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Pharmacotheraputics > ABx > Flashcards

ABx Flashcards

1
Q

G+ cocci to know

A

staph, strep, entero

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2
Q

G+ bacilli

A

bacilus anthracis, clostridium diptheria

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3
Q

G- cocci

A

neiseria gonnorhoeoa, meningitides

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4
Q

gram- bacilli

A

e coli, proteus, enterobacter, salmonema

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5
Q

sprichetes

A

treponema pallidum

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6
Q

acid fast bacteria

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis, bovis, leprae

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7
Q

antibiotic strategies

A

employ a substances that attacks a non-mammalian part of the growth process

slow growth so the immune system gains the upper hand

employ agents to kill log order growth in immune compromised patients

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8
Q

what is the risk of introducing substances that act against non-mammalian metabolism

A

there will be an allergic event

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9
Q

three factors to fight ABx resistance

A

long enough treatment

only use Abx when necessary

use a combination of Abx when needed

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10
Q

how can the same drug be bacteriocidal and bacteriostatic

A

at a low dose it might just kill enough microbes to keep the net colony growth to zero

a higher dose might kill all the colonies faster than they can be replaced

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11
Q

what is the goal of a bacteriocidal drug

A

to allow the immune system to catch up

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12
Q

how do you decide to use bacteriostatic vs cidal

A

healthy patients can use either, but immunocompromised patients bacteriocidal agents should be used

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13
Q

cell wall active drugs are generally _____

protein synthesis inhibitors are usually _____

A

bacteriocidal

bacteriostatic

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14
Q

four targets of ABx action

A

cell wall synthesis

protein synthesis

nucleic acid synthesis

inhibitor of folate biosynthesis (inhibitors of metabolism)

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15
Q

why is inhibition of folate a good method to kill bacteria

A

folate is needed to make DNA

humans are able to take in folate but bacteria need to convert it from other substances

if we can block conversion the bacteria will die and spare our cells

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16
Q

two groups of cell wall inhibitors

A

beta lactams

others

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17
Q

four beta lactam ABx

A

´Penicillins

´Cephalosporins

´Carbapenems

´Monobactams

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18
Q

non beta lactam ABx that target cell walls

A

´Vancomycin

´Daptomycin

´Bacitracin

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19
Q

four penicillin types

A

natural

anti staphyolococcal

extended spectrum

anti pseudomona;

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20
Q

natural penicillin is used against what

A

Gram + except staph

syphilis

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21
Q

antistaph penicillin

what are they used against

A

methicilin

cloxacin

nafcillin

oxacillin

staph infections except MRSA

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22
Q

what is the goal of extended spectrum penicillins

A

improve gram negative coverage

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23
Q

two common extended spectrum penicillins

common probelms

A

ampicilin (oral and parenteral)

amoxicilin (oral only)

rash

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24
Q

aminopenicillins (ampicillin, amoxicilin) are used on what

A

Otitis media

strep

UTI (where ther isk of resistant e coli is low

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25
Q

anti pseudomonal penicllin

A

´Carbenicillin (Geocillin)

´Mezocillin (Mezlin)

´Piperacillin (Pipracil)

´Ticarcillin (Ticar)

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26
Q

what is the most powerful antipseudomonal penicillin

A

piperacillin

used in intrabdominal infections but is susceptible to beta lactamase

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27
Q

toxicicty to penicilin

A

hypersensitivity (rash, angioedema, anaphylaxsis)

diarrhea

nephritis (exp mthicillin)

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28
Q

synergistic drugs with penicillins

A

aminoglycosides, but can be mixed in the same vial

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29
Q

antagonistic drugs with penicillin

A

bacteriostatic agents will decrease the effective ness of bacteriocidals, so macrolides and tetracyclines dont work with penicillin

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30
Q

how can penicillins be used to fight beta lactam producing bacteria

A

add a beta lactamase inhibitor (clavulanic acid)

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31
Q

amoxicillin with clavulanic acid = _____

ticarcillin + clavulanic acid = ____

A

augmentin

timentin

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32
Q

two important 1st gen cephalosporins

A

cefazolin, cephalexin

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33
Q

3rd genetation cephalosporin to remember

A

rocephin

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34
Q

what are cephalosporins used for

A

treating mainly gram + with some gram - coverage depending on generation

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35
Q

4th genetation cephalosporin to know

A

cefepime (esp against pseudomonas)

