Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PHARM FINAL > Pharm Final PPT Review > Flashcards

Pharm Final PPT Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is pharmacology?

A

The study of drugs and their effects on living organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define toxicology.

A

The study of the adverse effects of chemicals on living organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are agonists?

A

Substances that activate receptors to produce a biological response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are antagonists?

A

Substances that block or inhibit the action of agonists at receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Differentiate between competitive and non-competitive antagonists.

A

Competitive antagonists bind reversibly to the same site as agonists; non-competitive antagonists bind to a different site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does pharmacodynamics study?

A

The effects of drugs on the body and their mechanisms of action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does pharmacokinetics study?

A

The absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination of drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is pharmacogenomics?

A

The study of how genes affect a person’s response to drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define ‘receptor’ in pharmacology.

A

A protein molecule that receives and transmits signals in response to drug binding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the difference between endogenous and exogenous substances?

A

Endogenous substances are produced within the body; exogenous substances come from outside the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are poisons?

A

Non-biological substances that can cause harm or death when introduced into the body.
Can be organic or inorganic
Ex: Lead, cyanide, arsenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are toxins?

A

Biological poisonous substances produced by living organisms.
Ex: Puffer fish, specific mushrooms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define ‘partial agonist.’

A

A substance that activates a receptor but produces a less than maximal response.

In the presence of a full agonist, it can act like an antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an inverse agonist?

A

A substance that binds to a receptor and induces the opposite effect of an agonist. This effect can bring the response lower than the constituent level of activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is stereoisomerism?

A

The existence of molecules with the same molecular formula but different spatial arrangements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a physiologic antagonist?

A

A substance that counteracts the effects of another substance through different mechanisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the acronym ADME stand for in pharmacokinetics?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation used for?

A

To calculate the pH of a solution based on the concentrations of acid and base. Remember, if pH<pka, the compound will be in its protonated form. If pH>pka, it will be unprotonated.
Protonated acidic drugs will be neutral and more likely cross barriers, while protonated basic drugs will have a positive charge and be less likely to cross barriers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If pH < pKa, what form is favored?

A

The protonated form.
Protonated acidic drugs will be neutral and more likely cross barriers, while protonated basic drugs will have a positive charge and be less likely to cross barriers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If pH > pKa, what form is favored?

A

The unprotonated form.
Unprotonated acidic drugs will be negatively charged and less likely to cross barriers, while unprotonated basic drugs will have a neutral charge and be more likely to cross barriers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a dose-response curve?

A

A graph that shows the relationship between drug dose and the magnitude of response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is rational dosing?

A

The goal to achieve the desired beneficial effect with minimal adverse effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the term ‘volume of distribution’ refer to?

A

A pharmacokinetic parameter that describes the distribution of a drug throughout the body’s fluids and tissues.
Higher Vd means that the drug is more likely to leave the vascular space and settle into tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is clearance in pharmacokinetics?

A

The rate at which a drug is removed from the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is meant by ‘first order’ and ‘zero order’ elimination?

A

‘First order’ means the rate of elimination is proportional to the drug concentration; ‘zero order’ means the rate is constant regardless of concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is half-life?

A

The time required for the concentration of a drug in the blood to decrease by half.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What factors affect passive diffusion?

A

Molecular weight
pKa
Lipid solubility
Plasma protein binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the four basic mechanisms of transmembrane signaling?

A
  • Direct crossing to intercellular receptor
  • Enzymatic action mediated by ligand binding
  • Tyrosine kinase activated receptors
  • G protein-coupled receptors*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the function of ligand-gated ion channels?

A

To open or close in response to the binding of a ligand, allowing ions to flow across the membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the structure of GPCR?

A

Comprised of seven trans-membrane alpha-helices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is pleiotropy in pharmacology?

A

The ability of a drug to produce multiple effects through different mechanisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are drug efflux transporters?

A

Proteins that transport drugs out of cells, often involved in multi-drug resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the blood-brain barrier?

A

A selective permeability barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is biotransformation?

A

The process by which the body chemically alters a drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the two phases of biotransformation?

A

Phase I: Oxidation, Reduction, Hydrolysis
Phase II: Conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does cytochrome P450 do?

A

It is a family of enzymes involved in the metabolism of drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the effect of P450 induction?

A

Increased metabolism of drugs, which can lead to decreased drug effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the effect of P450 inhibition?

A

Decreased metabolism of drugs, which can lead to increased drug effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the enteric nervous system?

