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Pharmacotheraputics > Pharm II > Flashcards

Pharm II Flashcards

1
Q

types of HF

A

ischemic (atherosclerosis, hypertension, post MI)

or

Non-ischemic (idiopathic cardiomyopathy, cardiac toxins, post partum)

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2
Q

ACE and ARBs are less effective in african americans due to decreased RAA activation

what is the next best choice

A

calcium channel blockers

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3
Q

depolarizing vs nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocks

A

succinylcholine (depolaration, fast and short acting)

tubocrarine (nondepolarizing, slow, long acting)

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4
Q

what BP med is useful in pregnancy

A

hydralizine

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5
Q

indications for cholinergic agoists

A

glaucoma

ileus

bladder atony

myasthenia gravis

alzehiemers

mushroom poisoning

anesthesia reversal

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6
Q

drugs to restore sinus rhytm

A

BB’s and propafenone and flecinamide

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7
Q

alpha II receptor effects

A

↑platelet aggregation, ↓lipolysis

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8
Q

ANS effect on the eyes

A

sym: pupil dilation, increased far vision
para: pupil dilation, increased near vision

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9
Q

-stigmine is for what

A

reversible anticholinesterases

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10
Q

Trazodone

A

Antidepressant

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11
Q

three antiemetics that block dopamine

A

phenathiazine (compazine)

sub. benzamides (reglan)

butyrophenons (haldol)

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12
Q

when are myopathy related to statins an issue

A

in older people as it can reduce their activity and quality of life

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13
Q

colace is a…

A

stool softener

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14
Q

apocrine sweat glands (axilla and groin) are inneratvaed by what

A

adrenergic alpha recepors

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15
Q

two types of antidiarrhea meds

A

antimotility agents

absorbents

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16
Q

what is the function of pralidoxime

A

reverse anticholinesterase action

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17
Q

types of hyperlipidemia

A

familial and non-familial

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18
Q

importnat autonomic neuotransmitters

A

acetylcholine

norepi

dopamine

serotonin

histamine

GABA

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19
Q

myasethenia gravis

symptoms

cause

A

an autoimmune order that causes weakness of volunary muscles that improves with rest

ptosis, diplopia, dysphagia, msucle weakness

antibodies against ACh receptors

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20
Q

general suffixes to determine type of HTN druve

A
  • lol: beta blocker
  • pril: ace inhibitor
  • sin: alpha blocker
  • sartan: ARB
  • pine: calcium channel blocker
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21
Q

when is single drug HTN therapy indicated

multi drug

A

pre HTN, stage I

Stage II

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22
Q

what is the risk with a hyperkalemia

A

fatal cardiac arryhtmia

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23
Q

Zolpidem

A

Hypnotic for Insomnia

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24
Q

diuresis for CHF

A

spironolactone (risky with ACE, prevents remodeling)

loop (especially helpful wth fluid overload

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25
Q

antiarrhytmia drugs for a fib

A

beta blockers, amioderone, propafenone

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26
Q

Metformin

A

Diabetes (type II)

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27
Q

death from spironolactone is from

A

hyperkalemia due to lack of surveliance

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28
Q

alpha selective agonists

A

phenylephrine, methoxamine (A1>A2)

clonidine (A2>A1)

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29
Q

Oxycodone/APAP

A

Analgesic-narcotic

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30
Q

benefit of digoxin over digitalis

A

less protein binding

shorter onset

shorter half life

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31
Q

RAA targets for HTN treatment

A

inhibit Renin

block ACE

block angiotensin II

block aldosterone

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32
Q

what are motillin like agents

examples

when is it used

what is the issue

A

drugs that mimic motilin a protein that stimulates smooth muscle

macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin)

diabetic gastroparesis, expulsion of bezoars

tolerance

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33
Q

what causes serotonin syndrome

symptoms

A

too much serotonin activity from multiple serotonin agonists or a monamine oxidase inhibitor

high body temp, agitiation, hyperreflexia, sweatting

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34
Q

supportive treatment for acute MI

A

O2, pain relief, manage arrhythmias, anti-platelets

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35
Q

many -pine drugs are CCBs. two exceptions

A

diltiazem and verapamil

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36
Q

three types of cholinergic antagonists

A

antimuscarinics

ganglionic blockers

neuromusclar blockers

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37
Q

antiemetics with uncertain mode of action

A

corticosteroids (decadron)

cannabinoid (marinol)

benzodiazepines (xanax)