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36
Q

5th geneation cephalosporin to know

A

ceftaroline

only beta lactam useful against MRSA

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37
Q

adverse effects associated with cephalosporin

A

allergic cross reactive with penicillin (3-5%)

1-2% allergic reaction with no pen allergy

can also cause bleeding due to anti vitamine K action

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38
Q

advantage of monobactum

what is it used for

A

relatively beta lactamase resistant, low allergic reaction potential with penicillin allergy

usually against enterobacter and other G-. not G +

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39
Q

monobactum to know

A

azetronam

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40
Q

T/F carbapenems are not cross reactive with penicillin/ceph allergies

A

false, they can be

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41
Q

advantages of carbapenems

adverse effects

A

broad spectrum

expensive, nausea, diarrhea, can cause sz

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42
Q

nonbeta lactams

A

´Vancomycin (Vancocin)

´Bacitracin (ointment, Neosporin, Polysporin)

´Fosfomycin (Monurol): UTI treatment

´Cycloserine (Seromycin)

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43
Q

why is vancomysin important

A

because it works for most bacteria and is controlled to prevent resistance

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44
Q

vancomycin toxicity

A

´Nephrotoxicity

´Ototoxicity

´Flushing due to histamine release

´“Red Man Syndrome”

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45
Q

red man syndrome

A

flushing diue to histamine release realted to vancomycin

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46
Q

when is vancomycin used

A

MRSA

enterococcus

clostridium (oral)

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47
Q

uses for daptomycin

disadvantages

A

G+ coverave for resistant staph, strep, enterococcus

parenteral only, not useful in pneumonia, must stop statins

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48
Q

what is telavancin used for

A

similar to daptomycin

reserved for mrsa

can prolong QT interval

interferes with some blood tests

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49
Q

types of protein inhibiting ABx to know

A

tetracyclines

aminoglycosides

macrolides

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50
Q

tetracyclines are most often used in what setting

A

outpatient

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51
Q

are tetracylcines bacteriostatic or cida

A

static, but not against gram negative UTIs

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52
Q

tetracycline is especially useful against what

A

chlamydia

mycoplasma

rickettsia

cholera

anthrax

acne

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53
Q

three tetracylcines to know

A

tetracycline

doxycycline

minocyclin

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54
Q

what inhibits absorption of tetracylcline

A

dairy

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55
Q

T/F tetracycline has anti-inflammatory effect

A

true, which makes it useful in acne treatment

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56
Q

T/F doxycycline is not affected by renal disease

A

true it is almost entirely metabolized in the liver

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57
Q

special contraindications for tetracycline

A

pregnancy and children under 9 due to dental enamal dysplasia and discoloration, growth inhibition, bone deformities

photosensitive, so wear sin screen

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58
Q

most common tetracycline complaint

A

gastric distress, but that can be combated by taking it with food

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59
Q

tetracycline derivative that can be used against resistant staph and strep in IV formuation

adverse effects?

A

tigecycline

similar to tetracycline with more nausea and vomitting

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60
Q

are aminocylcosides bacteriostatic or cidal

A

cidal

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61
Q

T/F aminoglycosides are usualyl used alone and are effect against G+ infections

A

false, they are almost always used with a specific G+ agent (cilin or cephalosporin) and work well against G-

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62
Q

T/F aminoglycosides are absorbed well in oral form

A

false, they are for parenteral use only

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63
Q

three notable aminoglycosides

A

amikacin, gentamicin, tobramycin

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64
Q

aminoglycocide toxicity (2+1)

A

ototoxic

nephrotoxic

exacerbated by loop diurectics (furosimide/lasix or bumetanide/bumex)

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65
Q

what type of bacteria are macrolides useful against

A

good against G+, useful against “Others” like chlamydia

weak against G-

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66
Q

T/F erythromycin are safe for kids and pregnancy

A

true

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67
Q

what is the treatment for syphilis in the penicillin allergic patient

A

erythromycin

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68
Q

macrolides to know

A

erythromycin

azithromycin

clarithromycin

thelthromycin

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69
Q

what is the advantage of ketolides over macrolides

one example of a ketolide

A

broader spectrum of action with less antibacterial resistance

telithromycin

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70
Q

typical dosage of azithromycin

A

500mg on day one, 250mg on days 2-5

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71
Q

macrolide toxicity

A

GI distress

drug interactions fomr CYP3A4 inhibitors

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72
Q

why do macrolides cause GI distress

A

macrolides mimic the structure of a natural chemical called motilin that triggers peristalsis