A

The nervous system of the gastrointestinal tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the classes of neurotransmitters?

A

Esters
Monoamines
Amino Acids
Purines
Peptides
Inorganic gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the primary action of sympathetic activity on the heart?

A

Accelerates heart rate via β1 and β2 receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the primary action of parasympathetic activity on the heart?

A

Decelerates heart rate via M2 receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the effect of alpha-1 receptor activation?

A

Smooth muscle contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the mechanism of action of adrenergic agonists?

A

Stimulate adrenergic receptors to produce effects like increased heart rate and vasodilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are direct-acting adrenergic agonists?

A

Albuterol
Clonidine
Dobutamine
Dopamine
Epinephrine
Isoproterenol
Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are indirect-acting adrenergic agonists?

A

Amphetamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a key characteristic of beta-blockers?

A

They decrease heart rate and cardiac output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the action of nitrates on vascular smooth muscle?

A

They relax vascular smooth muscle by increasing cGMP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the difference between dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines in calcium channel blockers?

A

Dihydropyridines are more selective for peripheral vasculature; non-dihydropyridines affect the heart more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does SLUDGE-M stand for in toxicology?

A

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Diarrhea
Gastrointestinal distress
Emesis
Miosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the primary treatment for organophosphate poisoning?

A

Atropine and Pralidoxime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the action of cholinomimetics?

A

They mimic the action of acetylcholine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a common side effect of cholinomimetics?

A

Bradycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the primary therapeutic use of cholinomimetics?

A

Treating conditions like myasthenia gravis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is an adrenoceptor antagonist?

A

A substance that blocks the action of catecholamines at adrenoceptors

Examples include propranolol, which antagonizes β1 & β2 receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the primary action of Propranolol?

A

Lowers blood pressure and prevents reflex tachycardia

It antagonizes β1 & β2 receptors and decreases cardiac output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Name three α1 blockers.

A
  • Prazosin
  • Terazosin
  • Doxazosin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What do α1 blockers do?

A

Block α1 receptors in arterioles and venules, leading to vasodilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the mechanism of Minoxidil?

A

Opens K+ channels in smooth muscles, stabilizing potential and reducing contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does Hydralazine do?

A

Dilates arterioles through nitric oxide production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the toxicity associated with vasodilators?

A

Headache, nausea, sweating, flushing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is Sodium Nitroprusside used for?

A

Hypertensive emergencies and cardiac failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Sodium Nitroprusside?

A

Relaxes vascular smooth muscle by breaking down in blood to release NO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is Captopril?

A

An ACE inhibitor used to treat heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the two types of heart failure?

A
  • Systolic failure – reduced cardiac function
  • Diastolic failure – reduced cardiac filling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the consequence of congestive heart failure?

A

Increased left ventricle pressure at end diastole leading to pulmonary edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the four factors that affect cardiac performance?

A
  • Preload
  • Afterload
  • Contractility
  • Heart Rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does Digoxin do?

A

Inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase, maintaining normal resting potential and acting as a positive inotrope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the therapeutic range for Digoxin toxicity?

A

EC50 – 1 ng/mL, TC50 – 2 ng/mL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are phosphodiesterase inhibitors known for?

A

Inactivating cAMP and cGMP, providing positive inotropic effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the sinoatrial node?

A

The pacemaker of the heart located in the right atrium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is required for reentry in cardiac impulse conduction?

A
  • An obstacle (scar tissue)
  • Unidirectional block
  • Long enough conduction time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

List the four classes of antiarrhythmic agents.

A
  • Class I – sodium channel blockade
  • Class II – sympatholytic
  • Class III – prolong action potential duration
  • Class IV – block cardiac calcium channel currents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is Amiodarone known for?

A

The only antiarrhythmic with all four Vaughan-Williams’ class effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the first-line treatment for bradycardia?

A

Atropine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the effects of H1 receptors?

A
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is Diphenhydramine used for?

A

Type I hypersensitivity reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What do leukotrienes do?

A

Cause bronchospasm, mucous secretion, and airway edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the action of Montelukast?

A

Inhibits binding of leukotrienes to their receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the role of Omalizumab (Xolair)?

A

An anti-IgE monoclonal antibody that reduces asthma severity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is serotonin syndrome?

A

A potentially life-threatening condition caused by excessive serotonergic activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Name the three major classes of antidepressant medications.

A
  • Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
  • Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the therapeutic range for phenytoin?

A

10-20 mcg/ml for therapeutic, >30 mcg/ml for toxic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the main effect of benzodiazepines in seizure treatment?

A

Sedation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the therapeutic plasma level range for phenytoin?

A

10-20 mcg/ml

Free phenytoin levels range from 1-2.5 mcg/ml.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the toxic and lethal plasma levels for phenytoin?

A

Toxic: 30-50 mcg/ml; Lethal: >100 mcg/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What should be the next option for a status epilepticus patient not responding to Phenytoin or phenobarbital?

A

Benzodiazepines, consider intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Why are second generation antihistamines preferred over first generation in allergy symptom relief?

A

They do not cause sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which of the following is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?

A

Sertraline (Zoloft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the phases of platelet activity in thrombogenesis?

A
  • Adhesion
  • Aggregation
  • Secretion
  • Cross-linking of adjacent platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood coagulation?

A

Intrinsic: Collagen, vWF; Extrinsic: TF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the treatment for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A
  • Plasma transfusions
  • Treat underlying cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the therapeutic range for Warfarin defined by INR?

A

Target: 2-3

94
Q

What are the types of insulin preparations?

A
  • Rapid acting: Lispro, aspart, glulisine
  • Short acting: Novolin, humulin
  • Intermediate acting: Neutral protamine Hagedorn, isophane
  • Long acting: Glargine, detemir
95
Q

What do biguanides, such as Metformin, do?

A

Block glucose formation in liver

96
Q

What is the mechanism of action of statins?

A

* HMG-COA reductase inhibitors
* Decrease cellular cholesterol synthesis
* Increase LDLR

97
Q

What type of antibiotic is Vancomycin considered?

A

Drug of last resort

98
Q

What are the adverse reactions of penicillin?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Anaphylactic shock
  • Skin rash
  • Oral lesions
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Interstitial nephritis
99
Q

What structural motif do penicillins and cephalosporins contain?

A

Beta-lactam ring

100
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Acyclovir?

A

Chain termination when virus mistakes Acyclovir for dGTP

101
Q

List the types of diabetes mellitus.

A
  • Type I: Insulin dependent
  • Type II: Non-insulin dependent
  • Type III: Other causes (e.g., pancreatitis)
  • Type IV: Gestational
102
Q

What is the role of vitamin K in coagulation?

A

Confers activity on prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X

103
Q

What are the common side effects of fibrates?

A
  • GI upset
  • Arrhythmias
  • Elevated liver enzymes
  • Myopathy
104
Q

True or False: Direct thrombin inhibitors target thrombin in the clot.

105
Q

Fill in the blank: Aminocaproic acid is a _______.

A

Fibrinolytic inhibitor

106
Q

What is the primary function of HDL?

A

Scavenger of cholesterol from cells, other lipoproteins

107
Q

What are the two main mechanisms of action of antibiotics?

A
  • Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
  • Inhibition of protein synthesis
108
Q

What is the main therapeutic use of Oseltamivir phosphate?

A

Treatment of influenza

109
Q

What type of receptor is the insulin receptor?

A

Tyrosine kinase receptor

110
Q

What is the significance of C-peptide in relation to insulin?

A

No known function

111
Q

What are the common treatments for Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Levodopa
  • Dopamine receptor agonists
  • MAOIs
  • COMTi
  • CNS antimuscarinics
112
Q

What is Primavanserin used for?

A

It is used for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease psychosis.

Primavanserin is an atypical antipsychotic that specifically targets serotonin receptors.

113
Q

Define Dyskinesia.

A

Dyskinesia refers to involuntary movements that can occur as a side effect of certain medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease.

114
Q

What are On/Off periods in Parkinson’s disease?

A

On periods refer to times when medication is effective and symptoms are controlled, while Off periods are characterized by a return of symptoms.

115
Q

Name two dopamine receptor agonists.

A
  • Pramipexole
  • Ropinirole

These medications mimic dopamine effects in the brain.

116
Q

What are MAOIs and name two examples.

A
  • Selegiline
  • Rasagiline

MAOIs are monoamine oxidase inhibitors used in the treatment of depression and Parkinson’s disease.

117
Q

What is the role of COMT inhibitors?

A

COMT inhibitors, such as Tolcapone and Entacapone, are used to prolong the effect of levodopa in Parkinson’s disease treatment.

118
Q

What are the effects of CNS antimuscarinics?

A

CNS antimuscarinics control dopaminergic release and are used to treat symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.

119
Q

How does Apomorphine function in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Apomorphine is used to treat ‘off’ periods and akinesia in Parkinson’s disease.