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38
Q

adverse Beta 1 effects

A

tachycardia, anxiety, tremors

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39
Q

what are ganglionic blocking drugs used for

A

adjuncts for ECT and in a hypertensive emergency or dissecting aortic aneurysm

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40
Q

special consideation for aldosterone agonists

A

antiandrogenic (gynecomastia, ↓hirsutism)

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41
Q

other vasodilators besides CCBs

A

minoxidil, hyralazine

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42
Q

what is the logic behind anticholinesterases on dementia

A

some forms of alzheimers display ↓ACh in the CNS

giving drugs like donepezil can help with memory

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43
Q

drugs to treat a fib

A

rate control (BBs, amioderone, digoxin)

restore sinus (drugs, cardiovert, ablation)

anticoagulation (warfarin, prazaxa)

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44
Q

1st line treatment for single druge HTN

2nd

A

HCTZ, lisinopril, losartan, dilitizem

atenolol, labetolol, clonidine, prazosin

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45
Q

two types of antacid liquids

A

aluminum hydroxide (gelusil)

magnesium hydroxide (mylanta)

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46
Q

Simvastatin

A

Lipid (cholesterol)-lowering

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47
Q

main clinical indications for lipid lowering drungs

another possible indication

A

prevent issues in patients with hyperlipidemia, treat patients with known CVD/CAD

maybe ↓risk of plaque rupture

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48
Q

Tiotropium

A

COPD, Asthma

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49
Q

what drugs are contradicated with nitrates for angina

A

ED drugs (viagra, cialis)

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50
Q

three drugs that will increased serum concentrations at normal dosing when given with cimietidine

A

warfarin, diazepam, phenytoin

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51
Q

functions of aldosterone

A

↑salt and fluid retention to increase volume

forces cardiac growth and remodeling

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52
Q

alpha blockers

indications

A

prazosin

HTN, BPH

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53
Q

risk of a fib

A

mural thrombi (LA clot)

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54
Q

adverse effects of cholinergic drugs

A

Miosis

sweating

diarrhea/cramps/nausea

bronchospasm

urinary urgency

bradycardia/syncope

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55
Q

ANS effect on CNS

A

sym increased alertness

para decreases alertness

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56
Q

adverse effects of fibrates

contraindications

A

Cancer, Nausea, gallstones

severe hepatic or renal failure, pregnancy

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57
Q

Fluticasone

A

Anti-inflammatory for allergies

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58
Q

ANS effects on the uterus

A

sym: relaxation
para: variable

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59
Q

where is doapmine most important

A

in the CNS, renal and splanchic vasculature

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60
Q

how long does it take H2 blockers to work

A

45 minutes

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61
Q

T/F treatment of HTN reduces mortality and morbidity

A

true

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62
Q

ANS effects on GI and bladder

A

sym rduce activity

bladder increase activity

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63
Q

Lisinopril

A

Antihypertensive (ACEI)

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64
Q

three classic adrenergic agonists

A

norepi, epi, isoproterenol

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65
Q

ACE inhibitors

important side effects

A

benazepril, ramipril

hyperkalemia

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66
Q

eccrine sweat glands are innervaated by what

A

both sympathetic and parasympathetic

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67
Q

Sertraline

A

Antidepressant

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68
Q

indications for Omega-3s

contraindications

A

hypertriglyceridemia, prevention of MI reccurence

mild anticoagulant, ↑LDL, more difficult to conttrol sugar

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69
Q

functions of angiotensin II

A

direct vasoconstriction

increased sympathetic tone

releases aldosterone

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70
Q

Duloxetine

A

Antidepressant

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71
Q

risk of Propafenone (Rythmol) & flecainamide (Tambocor

A

caution with prior MI, negative inotropes

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72
Q

cholinergic drugs are what

A

parasympathomimetics

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73
Q

beta II adrenergic receptor actions

A

bronchiole dilation, myometrium relaxation, ↑glycogenesis

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74
Q

craniosacral vs thoracolumbar

A

parasympathetic vs sympathetic

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75
Q

general adrenergic agonists (alpha = beta effects)

A

epinephrine (A1=A2, B1=B2)

norepinephrine (A1=A1, B1>>B2)

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76
Q

two sources of cholestrol

A

exogenous (diet)

endogeneous *from the liver)

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77
Q

methods to control HR

A

cardic output *block Beta 1, increase venous capacity, reduce blood volume

resistance (block alpha 1, block central sympathetic action, dilate vasculature)

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78
Q

Amlodipine

A

Antihypertensive (CCB)

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79
Q

adverse effects of loop diuretics

A

hypokalema, ototoxicity

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80
Q

misoprostol is contraindicated in what condition

A

pregnancy (can trigger first trimester abortion)

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81
Q

when should PCSK-9 inhibitors be used

A

when nothing else works (very expensive, doesn’t reduce mortality)

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82
Q

Levothyroxine

A

Thryoid hormone

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83
Q

function of loop diuretics (lasix)

A

block NA reabsorption

direct venous dilation

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84
Q

lipid lowering drug strategies

A

first line statins

second bile acids, fibrates, sterol absorption inhibitors, omega 3

third PCSK-9

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85
Q

two common ARBs

why use them

A

Losartan, olmesartan

cough and angioedema are less common, often better tolerated than ACE

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86
Q

PPI increases the risk of what serious complication

A

MI

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87
Q

T/F PPI decreases risk of death by 25%

A

false, increases risk

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88
Q

Carisoprodol

A

Muscle relaxant

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89
Q

reperfusion for acute MI

A

percutaneous coronary intervention with thrombolytics

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90
Q

two types of bulking laxitives

A

colloids (agar, bran, psyllium)

saline cathartics (polyethylene glycol)

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91
Q

Azithromycin

A

Antibiotic

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92
Q

ADRs of amioderone

A

pulmonary fibrosis, liver toxic, blocks T4 to T3 conversion, photodermatitis

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93
Q

Gabapentin

A

Anticonvulsant

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94
Q

CHF strategy

A

↓cardiac workload

↓Na

give ACE or ARBs

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95
Q

what is the primary treatment for reccurent ventricular rhythms

what is the usefil adjunt medicine

A

ICD

amioderone

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96
Q

where is norepinephrine found

A

most sympathetic postganglionic synpases

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97
Q

what patients are calcium channel blockers particularly useful for

A

diabetics, asthmatics, people with angina

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98
Q

what is the most ocmmon chronic arrhytmia

A

A fib

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99
Q

Citalopram

A

Antidepressant

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100
Q

Atenolol

A

Beta blocker

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101
Q

beta selective adrenergic agonists

A

isoproterenol (B1=B2)

dobutamine (B1>B2)

Terbutaline (B2>>B1)

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102
Q

RAA blockers

A

renin blocker

ACE

ARB

aldosterone blockers

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103
Q

metoclopramide (reglan) is a…

A

dopamine receptor antagonist gi motility agent

104
Q

where is acetylcholine found

A

all preganglionic synapses

all parasympatheyic post ganglionic synapses

some sympathetic postganglionic synpases

105
Q

digoxin toxcicity

A

arrhythmia (heart block, irritability)

Anorexia, Nausea

headache

106
Q

what histamine receptor is targeted to decrease acid production

A

H2

107
Q

reccomended monitoring for statins

A

AST/ALT

Creatine kinase

108
Q

most common adverse effect of calcium channel blockers

A

constipation, followed by headache/dizziness/vertigo

109
Q

paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is commonly seen when

A

before the development of chronic a fib

110
Q

Methylprednisolone

A

Corticosteroid, anti-inflammatory

111
Q

anti serotonin antiemetics (trons)

A

ondenestron (zofran)

112
Q

necrotizing autoimmune myopathy

A

severe and potentially fatal disroder triggered by statins in certain genetically predisposed people

113
Q

beta I adrenergic receptor actions

A

↑contractility and HR, ↑lipolysis

114
Q

risk of irritant laxitives

A

atonic colon occurs with prolonged used

115
Q

Hydrocodone & APAP

A

Analgesic-narcotic

116
Q

Furosemide

A

Diruretic: loop type

117
Q

two main cholinergic receptors

A

nicotinic and muscarinic

118
Q

mainstay treatment of anaphylasis

adverse effects

A

beta sympathetic agonsists (epi)

tachycardia, hyperglycemia, maybe arrhythmia

119
Q

Clonazepam

A

Anticonvulsant, sedative

120
Q

T/F electrolyte loss from thiazides and loops is constant

A

false, eventually it will get to a new setpoint and hold

121
Q

use of sodium channel blockers

ADRs

A

chronic managment, ↑exercise tolerance

ADRs: ↑QT intervals, inhibits CYP

122
Q

risks with aldosterone antagonists and luminal membrane HTN agents

A

hyperkalemia

123
Q

cycle of CHF

A

ischemia damages myocardium

↓

cardiomegaly

↓

reduced CO due to overstretched myocardium

↓

more ischemia

124
Q

what would increase clinical suspcision of variant angina

A

fatigue

smoking

younger patients

125
Q

Warfarin

A

Anticoagulant

126
Q

Benazepril

A

Antihypertensive (ACEI)

127
Q

antiarrhytmia drugs for v tach

A

lidocaine, amioderone

128
Q

nicotinic receptor

A

acetylcholine receptor, found at the NMJ and sympathetic ganglia

129
Q

antiarrhytmia drugs for SVT

A

adenosine

130
Q

functions of CCBs in the treatment of angina

A

↓O2 demand

prevent vasospasm

poss slow develoopment of plaques

131
Q

Clopidigrel

A

Anticoagulant-antiplatelet

132
Q

long term issues with PPI

A

↓ absorption of B12 (↓acid)

↑risk of cdiff

↓serum mg

osteoporosis

CVD

133
Q

what is the use of edrophonium with myasthenia gravis

A

if you give a pt with suspected MG edrophonium and their muscular strength improves short term, Dx of MG is confirmed

134
Q

PPI can cause osteoporsis

appropriate managment?

A

bisphosponated

135
Q

T/F ototoxicity caused by loop diuretics is permanent

A

typically not, but can be synergistic with aminoglycosides and reduced renal function

136
Q

when are antacids contraidincated

A

renal failure

137
Q

action of alpha 1 adrenergic receptors

A

↑contractility, vascular constriction, dilated eyes (mydriasis), piloerection

138
Q

indications for general adrenergic agonists (epi and norepi)

A

epi: anaphylaxis, asthma
norepi: IV for shock
dopamine: IV for shock

139
Q

anticholinergics cause what significant neuro issue

A

worsening of dementia

140
Q

side effects of antimotility agents

A

drowsiness, cramps, dizziness

risk of toxic megacolon

contraindicated in adults with severe colitis

141
Q

fight or flight

neurotransmitter

described as

A

sympathetic

norepinephrine

adrenergic

142
Q

HTN drug groups

A

Diuretics (lower volume, increase venous capacity)

adrenergic blockers (alpha and beta 1)

vasodilators (reduce periperhal resistnace)

black RAA (reduce blood volume and resistance)

143
Q

antiarrhytmia drugs for v fib

A

lidocaine, amioderone

144
Q

T/F combination therapy is more effective for antiemesis

A

truw

145
Q

adjunct treatments to angina

A

lower lipids, ACE inhibitors (enhance post MI survival), revascularization

146
Q

indications for beta blockers

A

HTN, hyperthyroid, others

147
Q

two main adrenergic receptors

A

alpha and beta

148
Q

Esomeprazole

A

Gastric acid inhibitor

149
Q

statins are synergistic with what other drug

A

sterol absorption inhibitors

150
Q

Albuterol

A

Asthma

151
Q

Rest and digest

neurotransmitter

described as

A

parasympathetic

acetylcholine

cholinergic

152
Q

emetic control centers

A

chemorecptor trigger zone

vomitting center

vestibular/cerebellar afferents

cortex inputs

peripheral inputs

153
Q

Potassium

A

Electrolyte

154
Q

antiemetic drug classes (8)

A
  1. phenothaizines
  2. substituted benzamides
  3. butryophenones
  4. benzodiazepines
  5. corticosteroids
  6. cannaboid receptor agonist
  7. serotonin receptor blockers
  8. substance P/neurokinin-1 receptors
155
Q

catecholamine

A

enhanced tyrosine, epi and norepi

156
Q

pro/con for transdermal or sublingual nitrates

A

sublingual is faster, shorter acting, can caused headaches

transdermal is slower to act but usually lasts longer

157
Q

inotropic agents for CHF

A

cardiac glycosides (digitoxin, digoxin)

Beta agonists (dobutamine, dopamine)

phosphodiesterase inhibitors (amrinone)

158
Q

three antidopamine antiemetic side effects

A

sedation

diarrhea

prolonged QT interval

159
Q

pathology associated with variant angina

A

50-70% will have coronary artery stenosis which is paired with vasospasm causing angina

160
Q

this drug class, including digitalis and digoxin, have a low theraputic index

A

cardiac glycosides

161
Q

how are luminal membrane agents and aldosterone antatgonists used

A

as adjuncts to a thiazide or loop

162
Q

what is the usual target for LDL

risks involved

A

<100 or <70 in diabetics

muscle weakness, poss increased cancer risk

163
Q

cardiovascular effects of adrenergic drugs

A

increase HR, contractility, conduction, arrhythmia, vascular resistance

164
Q

major complication of thiazide diuretics

A

hypockalemia

165
Q

Atorvastatin

A

Lipid (cholesterol)-lowering

166
Q

classes of antiarrhythmic drugs

A

I: Na channel blockers (quinidine, lidocane)

II: beta blockers (propranolol)

III: K+ blockers (amiodarone)

IV: CCBs (diltaizem, verapamil)

167
Q

autonomic control of BP

A

Sympathetic (Alpha 1 vascular and Beta 1 cardiac)

renal blood flow (RAA, total volume)

168
Q

diuretic action

A

↓Na and water retention

reduce blood volume

reduce cardiac output

reduce perpheral resistance

169
Q

indications for beta agonists

A

dobutamine: severe HF and cardiogenic shock
terbutaline: inhalers for asthma, stopping labor

170
Q

Montelukast

A

Asthma

171
Q

Cyclobenzaprine

A

Muscle relaxant

172
Q

HDL paradox

A

increasing HDL above a certain point doesn’t decrease risk

173
Q

what will happen if you block cholinergic effects

A

sympathetic influence will increase (dilated pupils, tachycardia, constipation, confusion)

174
Q

ANS sexual effects

A

sym: orgasm
para: arousal

175
Q

special consideration with luminal membrane diruetics

A

the effect is enhanced with ACEI and NSAIDs

176
Q

what is the most powerful acid reducers

A

PPI

177
Q

uses of Class I arrthymia drugs based on effect

A

IA: (quinidine) can cause arrhymias

IB: (lidocaine) good at preventing v tach and fib

IC: (flecainide) caution with prior MI

178
Q

two types of GI motility agents that work on cholergic receptors

A

agonists (carbachol, bethanechol)

acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

179
Q

Memantine

A

Dementia

180
Q

adverse side effects of statins

A

Liver damage

myopathy/rhabdo

contraindicated in pregnancy, lactation, kids/teens

181
Q

three types of serotonin receptor modulator motility drugs

A

cisapride (propulsid)

metoclopramide (reglan

ondansetron (zofran)

182
Q

omeprazole will decrease the effectivness of what drug

A

plavix

183
Q

important vasodilators for CHF

A

ACE/ARBs

nitrates + hydralazine

minoxidil

184
Q

Rosuvastatin

A

Lipid (cholesterol)-lowering

185
Q

classes of CCBs

A

nonselective verapamil

some what selective diltiazem

selective nifedipine

186
Q

Meloxicam

A

NSAID

187
Q

Aripiprazole

A

Antipsychotic

188
Q

Fexofenadine

A

Antihistamine

189
Q

two main types of anticholinesterases

A

reversible and irreversible

190
Q

spironlactone can cause what in mean

A

bitch tits

191
Q

four types of laxitives

A

irritants/stimulants

bulking agents

stool softeners

chloride channel activators

192
Q

treatment for myasthenia gravis

A

ACh agnoists

immunosuppression

thymectomy

193
Q

rate H2 antagonists least to most potent

A

cimetidine

ranitidine, nizatdidine

famotidine

194
Q

types of K sparing diuretics

A

agents active at the luminal membrane (triameterene, amiloride)

mineralocortocoid antagonists (spironolactone)

195
Q

pathophysiology of stable angina

A

unmet oxygen demand from coronary artery stenosis

can be exacerbated by anemia, fever, hyperthyroid, arrhytmia

196
Q

important adverse side effects of niacin in ↓cholesterol

A

cutaneous flush/pruritis

hepatotoxic

197
Q

Escitalopram

A

Antidepressant

198
Q

uses for antimuscarinics

A

atropine (opthlmic, irritable GI, reflex suppression, organophosphates)

scopolamine (motion sickness)

Ipratropium (asthma, COPD)

199
Q

important issues with cimetidine

A

anti androgen

inhibits 6 cyp 450 enzymes

200
Q

ventricular response to a fib

A

“irregularly irregular”

201
Q

three types of angina

A

stable (predictable and relieved with rest)

variant (atypical, hallmark extreme fatigue with minimal exertion)

unstable

202
Q

main risk of hyperlipidemia

A

atherosclerosis

203
Q

three cautions with beta blockers

A

care ful with dose, esp with left heart failure

severe bradycardia

contraindicated for the treatment of variant angina

204
Q

HCO can cause what if taken too often

A

metabolic acidosis

205
Q

can CHF be reversed

A

some success with non-ischemic CHF

206
Q

what is the gastric effect of prostaglandings

A

protective (↓ acid, ↑mucin, ↑HCO3,)

207
Q

short and long term indications for PPI

A

ST: erosive esophagitis, acute peptic ulcer

LT: Z-E syndrome, refractory gerd

208
Q

effect of autonomic function on spit and sweat

A

sympathetic ↓ spit and ↑sweat

parasympathetic increases both

209
Q

what are beta blockers best used for in the treatment of angina

A

prevention of attacks by decreasing output and afterload

210
Q

three types of antacid tablets

A

aluminum hydroxide (gelusil)

magnesium (mylanta)

CaCO (tums)

211
Q

diuretics

A

thiazides, loop, K sparring

212
Q

strategies for cholinergic drugs

A

give ACh (doesn’t last long)

give an agonist (good)

give an anticholinesterase

213
Q

Quetiapine

A

Antipsychotic

214
Q

what is H pylori most related to

A

ulcer recurrance, not initial presentation

215
Q

what is the paradox of antiarrhtmia meds

A

they can be used to prevent arrhythmias and are beneficial in acute settings, but risky to use in prevention of arrhythmia

216
Q

three most important adrenergic receptors

A

Alpha I (vasoconstriction, increased bladder sphincter tone)

Beta 1 (↑HR)

Beta II (bronchiole dialtion, uterine relaxation)

217
Q

useful CCBs

A

verapamil and diltiazem (less skeletal muscle decrease)

218
Q

caution with beta blockers

A

careful with asthma pts (withdrawl can cause arrhytmia)

don;t use in uncompensated CHF

don’t use in bradycardic pts

219
Q

important systems under autonomic control

A

digestion

cardiac

otthers

220
Q

Metoprolol

A

Beta blocker

221
Q

Amoxicillin

A

Antibiotic

222
Q

mimetic vs lytic or plegic

A

agonists vs antagonists

223
Q

what type of beta blockers are prefered for managment of angina

A

selective beta 1 (atenolol)

224
Q

Hydrochlorthiazide

A

Diuretic: thiazide type

225
Q

where is VLDL converted into LDL

A

peripherally

226
Q

Valsartan

A

Antihypertensive (ARB)

227
Q

imodium is a…

A

antimotility agent

228
Q

ANS effects on the bronchioles

A

sym dilate

para constrict

229
Q

Carvedilol

A

Beta blocker, alpha blocker

230
Q

autonomic effects on the bladder

A

sympathetic: sphincter contraction
para: destrusor contraction

231
Q

Omeprazole

A

Gastric acid inhibitor

232
Q

beta blockers (nonselective, selective, combined)

A

non: propranolol

selective (B1>>>>B2) metoprolol, atenolol

combined (A1, B1, B2) labetalol

233
Q

steps of atherosclerosis

A
  1. Fatty streaks (LDL accumulation under the vascular endothelium)
  2. fatty oxidation
  3. foam cells (lipid filled macrophages trying to get rid of LDL)
  4. cell damage, accumulation of more LDL
234
Q

treatment of HTN emergency

A

vasodilators (diazoxide), alpha & beta blocker (normodyne), dopamine agonist (fendolopam)

235
Q

Iburpofen

A

NSAID

236
Q

surgical options for CHF

A

revascularization

cardioplasty

237
Q

Tramadol

A

Analgesic-atypical

238
Q

most important lipid lowering drugs

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins)

PCSK-9 inhibitors

239
Q

side effects of anti serotonin anti emetics

A

expensive

diarrhea

headache

dizziness

240
Q

how to kill H pylori

A

it takes a long course of multiple drugs including Abx, PPI and/or Bismuth

241
Q

CCBs are based used for what type of angina

A

variant

242
Q

Digoxin

A

Inotropic agent for CHF

243
Q

uses of class II, III, IV anti-arrhytmias

A

class II: tachycardia and ventricular arrhytmia

Class III: tachy sotolol (BB) useful

Class IV: most effective against atrial arrhytmia

244
Q

when to use anorectic agents

A

morbid obese (30BMI or higher)

failure of diet and support groups

occasionally required before surgical intervention

245
Q

Alprozolam

A

Sedative-antianxiety

246
Q

adrenergic receptor subtypes

A

alpha 1: vascular, pupil, piloerection

Beta 1: heart

beta 2: smooth muscle (bronchioles, uterus, vascular)

247
Q

Promethazine

A

Antihistamine, antiemetic

248
Q

drug interactions with amioderone

A

fluconazole

macrolides

grapefruit juice

249
Q

benign H2 antagonist effects

A

headache

dizziness

muscle pain

diarrhea

250
Q

muscarinic receptor

A

a key cholinergic receptor subtype, creates a parasympathetic response

251
Q

Methylphenidate

A

CNS stimulant, ADHD

252
Q

PPI safety summary

A

ok for short term

careful for long term (+6months), especially with Cdiff, osteoporosis, heart disease

253
Q

Cephalexin

A

Antibiotic

254
Q

why is aluminum and mg paired together in antiacids

A

mg causes diarrhea

aluminum causes constipation

255
Q

what is digoxin most commonly used

A

adjunct to CHF with chronic Afiv

Pharmacotheraputics (10 decks)

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