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73
Q

macrolides are CYP3A4 inhibitors

why is that relevant

A

it stops many drugs from being broken down and can cause the circulating blood levels of some othe rmedications to increase to dangerous leveslk

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74
Q

drugs that can have a dangerous interaction with erythromycin due to CYP inhibition

A

astemizole

carbamazepine

warfarin

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75
Q

macrolide derivative used against C diff

what is its mode of action

A

fidaxomicin

acts gainst bacterial DNA transcriptions

76
Q

notable drug in lincomycin class

A

clindamyvcin

77
Q

what clindamycin used best against

A

anaerobes except C diff

78
Q

risks of clindamycin

A

C diff

liver impairment

neutropenia

79
Q

what will a superfincetion of C diff cause

A

pseudomembranous colitis

80
Q

risk factors for pseudomembranous colitis

A

ABx use

hospitialization

PPI

81
Q

ABx most likely to produce a C diff superinfection

A

Clindamycin

amoxicillin, ampicillin

cephalosporin

fluoroquinolines

82
Q

pros and cons of chloramphenicol

A

excellent G+/G- coverage

causes bone marrow supression, neonatal toxicity (Gray baby syndrome), drug interaction

83
Q

drugs that will have a dangerous interaction with chloramphenocol

A

chlorpropamide

phenytoin

tolbutamide

warfarin

84
Q

what is the coverage of oxazolidinones

common type and what it is used for

A

works well against G+, G-, anaerobes, aerobes

linezolid, used against vancomsycin resistant bugs

85
Q

toxicity with oxazolindnones

A

hematologic toxicity from thrombocytopenia

inhibit monoamine oxidase (parkinsons treatment)

86
Q

sterptogramin use

two types, with use

A

bacteriocideal against most organsisms

quinupristin and dalfopristin (synercid), vancomycin resistance

87
Q

toxicity associated with streptogramins

A

arthralgia and myalgia

hyperbilirubinema

88
Q

fwhat is the action of fluoroquinolones

A

inhibits DNA synthesis

89
Q

notable 1st generation quniolines

A

nalidixic acid, used for UTIs

90
Q

what are 2nd generation quinolines used for

examples

A
  • Expanded gram negative coverage
  • Atypical coverage (chlamydia, mycoplasma)
  • Some gram + coverage

norfloxicin, ciprofloxicin

91
Q

what are 3rd generation quinolines used for

examples

A
  • Expanded gram negative coverage
  • Atypical coverage (chlamydia, mycoplasma)
  • better G+ coverage than 2nd gen

levofloxacin

92
Q

wqhat are 4th generation quinolones used for

examples

A
  • gram + and anaerobic coverage
  • Less useful against atypicals

moxifloxacin

93
Q

other uses of quinolones

A
  • Gonorrhea (ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin)
  • Mycoplasma, ureaplasma, chlamydia
  • Legionella
  • Some mycobacteria (TB, avium)
  • Anaerobes (Avelox, Trovan)
  • Anthrax prophylaxis
94
Q

fluoroquinoline toxicity

A

GI distress

CNS symptoms

liver toxicity

photosensitivity

generally well tolerated

95
Q

when might fluoroquinolones be contraindicated due to risk factors

A

when a person is at risk for tendon rupture due to age >60 or steroids

96
Q

are fluoroquinolines safe for pregnancy

A

no, they are Grade C but they should be avoided because they can damage growing cartilage

97
Q

inhibitors of folate metabolism

A

sulfonamide

trimethoprim

co-trimoxazole

98
Q

sulfonamides is a generic term for what

A

PABA analogs

99
Q

sulfonamide choices for systemic disease

IBD

A

sulfamethoxazole

sulfisoxazole

sulfadizaine

sulfasalazine

100
Q

what is the most common use of sulfonamidea

A

UTIs (co-trimoxazole)

101
Q

common brand name of co-trimoxazole (combination fo trimethoprim and sulfamethazone)

used for

A

bactrim

UTI
Prostatitis
adjunct to H flu, listeria, legionella

102
Q

adverse drug reactions from cotrimoxazole

A

allergry (5%)

hemolytic anemia with G6PD deficienct

can cause aplastic anemia

103
Q

contrinducations for sulfonamides

A

new borns (cause kernicterus)

late pregnancy (dtto)

antagonistic with methaminde

104
Q

three types of urinary antiseptics

A

methenamine

nitrofuratoin

nitrofurantoin monohydrate

105
Q

action of methenamine

can it be used against proteus?

what is their main use

A

converts formaldehyde to acid in urine

proteus can split urea and neutralize the acid

only against uncomplication LUTIs

106
Q

contraindications for methenamine

A

hepatic insufficiency

renal insufficiency

sulfa drugs

Upper UTI

107
Q

limitation of nitrofurantoin

common issue

rare complications

A

only useful against UTI caused by non-resistant E Coli

brown urine

pneumonitis/fibrosis, peripheral nephtitis

108
Q

analgesics for cystitis

useed for

side effection

A

pryridium

pain relief for the first 1-2 days of UTI

orange urine, 10% incidence of GI upset

109
Q

new ABx class

what is it useful against

A

teixobactin

all G+, mycoplasma, mycobacterium

110
Q

main mycobacterium pathogens

A

tuberculosis, mycobacterium bovis, mycobacterium leprae

111
Q

treatment for leprosy

A

dapsone, colfazamine, rifampin

112
Q

dapsone is useful against leprosy and what

adverse effects

A

pneumocystis

hemolysis
peripheral nephropathy

113
Q

what do we refer to as “latent TB”

A

TB in 90-95% of peole that is kept in check by the immune system

114
Q

factors that will trigger conversion from latent to active TB

A

HIV

corticosteroid therapy

chemo

immunosuppresive therapy

115
Q

what is the prognosis of avtive TB

A

100% cure rate if the patient is compliant and the strain isnt resistant

without treatment only 35% of patients will live beyond 5 years

116
Q

6 month regimen for TB treatment

A

first 2 months: isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

3-6 months: isoniazid, rifampin

117
Q

importnt 1st line TB drugs

A

isoniazid

rifamycins

118
Q

isoniaizd is bacteriostatic or cidal

A

both

119
Q

T/F genetic backgroun of isoniazid can lead to slow of fast clearance

A

treu

120
Q

isoniazid toxicity

A

peripheral neuritis

heptatis (linked to age and ETOH)

drug interactions

121
Q

adverse drug ractions with rifampin

A

generally well tolerated

commonly causes nausea and rash

CYP induction will interact with oral contraception, warfarin

122
Q

rifampin + pyrazinamide will result in what adverse effect

A

liver toxicity

123
Q

other than isoniazide and rifampin, what types of drugs are used against TB

A

fluoroquinolones, typically moxifloxacin and gatifloxacin

124
Q

what percent of TB is resistant to all 1st line drugs

A

10-15%

125
Q

four types of fungal pathology

A

superifical infection

pulmonary infections

CNS infections

systemic

126
Q

what will increase risk of fungal disase

A

large exposure to pathogen

reduction in normal bacterial flora

immunosuppression (HIV, chemo, malnutrition)

127
Q

common systemic fungal pathogens

A
  • Candida albicans
  • Histoplasma capsulatum
  • Coccidioides immitis
  • Blastomyces dermatitidis
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii (formerly: P. carninii)
128
Q

typical superficial fungal infections

A
  • Tinea pedis (athlete’s foot)
  • Tinea cruris (jock itch)
  • Tinea corporis (ringworm)
  • Onychomycosis (nail bed infection)
  • Vaginal infections (yeast infection)
  • Oral cavity infections (thrush)
129
Q

main superficial fungal pathogens

A
  • Trichphyton
  • Microsporum
  • Epidermophyton
130
Q

typical superficial antifungal agents

A
  • Clotrimazole (Lotrimin)
  • Miconazole (Monistat)
  • Econazole (Spectazole)
  • Nystatin (Mycostatin)
  • Grieseofulvin (Grifulvin)
131
Q

two primary systemic antifungal drugs

A
  • Amphotericin B (Amphotec, AmBisome)
  • Fluconazole (Diflucan)
132
Q

systemic antifungals new to market, only IV use, inhibits fungal cell walls

A

echinocandins

133
Q

amphotericin B is significantly effective against what bugs

A

Candida,

Histoplasma,

Cryptococcus,

Coccidioides,

Blastomyces

134
Q

what is the risk of treatment with amphotericin B

A

they are toxic, cause fever, chills, hypotension, anemia, thrombophlebitis

135
Q

three amphotericin B formulations

most important

A

Cholesteryl sulfate complex, Lipid complex, Lipsomal

liposomal

•Reduces toxicity, particularly renal

136
Q

benefits of the azole drugs

A

fungistatics effective for superficial and systemic infections

teratogenic when given systemically in high doses

CYP3A4-5 inhibition leading to ADR

137
Q

what type of azole has the least impact one CYP

other benefits

A

fluconazole

good CNS penetration for fungal menigitis

Oral or IV

single dose treatment for vaginitis

low risk for hepatotoaxicity

138
Q

facts about ketoconazole

A
  • Broad spectrum antifungal
  • Best use: Histoplasmosis
  • Food impairs absorption, Coca-cola improves!
139
Q

four facts about ketoconazole toxicity

A
  • Hepatic toxicity is possible
  • Strong inhibitor of gonadal and adrenal steroids:
  • Can not be given with Amphotericin B
  • Rarely used systemically in USA
140
Q

facts about voriconazole

A
  • Newer azole (trazole) antifungal agent
  • Indications:Candida septicemia, Invasive aspergillosis
  • Side effects:

Visual changes (blurred vision, increased light sensitivity

141
Q

differentiate between azole and prazole

A

azoles are antifungal

prazoles are PPIs

142
Q

classes of antiviral drugs

A
  • Anti-Human Herpes Virus
  • Anti-hepatitis
  • Anti-influenza
  • Anti-retrovirus
143
Q

types of human herpes viruses

A
  • HHV 1 & 2: herpes simplex (HSV) types 1 & 2
  • HHV 3: Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
  • HHV 4: Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
  • HHV 5: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
  • HHV 6 & 7: Roseolovirus
  • HHV 8: Kaposi Sarcoma associated HV (KSHV)
144
Q

facts about herpes simplex

A

teratogenic in early pregnancy

potentially fatal in new borns

severe infection possible with immunocompromised patients

145
Q

goals of HSV 1 and 2 treatment

A
  • Shorten length and severity of primary infection
  • Prevent or abort recurrences
  • Life-saving in immunocompromised patients
146
Q

two common anti herpes drugs

A

acyclovir

valacyclovir

147
Q

are anti herpes drugs commonly toxic

A

usually very well tolerated

acyclovir has been used constantly for 10 years with minimal ADR, can have transient renal function

famciclovir linked to cancer and testicle toxicity

148
Q

what is the major complication of CMV

A

can infect fetus

causes retinitis and encephalitis in immunocompromised pateints

149
Q

anti CMV agents

A
  • Ganciclovir (Cytovene)
  • Cidofovir (Vistide)
  • Foscarnet (Foscavir)
150
Q

anti cmv toxicity

A

ganciclovir causes myelosuppression additive with HIV drugs

cidofovir causes renal toxicity

151
Q

types of hep viruses

A

A B C D E

152
Q

conditons related to Hep B and C

A

chronic infection

liver failure

hepatoma

153
Q

anti hepatitis drugs

A

interferon alfa-2a

ribvirin

ledipasvir + sofosbuvir

154
Q

describe interferons

A

Immune cell produced cytokines which Are anti-viral and anti-neoplastic because They activate key immune system components:

  • Macrophages
  • Natural killer cells
  • Assist with antigen presentation to T cells
155
Q

anti hep interereon toxicity

A
  • Neuropsychiatric: Contraindicated in psychosis, depression
  • Flu-like syndromes
  • Marrow suppression
  • Hepatic toxicity
156
Q

anti hep toxicity ribavirin

A
  • Hemolytic anemia (10-20%)
  • Teratogenic in animals
157
Q

anti hep toxicity lamivudine

adefovir

entecavir

A

usually wel tolerated

renal toxic at high dose

renal toxic at usualy doses

158
Q

new standard of care for chronic hep C

A

ledipasivr + sofosbuvir

previously was interferon + ribavirin

159
Q

T/F ledipasvir + sofosbuvir are well tolerated and cheap

A

false, they are well tolerated but wildly expensive

160
Q

common respiratory viruses

A

FLu A and B

RSV

161
Q

flu treatment

A

vaccination

anti flu drugs

supportive care

162
Q

anti flu drugs

A

amantidine and rimantidine prophylaxis against flu A

neuraminase inhibitors (Inhaled Zanamivir, oral.parenteral oseltamivir)

ribavirin

163
Q

what is the best use for amantidine/rimantidine

A

symptomatic treatment in the first 24-48 hrs

prevention

164
Q

Amantadine/Rimantadine

Minor ADRs

Major ADRs

caution

A

insomnia, dizziness, ataxia

hallucination, seizures

renal failure, sz

165
Q

what is the best use for neuraminase inhibitors

how long will zanamavir and oseltamivir reduce symptoms

A

reduce symptoms when started <48hrs after onset

zanamavir 1-2 days

oseltamivir 0.5-4 days

166
Q

ADRs with NI

A

zanamivir: air way irritation, dangersous with people with asthma or COPD
oseltamivir: GI upset, cramps, nausea, fixed taken with food

167
Q

what is the important clinical challenge for HIV

A

how do we lengthen the HIV latent phase

168
Q

HIV treatment strategies

A
  • Inhibit Reverse Transcriptase (RT)
  • Inhibit Viral Protein Production
  • Prevent viral entry into cell
  • Prevent integration of HIV into host DNA
  • Prevent/Treat Opportunistic Infections
169
Q

five classes of HIV drugs

A
  • I. Nucleoside/Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors
  • II. Nonnucleoside RT Inhibitors (“NNRTIs”)
  • III. Protease Inhibitors
  • IV. Fusion inhibitors
  • V. Integrase inhibitor
170
Q

primary Nucleoside/Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors “NRTIs” drugs

A
  • Zidovudine (Retrovir, AZT)
  • Zalcitabine (Hivid, ddC)
  • Stavudine (Zerit, d4T)
171
Q

NRTI toxicity

A
  • Pancreatitis
  • Renal Impairment
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Bone marrow toxicity (esp. AZT)
  • Drug Interactions (esp. AZT)
172
Q

drug interactions with AZT

A

•Cimetidine, indomethacin, lorazepam, acetoaminophen

173
Q

Nonnucleoside RT Inhibitors

A
  • Nevirapine (Viramune)
  • Delavirdine (Rescriptor)
  • Efavirenz (Sustiva)
174
Q

Nonnucleoside RT Inhibitors toxicity

A
  • Rash
  • Fever
  • Headache
  • Elevated Liver Enzymes
  • Epidermal Reactions
175
Q

epidermal reactions assocaited with NNRTIs

A
  • Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
  • Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
176
Q

Protease Inhibitors

A
  • Saquinavir (Invirase)
  • Ritonavir (Norvir)
  • Ritonavir/lopinavir (Kaletra)
177
Q

Protease Toxicity

A
  • Common:
  • Diarrhea, Nausea, fatigue, headache
178
Q

Major Protease Drug Interactions

A
  • Quinidine
  • Ergots
  • Rifampin
  • Some benzodiazepines
  • Inhaled steroids
  • St. John’s wort
  • Many statins
  • Fentanyl
179
Q

descrive fusion or entry inhibitors

A
  • Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon); Maraviroc (Selzentry)
  • Part of multi-drug strategy
  • Problems:
  • Rash, injection reaction, hypersensitivity
  • Eosinophilia
  • Hepatotoxicity (maraviroc)
180
Q

integrase inhibitors

A
  • Raltegravir (Isentress)
  • No interference by CYP450 inhibitors or inducers
  • Generally well tolerated
  • Headache, nausea, diarrhea
181
Q

new standard for when to initiate HIV treatment

A

at first diagnosis

182
Q

new approach to HIV treatment

A
  • Extract CD4 cells
  • Disable CCR5 by in vitro gene editing
  • Return the CD4 cells back to the patient
183
Q

parasite drug to know

A

metronidazole

184
Q

what is the major risk of metronidazole

A
  • Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like reaction possible
  • Avoid ethanol
185
Q
A

Pharmacotheraputics (10 decks)

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