120
Q

What is Tetrabenazine and its function?

A

Tetrabenazine depletes dopamine and is used to treat movement disorders such as Huntington’s disease.

121
Q

True or False: Aspirin is used for severe pain.

A

False

Aspirin is widely used for mild to moderate pain, but not for severe pain.

122
Q

What are the clinical uses of Aspirin?

A
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Fever
  • Clot prevention

Aspirin is also used for its antiplatelet effects.

123
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Glucocorticoids?

A

Glucocorticoids suppress inflammation and modulate immune responses.

124
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary action of Methotrexate is to inhibit __________.

A

[dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)].

125
Q

What are the side effects of glucocorticoids?

A
  • Immunosuppression
  • Diabetes
  • Obesity
  • Muscle wasting
  • Hypertension
126
Q

What is the Gate Control Theory of pain?

A

It suggests that non-painful input closes the gates to painful input, preventing pain sensation.

127
Q

Name three types of opioid receptors.

A
  • μ (mu)
  • δ (delta)
  • κ (kappa)
128
Q

What is the effect of Naloxone?

A

Naloxone completely and dramatically reverses opioid effects.

129
Q

What is the main action of Antineoplastic drugs?

A

They kill rapidly dividing cells, targeting cancer.

130
Q

What does DMARD stand for?

A

Disease Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drugs.

131
Q

What are the traditional treatments for neoplasia?

A
  • Surgery
  • Radiation
  • Chemotherapy
132
Q

What is Azathioprine used for?

A

It is an immunosuppressive agent that targets rapidly proliferating cells.

133
Q

What are the elements of adaptive immunity?

A
  • B cells
  • T cells
  • Antibodies
134
Q

Define Autoimmunity.

A

Autoimmunity is an immune response against normal, healthy tissue.

135
Q

What is the role of Interferons?

A

Interferons are antiviral proteins that may also act as cytokines.

136
Q

What is the function of Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)?

A

TNF is secreted by macrophages and T cells to kill tumor cells and regulate immune responses.

137
Q

What is the significance of the CYP3A4 enzyme in opioid pharmacokinetics?

A

CYP3A4 is involved in the metabolism of opioids, affecting their efficacy and safety.

138
Q

What does the term ‘hypersensitivity’ refer to?

A

Hypersensitivity is an overreaction of the immune system to innocuous stimuli.

139
Q

What is the primary action of Methotrexate?

A

It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, interfering with DNA/RNA synthesis.

140
Q

What are the side effects of chemotherapy?

A
  • Nausea & Vomiting
  • Bone marrow depression
  • Alopecia
  • Immunosuppression
141
Q

What is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy?

A

Cyclophosphamide

Cyclophosphamide is widely used due to its effectiveness in treating various types of cancer.

142
Q

Which monoclonal antibody is used for RH- mothers who give birth to RH+ children?

A

RhoGAM

RhoGAM is administered to prevent Rh incompatibility in newborns.

143
Q

Fill in the blank: _______ is a strong opioid agonist with a phenylpiperidine structure.

A

Fentanyl

Fentanyl is known for its potency and is often used in pain management.

144
Q

Name one of the additional agents mentioned in the treatment context.

A

Sirolimus

Sirolimus is often used in organ transplantation and certain cancers.

145
Q

What is the role of Adalimumab in medical treatment?

A

TNF-a inhibitor

Adalimumab is used to treat autoimmune diseases by inhibiting tumor necrosis factor-alpha.

146
Q

Which drug is classified as a Thalidomide derivative?

A

Thalidomide

Thalidomide is used for multiple myeloma and certain inflammatory conditions.

147
Q

What type of drug is Omalizumab?

A

Monoclonal antibody

Omalizumab is used to treat asthma and allergic conditions.

148
Q

Which drug is commonly used in chemotherapy and is known as Taxol?

A

Paclitaxel

Paclitaxel is derived from the bark of the Pacific yew tree and is used in various cancer treatments.

149
Q

Identify one alternative to Methadone as an opioid.

A

Morphine

Morphine is one of the oldest opioids used for severe pain relief.

150
Q

True or False: Nitrosourea is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy.

A

False

The most commonly used alkylating agent is Cyclophosphamide, not Nitrosourea.

151
Q

What are the four histamine receptors in humans?

A

H1, H2, H3, H4

152
Q

What is the primary effect of H1 receptor activation?

A

Bronchoconstriction and vasodilation

153
Q

What type of drug is diphenhydramine?

