonist, used as adjunct to improve motor function in Parkinson’s patients with fluctuations in clinical response

A

Bromocriptine

358
Q

Non ergot type 2 dopamine receptors (D2) agonist, used for Parkinson’s and restless legs syndrome

A

Pramipexole and ropinirole

359
Q

An antiviral that enhances dopamine release from nigrostriatal neurons

A

Amantadine

360
Q

Two centrally-acting anticholinergics useful for tremor and rigidity but have little effect on bradykinesia in patients with Parkinson’s

A

Benztropine, trihexylphenidyl

361
Q

Drug of choice indicated for familial or essential tremors

A

Propranolol

362
Q

Two drugs that inhibit vesicle monoamine transporter used for Huntington’s

A

Tetrabenazine, reserpine

363
Q

An antipsychotic with dopamine receptor antagonist activity used for Huntington’s

A

Haloperidol

364
Q

Three centrally-acting cholinesterase inhibitors used for Alzheimer’s

A

Donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine

365
Q

Noncompetitive antagonist of NMDA receptors used for Alzheimer’s

A

Memantine

366
Q

Complications of the gastrointestinal system associated with chronic alcohol use

A

Mallory-Weiss syndrome, hepatitis, cirrhosis, pancreatitis

367
Q

The most common neurologic abnormality in chronic alcoholics

A

Neurologic deficits (Peripheral neuropathy)

368
Q

Life-threatening alcohol withdrawal syndrome that peaks at 5 days after the last drink

A

Delirium tremens

369
Q

Inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase and used as deterrent for alcohol use

A

Disulfiram

370
Q

Opioid receptor antagonist used to prevent alcohol abuse

A

Naltrexone

371
Q

Competes for alcohol dehydrogenase and is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Fomepizole, ethanol

372
Q

Most commonly abused opioids

A

Heroin, morphine, oxycodone

373
Q

Sweating, dilated pupils, piloerection, and flu-like symptoms are symptoms of withdrawal from this class of drugs

A

Opioid

374
Q

Opioids used for long-term maintenance from opioid withdrawal

A

Methadone, buprenorphine

375
Q

Most widely abused sedative hypnotics

A

Short-acting barbiturates (pentobarbital)

376
Q

Four major CNS stimulant drugs of abuse

A

Caffeine, nicotine, cocaine, amphetamines

377
Q

CNS stimulant that acts by inhibiting reuptake of neurotransmitters; may cause pupil dilation, alter tactile sensation, irregular breathing, and cardiac toxicity

A

Cocaine

378
Q

Amphetamine derivatives commonly abused

A

Methamphetamine (crystal meth), MDMA (methylenedioxymeth-amphetamine, or ecstasy)

379
Q

Drug of abuse that was developed as a dissociative anesthetic; intoxication leads to both horizontal and vertical nystagmus, analgesia, psychosis, delirium, and seizures

A

PCP (phencyclidine, or angel dust)

380
Q

Use of all antipsychotic medication in this group of patients is associated with increased risk of deaths

A

Elderlyl with dementia-related psychosis

381
Q

Antipsychotics that repress primarily the positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Typical antipsychotics

382
Q

Two low potency, typical antipsychotic drugs

A

Chlorpromazine, thioridazine

383
Q

Typical antipsychotic associated with retinopathy and cardiac toxicity

A

Thioridazine

384
Q

Three high potency, typical antipsychotic drugs

A

Haloperidol, fluphenazine, trifluoperazine

385
Q

Typical antipsychotic that can also be used for Tourette syndrome

A

Haloperidol

386
Q

Treatment for drug-induced acute extrapyramidal symptoms

A

Benztropine, diphenhydramine

387
Q

Advantage of atypicals over typical antipsychotics

A

Less extrapyramidal symptoms, more effect against negative symptoms of schizophrenia

388
Q

Two atypical antipsychotics that can cause weight gain

A

Clozapine, olanzapine

389
Q

Two atypical antipsychoics that can prolong the QT interval

A

Risperidone, ziprasidone

390
Q

Atypical antipsychotic that can increase prolactin levels and cause gynecomastia and irregular menstruation in men and women, respectively

A

Risperidone

391
Q

Atypical antipsychotic that can also be used to treat irritability in autistic children

A

Aripiprazole

392
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants

A

-iptyline, -ipramine, doxepin, amoxapine

393
Q

Mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants

A

Block serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake

394
Q

Common side effects of tricyclic antidepressants

A

Autonomic (block muscarinic and α1), sedation

395
Q

Tricyclic secondary amines that produce less sedation and autonomic side effects (compared with tricyclic tertiary amines)

A

Nortriptyline, desipramine

396
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant used for enuresis

A

Imipramine

397
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant used in obsessive compulsive disorder

A

Clomipramine

398
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant with antihistamine effect and is indicated for insomnia

A

Doxepin

399
Q

Class of antidepressants that has fewer sedative and autonomic side effects than tricyclic antidepressants and indicated for panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, social phobias, bulimia, obsessive compulsive behavior, and post-traumatic stress disorder

A

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)

400
Q

Four selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

A

Fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline, citalopram

401
Q

Two selective serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors

A

Duloxetine, venlafaxine

402
Q

Class of drugs that is most useful in patients with anxiety, hypochondriasis, and depression that is refractory to other antidepressants

A

Monamine oxidase inhibitors

403
Q

Mechanism of action of isocarboxazid, phenelzine, and tranylcypromine

A

Irreversible inhibition of monoamine oxidase A and B

404
Q

Mechanism of action of selegiline

A

Selectively inhibits monoamine oxidase B

405
Q

A fatal condition that results from combination of monoamine oxidase inhibitors with tyramine-containing foods

A

Hypertensive crisis

406
Q

Antidepressant that inhibits alpha 2, 5HT-2, and 5HT-3 receptors to increase release of norepinephrine and serotonin

A

Mirtazapine

407
Q

Major route of elimination for Lithium

A

Kidneys

408
Q

Antineoplastic pyrimidine analog that inhibits thymidylate synthetase

A

5-fluorouracil (5-FU)

409
Q

Antineoplastic pyrimidine analog that inhibits DNA polymerase

A

Cytarabine

410
Q

Serious side effect associated with cytarabine

A

Pancytopenia

411
Q

Three antineoplastic purine analogs that inhibit purine synthesis

A

Azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine, 6-thioguanine

412
Q

Drug used concurrently with antineoplastics to reduce renal precipitation of urates

A

Allopurinol

413
Q

Inhibits microtubule formation by binding to β-tubulin; dose-limiting side effect is bone marrow suppression

A

Vinblastine

414
Q

Inhibits microtubule formation by binding to β-tubulin; dose-limiting side effect is neurotoxicity

A

Vincristine

415
Q

Two prodrugs, that after liver bioactivation, bind to N7 nitrogen of guanine and cross-link DNA

A

Cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide

416
Q

Serious side effect of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide due to generation of acrolein

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis

417
Q

Agent that is used to bind acrolein and prevent drug-induced hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Mesna

418
Q

Akylating agent that has greater activity against myeloid cells than lymphoid cells; serious side effects include myelosuppression and pulmonary fibrosis

A

Busulfan

419
Q

Two anthracyclines that chelate DNA, form free radicals, and cause dose-limiting cardiotoxicity

A

Daunorubicin, doxorubicin

420
Q

DNA intercalating agent useful for treatment of solid tumors in children

A

Dactinomycin (actinomycin D)

421
Q

Antineoplastic with G2 phase cell cycle selectivity

A

Bleomycin

422
Q

Ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor with S phase cell cycle selectivity that is used for management of sickle cell anemia

A

Hydroxyurea

423
Q

Platinum-derivatives that form DNA intrastrand cross-links; causes dose-limiting nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

A

Cisplatin, carboplatin

424
Q

Two antineoplastics that inhibit topoisomerase I

A

Irinotecan, topotecan

425
Q

Two antineoplastics that inhibit topoisomerase II

A

Etoposide, teniposide

426
Q

Inhibits BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase expressed by the Philadelphia chromosome in chronic myeloid leukemia

A

Imatinib

427
Q

Inhibits BRAF kinase in melanomas with BRAF V600E mutation

A

Vemurafenib

428
Q

Chimeric monoclonal antibody against CD20 antigen found on non-Hodgkin lymphomas and normal B lymphocytes

A

Rituximab

429
Q

Recombinant human monoclonal antibody against vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

A

Bevacizumab

430
Q

Recombinant human monoclonal antibody against human epidermal growth factor-2 (HER2) receptor; useful for breast cancer cells that overexpress HER2

A

Trastuzumab

431
Q

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist that can be used to inhibit leutinizing hormone secretion and testosterone production in men with advanced prostate cancer

A

Leuprolide

432
Q

Two most commonly used glucocorticoids for cancer due to their lymphotoxic effects; may cause Cushing-like symptoms

A

Prednisone, prednisolone

433
Q

Increase activity of cytoxic cells and indicated for hairy cell leukemia

A

Interferon alpha-2b

434
Q

Agent used for hypochromic microcytic anemias

A

Ferrous sulfate

435
Q

Agent used for megaloblastic anemia with neurological deficits

A

Vitamin B12

436
Q

Agent used for neutropenia associated with cancer chemotherapy and bone marrow transplantation

A

Filgrastim (granulocyte colony-stimualting factor) and sargramostim (granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor)

BOARDS (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions