Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Albuterol

A

Beta 2; asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Clonidine

A

A2; HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dobutamine

A

B1; Cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Dopamine

A

D; vasodilation, vasoconstriction, cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Epinephrine

A

A/B1&2; Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Isoproteronol

A

B1/2; Cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Some A/B1>2; (cardiac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Direct acting Adrenergic agonists (7)

A
  1. Albuterol
  2. Clonidine
  3. Dobutamine
  4. Dopamine
  5. Epinephrine
  6. Isoproterenol
  7. Norepinephrine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Indirect acting adrenergic agonist (1)

A
  1. Amphetamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Amphetamine

A

Displaces NE, reversed NET and blocks DAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Direct & Indirect acting Adrenergic Agonists (1)

A
  1. Ephedrine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ephedrine

A

Direct - mimics epinephrine
Indirect - release of catecholamines
*CAN cross BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Neurotransmitter Classes (6)

A
  1. Esters
  2. Monoamines
  3. Amino acids
  4. Purines
  5. Peptides
  6. Inorganic gases (not stores; released as needed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Esters (1)

A
  1. Acetylcholine (CHOLINERGIC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Monoamines (3)

A
  1. Norepinephrine
  2. Serotonin
  3. Dopamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Amino acids (2)

A
  1. Glutamate (E)
  2. GABA (I)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Purines (2)

A
  1. Adenosine
  2. ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Peptides (2)

A
  1. Substance P
  2. Endorphins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Inorganic gases (1)

A
  1. Nitric oxide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Catecholamines (5)

A
  1. Epi
  2. Norepi
  3. Isoproterenol
  4. Dopamine
  5. Dobutamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Adrenoceptor Antagonist Drugs (5 - Reversible and Irreversible)

A
  1. Phentolamine
  2. Tolazolin
  3. Prazosin
  4. Labetolol
  5. Phenoxybenzamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Reversible/Competitive adrenoceptor antagonists (4) and use

A
  1. Phentolamine
  2. Tolazolin
  3. Prazosin
  4. Labetalol
    *Used for hypertension related to pheochromocytoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Irreversible/non-competitive adrenoceptor antagonist (1)

A
  1. Phenoxybenzamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What receptor do adrenoceptor antagonists bind to?

A

Alpha receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What 2 things do beta agonists do to the heart?

A
  1. Negative inotrope (force)
  2. Negative chronotrope (rate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What 3 things do beta agonists do to the blood vessels?

A
  1. Oppose B2 mediated vasodilation
  2. Acute: inc. peripheral resistance
  3. Chronic: dec. peripheral resistance (mechanism unclear)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 4 beta-antagonist drugs?

A
  1. Propranolol (Inderal)
  2. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
  3. Atenolol (Ternormin)
  4. Esmolol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Propranolol (Inderal)

A

Beta 1 & 2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Metoprolol (Lopressor) and Atenolol (Tenormin)

A

Mainly A1 selective; safer in COPD/diabetic patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Esmolol

A

ultra-short acting (given in OR); B1 selective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Indirect-acting cholinomimetics (4)

A
  1. Edrophonium
  2. Carbamates
  3. Neostigmine
  4. Organophosphates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Indirect-acting cholinomimetics (Simple alcohols)

A
  1. Edrophonium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Indirect-acting cholinomimetics (Carbamic acid esters of alcohols)

A
  1. Carbamates
  2. Neostigmine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Indirect-acting cholinomimetics (Organic derivatives of phosphoric acid)

A
  1. Organophosphates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Major uses of cholinomimetics (4)

A
  1. Disease of the eye
  2. GI and urinary tracts
  3. NMJ - MYASTHENIA GRAVIS
  4. Atropine OD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

S/S to look for with organophosphate exposures

A

SLUDGE-M
Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI Motility, Emesis, Miosis (constricted pupil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

S/S of poisonous mushrooms (Muscarinic excess)

A

SLUDGE-M
Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI Motility, Emesis, Miosis (constricted pupil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

S/S of atropine OD (belladona plant)

A

BRAND
Blind, red, absent bowel sounds, nuts, dry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Treatment of organophosphate exposure

A

Atropine
Pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Tx of poisonous mushrooms/muscarinic excess

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Tx of atropine OD

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

NO, Nitrates, Nitrites

A

Activate guanylate cyclase - inc cGMP
RELAXATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Beta-2 agonists (vascular smooth mm)

A

GPCR-cAMP
RELAXATION (MAINLY RESPIRATORY)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Beta blockers (smooth mm)

A

Decrease demand on the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Ca Channel blockers (smooth mm)

A

Less total calcium
RELAXATION

46
Q

Sildenafil

A

Blocks PDE5 - inc. cGMP
RELAXATION

47
Q

Ca Channel blockers (3)

A
  1. Dihydropyridines
  2. Verapamil
  3. Diltiazem
48
Q

Dihydropyridines (selectivity)

A

Peripheral vasculature

49
Q

Verapamil and Diltiazem (selectivity)

50
Q

Antihypertensive Agents (4)

A
  1. Diuretics
  2. Sympathoplegics (alpha/beta blockers)
  3. Direct vasodilators
  4. Anti-angiotensins
51
Q

Diuretics MOA

A

deplete sodium and water

52
Q

Sympathoplegics (alpha/beta blockers) MOA

A

decrease PVR, recude CO

53
Q

Direct vasodilators MOA

A

relax vascular smooth mm

54
Q

Anti-angiotensins MOA

A

block activity/production

55
Q

CNS sympathoplegics (2)

A
  1. Methyldopa
  2. Clonidine
56
Q

Adrenoceptor Antagonist (6)

A
  1. Propanolol
  2. Metoprolol
  3. Atenolol
  4. Prazosin
  5. Terazosin
  6. Doxazosin
57
Q

Clonidine & Methyldopa

A

PRIMARY anti-HTN d/t alpha agonist activity in brainstem = dec. sympathetic stimulation
BINDS MORE TIGHTLY TO A2 THAN A1

58
Q

Propranolol

A

Lowers BP; prevents reflex tachycardia
Antagonizes B1/2 receptors
Dec. CO
Inhibits renin production
toxicity associated w/ beta-blockade

59
Q

Prazosin, Terazosin, Doxazosin

A

A1 blockers in arterioles/venules
Dilates both resistance and capacitance vessels
BP I reduced more in an upright position

60
Q

Minoxidil

A

Vasodilator - opens K+ channels in smooth mm
Dilates arteries/arterioles

61
Q

Hydralazine

A

Dilates arterioles (NO production)

62
Q

Hydralazine toxicities

A

HA/N/Sweating/Flushing

63
Q

Sodium Nitroprusside

A

HTN emergencies/cardiac failure
dilates arterial and venous vessels
Relaxes vascular smooth mm - breaks down in blood to release NO and inc. cGMP

64
Q

Fenoldopam

A

Peripheral arteriolar dilator
HTN emergencies/post-op HTN
AGONIST OF D1 receptors

65
Q

Digoxin

A

Inhibits Na/K/ATPase
maintains normal resting potential
+ inotrope (force)
Can have hyperkalemia and calcemia or hypomagnesemia

66
Q

Digoxin toxicity (EC50 & TC50)

A

EC50 = 1 ng/ml
TC50 = 2 ng/ml

67
Q

Digoxin effects on other organs

A

It affects ALL EXCITABLE tissue
Inhibition of Na/K/ATPase (smooth mm, CNS)

68
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (1)/MOA

A

Milrinone (PARENTERAL ONLY)
block PDE3 enzyme which inactivates cAMP and cGMP
+ inotropic effects

69
Q

Antiarrythmic Agents (4/5 classes)

A
  1. Sodium channel blockade (-caines)
  2. Sympatholytic (Beta blockers)
  3. Prolong action potential duration (other mechanisms besides sodium channels) = Amiloride
  4. Block cardiac calcium channel currents (Verapamil)
  5. OTHER
70
Q

Sodium channel blockers (3)

A
  1. Quinidine
  2. Lidocaine
  3. Flecainide
71
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors

A

Acetazolamide

72
Q

Loop diuretics (2)

A
  1. Furosemide (sulfanamide)
  2. Ethacrynic acid
73
Q

Thiazides

A

Work in distal convoluted tubule and inhibit NCC
1. Hydrochlorothiazides
2. Sulfonamides

74
Q

Aldosterone

A

Inc. Na/water reuptake ENAC
inc. blood volume

75
Q

Potassium-sparing diuretics

A
  1. Spironolactone
76
Q

ADH/Vasopressin

A

inc. water reabsorption
adds AQP2 to apical membrane
inc. blood volume

77
Q

ADH/Vaso antagonist

A

Conivaptan

78
Q

Osmotic Diuretics

79
Q

Diphenhydramine

A

H1 antihistamine

80
Q

H1 uses

A
  1. Sedation
  2. Antinausea/antiemetic
  3. Antiparkinsonism
  4. Local anesthesia
81
Q

H2 uses

A

Not as effective as PPIs

82
Q

Drugs used in asthma (3)

A
  1. Bronchodilators
  2. Anti-inflammatory agents
  3. Leukotriene antagonists
83
Q

Bronchodilators - for asthma (3)

A
  1. Beta-agonists
  2. Antimuscarinics
  3. Methylxanthines
84
Q

Anti-inflammatory agents - for asthma (3)

A
  1. Steroids
  2. Antibodies
  3. Alow anti-inflammatory drugs
85
Q

Leukotriene antagonists (2)

A
  1. Lipoxygenase inhibitors
  2. Receptor inhibitors
86
Q

Sympathomimetics (5)

A
  1. Epi
  2. Isoproterenol
  3. Terbutaline
  4. Formoterol
  5. Salmeterol
87
Q

Muscarinic Antagonists (3)

A
  1. Atropine
  2. Ipratropium bromide (COPD)
  3. Tiotropium (COPD) - 24 hour
88
Q

Zileuton

A

Inhibits 5-lipoxygenase

89
Q

Zafirlukast/Montelukast

A

Inhibits binding to leukotriene pathway receptor

90
Q

Omalizumab (Xolair)

A

Anti-IgE monoclonal antibody - targets portion that binds to mast cells
Lessens asthma severity
Decreases corticosteroid requirement
Reduced hospitalizations

91
Q

Buspirone

A

5-HT1A agonist
Anxiolytic, OCD

92
Q

Triptans

A

5-HT1D/B agonist
Migraines/HA

93
Q

Toxicity of Triptans

A

Recurrence of migraine
Serotonin syndrome

94
Q

What 3 drugs can cause serotonin syndrome

A
  1. Triptans
  2. SSRIs
  3. MAOIs
95
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A

5-HT2 antagonist
Carcinoid tumors

96
Q

Cyproheptadine

A

cold induced urticaria

97
Q

Ondansetron

A

5-HT3 antagonist

98
Q

Serotonin syndrome tx

A

Sedation (benzos), intubation/ventilation

99
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome tx

A

Diphenhydramine

100
Q

Malignant hyperthermia tx

A

Dantrolene

101
Q

Antidepressant treatments (4 classes)

A
  1. SSRIs
  2. SNRIs
  3. TCAs
  4. MAOIs
102
Q

Elavil

A

TCAs
Inhibits SERT, NET and anticholinergic

103
Q

Prozac/Zoloft

A

SSRIs
Inhibit SERT

104
Q

Pristique/Cymbalta

A

SNRI’s (SERT/NET)

105
Q

Ethoxusimide

A

Absence seizures

106
Q

Vigabatrin

A

infantile spasms

107
Q

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

A

Focal/partial seizures

108
Q

Phenytoin/Phenobarb/Carbamazepine

A

Partial seizures and general tonic-clonic

109
Q

Valproic acid

A

Absence, tonic, atonic, clonic