A

H1 selective inverse agonist

154
Q

What is the main use of antihistamines?

A

Type I hypersensitivity reactions

155
Q

What are some effects of histamine on the nervous system?

A

Stimulates pain and itching

156
Q

What cardiovascular effects does histamine have?

A

↓ BP (vasodilation) and ↑ HR (reflex tachycardia)

157
Q

What is the ‘Triple Response’ associated with histamine?

A

Wheal and flare reaction

158
Q

What is a characteristic of first-generation H1 receptor antagonists?

159
Q

Fill in the blank: H1 receptor antagonists resemble _______ drugs.

A

antimuscarinic

160
Q

What are some therapeutic uses of H1 receptor antagonists?

A
  • Sleep aids
  • Antinausea/antiemetic
  • Antiparkinsonism
161
Q

What are leukotrienes associated with in terms of respiratory function?

A

Bronchospasm, mucus secretion, airway edema

162
Q

What is the effect of sympathomimetics in asthma treatment?

A

Bronchodilation

163
Q

What is the role of omalizumab in asthma treatment?

A

Anti-IgE monoclonal antibody

164
Q

What is serotonin’s role in the nervous system?

A

Melatonin precursor and vomiting reflex

165
Q

Which serotonin receptor is targeted by buspirone?

166
Q

What are the three major classes of antidepressant medications?

A
  • Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
  • Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
167
Q

What is a common side effect of tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Anticholinergic effects

168
Q

What is the therapeutic range for phenytoin?

A

10-20 mcg/ml

169
Q

What should be administered next for a status epilepticus patient unresponsive to phenytoin?

A

Benzodiazepines

170
Q

What are the phases of thrombogenesis?

A
  • Adhesion
  • Aggregation
  • Secretion
171
Q

What are the two pathways of blood coagulation?

A
  • Intrinsic
  • Extrinsic
172
Q

What is the role of vitamin K in coagulation?

A

Confers activity on prothrombin and factors VII, IX, and X

173
Q

What is the primary action of statins?

A

Decrease cellular cholesterol synthesis

174
Q

What is the mechanism of action for fibrates?

A

Increase lipolysis in liver

175
Q

Fill in the blank: Ezetimibe is an _______ inhibitor.

A

intestinal sterol absorption

176
Q

What is the effect of niacin on lipoproteins?

A

Decreases VLDL, LDL and increases HDL

177
Q

What are the general properties of antimicrobial agents?

A
  • Modes of action
  • Spectrum of activity
  • Side effects
178
Q

What is the primary effect of penicillin?

A

Inhibiting cell wall synthesis

179
Q

What is a common adverse reaction to cephalosporins?

A

Hypersensitivity

180
Q

What is the main use of vancomycin?

A

Treatment of MRSA infections

181
Q

What are the characteristics of first-generation cephalosporins?

A

Better gram (+) activity

Used for UTI and Staph infections, alternative to penicillin with less allergy.

182
Q

What is vancomycin primarily used for?

A

Alternative to penicillin-resistant bacteria (MRSA)

Known as the ‘drug of last resort’ with a 10% rate of adverse reactions.

183
Q

What are common adverse reactions associated with vancomycin?

A

Irritating to tissues, chills/fever, ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, ‘red neck’ syndrome

These reactions can occur due to rapid infusion.

184
Q

What is the mechanism of action of polypeptide antibiotics like polymyxins?

A

Act as detergents, bind to phospholipids

Especially effective against gram-negative bacteria.

185
Q

What is the primary action of tetracyclines?

A

Inhibition of protein synthesis, bacteriostatic

They have the widest spectrum of activity but can destroy normal intestinal microbiota.

186
Q

Which drug is the prototype for macrolides?

A

Erythromycin

Semi-synthetic derivatives include Clarithromycin (Biaxin) and Azithromycin (Zithromax).

187
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rifamycin?

A

Inhibits mRNA synthesis

Important for treating tuberculosis and other infections.

188
Q

What do quinolones inhibit?

A

DNA gyrase (bacterial)

They are effective against both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.

189
Q

What is the structural similarity of sulfonamides?

A

Structurally similar to PABA

They act as antimetabolites in the synthesis of folic acid.

190
Q

What are the unique properties of viruses?

A

Infectious particles, obligate intracellular parasites

They cannot multiply unless they invade a specific host cell.

191
Q

What is the mechanism of action of acyclovir?

A

Chain termination is irreversible when virus mistakes acyclovir for dGTP

It is used primarily for HSV, VZV infections and is safe in pregnant women.

192
Q

What is the role of Zidovudine (AZT) in antiviral therapy?

A

Inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

It is used in Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART).

193
Q

Which antiviral drug is used for treating influenza?

A

Oseltamivir phosphate (Tamiflu)

Others include Zanamivir (Relenza) and Baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza).

194
Q

What are the characteristics of benzodiazepines?

A

Anxiolytics, sleep aids

Examples include Diazepam and Midazolam.

195
Q

What is the primary effect of aspirin?

A

COX-1 > COX-2 inhibition

Used for rheumatoid arthritis, fever, and clot prevention.

196
Q

What type of drug is methotrexate?

A

Non-biologic DMARD

It reduces inflammation and damage to bones and joints.

197
Q

What is the common mechanism of action for opioids?

A

Bind to receptors in brain and spinal cord

They modulate pain by reducing neurotransmitter release.

198
Q

What are the effects of strong opioid agonists?

A

Analgesia, euphoria, sedation

Examples include Morphine and Hydromorphone.

199
Q

What is naloxone used for?

A

Opioid antagonist

It completely reverses opioid effects in 1-3 minutes.

200
Q

What distinguishes proto-oncogenes from tumor suppressors?

A

Proto-oncogenes promote cell division, tumor suppressors inhibit it

Their balance is critical for normal cell growth.

201
Q

What are alkylating agents used for?

A

Cancer treatment, DNA alkylation or crosslinking

They are the largest and most diverse class of chemotherapeutic agents.

202
Q

Which drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?

A

Methotrexate

It interferes with DNA/RNA synthesis and has cytotoxic actions primarily on bone marrow.

203
Q

What are the primary organs where the drug concentrates?

A

Kidney, intestine, testes

204
Q

Does the drug penetrate the blood-brain barrier effectively?

A

Poorly penetrates BBB

205
Q

How is the drug excreted?

A

Slowly excreted in urine

206
Q

What is the curative rate of the drug for testicular cancer?

A

85% - 95% curative

207
Q

List three types of cancers treated with this drug.

A
  • Ovarian cancer
  • Lung cancer
  • Esophageal cancer
  • Gastric cancer
208
Q

What is the alternative drug that is better tolerated?

A

Carboplatin

209
Q

What enzyme does Methotrexate inhibit?

A

Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)

210
Q

What is the primary action of Methotrexate?

A

Interferes with DNA/RNA synthesis

211
Q

What are the cytotoxic actions of Methotrexate predominantly targeted at?

A

Bone marrow

212
Q

What is one potential effect of Methotrexate on intestinal mucosa?

A

Ulceration of intestinal mucosa

213
Q

Does Methotrexate cross the placenta?

A

Yes, interferes with embryogenesis

214
Q

What immunosuppressive action does Methotrexate have?

A

Prevents clonal expansion of B & T lymphocytes

215
Q

What is the anti-inflammatory action of Methotrexate?

A

Interferes with release of inflammatory cytokines

216
Q

What class of drugs do 6-MP and 5-FU belong to?

A

Antimetabolites

217
Q

Name one plant-based antineoplastic drug.

A

Vincristine or Paclitaxel (Taxol)

218
Q

List two antibiotic antineoplastic drugs.

A
  • Dactinomycin
  • Doxorubicin
  • Bleomycin
219
Q

What is one example of a hormonal agent used in cancer treatment?

A

Corticosteroids or Tamoxifen or Fulvestrant

220
Q

What are chemokines?

A

Chemotactic cytokines that signal leukocytes to move

221
Q

What is a primary immunodeficiency disorder?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome: No Thymus (no T cells)

222
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is associated with anaphylaxis?

A

Type I hypersensitivity

223
Q

What is the immune response against normal, healthy tissue called?

A

Autoimmunity

224
Q

Which condition is characterized by autoantibodies against DNA?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

225
Q

What are glucocorticoids used for?

A

Suppress immune response, mimic naturally occurring adrenal corticosteroids

226
Q

What is the action of calcineurin inhibitors?

A

T-cell activation pathway

227
Q

What is the main side effect of Azathioprine?

A

Leukocytopenia caused by bone marrow suppression

228
Q

What type of agent is Cyclophosphamide?

A

Alkylating agent

229
Q

What is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy?

A

Cyclophosphamide

230
Q

Which drug is used for RH- mothers who give birth to RH+ children?

231
Q

Fill in the blank: _______ is a strong opioid agonist with a phenylpiperidine structure.

PHARM FINAL (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions