Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Exams > Pharm Final > Flashcards

Pharm Final Flashcards

1
Q

Covert the different types of medication concentrations.

A

Kilogram→ gram→ milligram→ microgram & %= (%# x 10) / 100mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how many micrograms are in a milligram, or how many micrograms are in a gram?

A

1000mcgs=1mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a 4% medication, what does that mean to you?
How many milligrams per mL would that contain?

A

=4Gs/100mLs
=4Gs—>4000mgs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the three-step process that I have instilled into your brains when solving a med math problem?

A

What are we solving for? Weight based? All units the same?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

administer a medication via an intramuscular injection.

A

90 degree angle; deltoid(up to 2mLs), Dorsal gluteal(butt (5 mLs or more) upper lateral side, vastus lateralus (5mLs or more), Rectus femoris (up to 5mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Solve a med math problem to administer a medication bolus via either the IO route

A

find epiphysis/ growth plate of bone, 90 degree angle push needle till 1 line showing, then drill, aspirate at least with a 10mL (20mL preferred), (3-way-cockstop push & push method for kids), admin 2% lidocaine for pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Solve a med math problem that deals with administering a bolus of IV fluid over time.

A

TAV
Time, Admin Set , Volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Solve a med math problem that deals with administering a medicated IV/IO infusion.

A

CAD
Concentration , Admin Set , Dosage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the “8 Rights” of medication administration.

A

PT, Dose, Doc, med, time, response, reason, route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the difference between antiseptic and a disinfectant? When would we use one versus another?

A

Antiseptic = person
Disinfectant = tools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is medical asepsis

A

providing a medical environment that is free of pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What technique should be used if you ever must recap a needle?

A

Pick up cap on a surface alone with needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the 4 different general routes of medication administration:

A

Enteral, Parental, Pulmonary, Percutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Enteral med admin/=

A

GI; PO, NG/OG Tubes, SL, PR, Buccal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Parenteral med admin/=

A

“needles”; IV, IO, ET, IM, Umbilical, Subcutaneous, Topical, IN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Percutaneous med admin/=

A

per skin ;Sublingual, buccal, ocular, aural (ear),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pulmonary med admin/=

A

Inhaled (albuterol): musclnaric receptors on smooth M. of bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the “first past effect” and during what type of medication administration would that apply?

A

Liver filtering the med/ & applies only to Enteral med/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the different types of oral medication forms:

A

tablets, capsules, enteric coated/time release, syrups (dissolved in sugary based), suspensions (water based), elixirs (meds mixed w/ alcohol based), lozenges (melt w/ heat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When would you use an OG tube versus an NG tube?

A

PT is unconscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How would you measure for the correct insertion depth of the different types of gastric tubes?

A

“?” measuring technique Confirm placement with air while listening to epigastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How would you administer medications to a patient utilizing their gastric tube?

A

Crush meds into 30mLs of warm water then admin w/ 50-100mLs warm flush after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the different ways that we carry parenteral medications

A

glass ampules, single and multi-dose vials & pre-filled/loaded syringes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the three different parts of a syringe?

A

(Tip, Barrel, plunger)Flashback chamber, Hub (base before needle), stylet =needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hypodermic needle is what/used for?

What are the different parts of a hypodermic needle?

A

hypodermic needle=hollow metal tube used w/ the syringe to admin/ med/s. It’s sharp enough to puncture tissues, blood vessels, or IV medication poorts
Parts: hilt & shaft. Hilt is a threaded plastic tube that screws securely onto the syringe’s distal adapter. shaft is a thin metal tube through which med/s can flow from the syringe into the site. A bevel at the shaft’s distal end accounts for its sharpness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

intradermal medication administration:
what sites can you use:
What degree of insertion would you use?
How much fluid can you administer using this route?

A

=Deposit med into the dermal layer of the skin
=Anywhere
= 10-15 degrees
= less than 1 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Subcutaneous medication admin/:
What sites can we use:

What degree of insertion would you use?
How much fluid can you administer using this route?

A

=Tissue Comp/: Loose connective tissue between skin and muscle.
= skin on the upper arms, thighs, abdomen (avoid tattoos & superficial important vessels & ligaments/tissues)
= 15 degrees
=No more than 1mL to avoid irritation/ possible abscess.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Intramuscular medication admin/:
What sites can you use?

What degree of insertion would you use?
How much fluid can you administer into the four ?

A

= deposit into muscle through muscle
= deltoid, Dorsal gluteal(butt) upper lateral side), vastus lateralis (back of thigh), Rectus femoris, PEDIS & stabilize
= straight on 90 degrees
;delt=2mL, butt & Vas Lat/ = 5 or more mLs, , Butt= up to 5mLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the different types of percutaneous medication administration routes:

A

Sublingual, buccal, ocular, nasal, aural (ear), pulmonary, trans/subdermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What medications could (but probably shouldn’t be) administered down an ET tube?

A

=(NAVEL) Narcan, Atropine, Vasopressin, Epi, Lidocaine
Vaso-irratators (really any med that isn’t nutritional replacement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Water is contained in what 3 compartments in the human body? What are the percentages?

A

60% of body weight is water 45%=intracellular & 15% extracellular (outside cell)
Interstitial 10.5%
Intravascular 4.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is osmosis?
What is simple diffusion?
What is Facilitated Diffusion?
What is Active transport?

A

= water moving to high solute concentration from low
= molecules moving high to low
= Molecules moving with a helper EX metformin or insulin
= Molecules moving low to high concentration with use of ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

different types of IV fluid:

A

Hypo/Iso/Hyper tonic, fluids, blood, crystalloids, & colloids,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the two most common types of isotonic crystalloid solutions that are used in the prehospital environment?

A

Lactate Ringer’s & 0.9% sodium Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If you were administering isotonic crystalloid solutions, how much would move out of the intravascular compartment within 1 hour?

A

2/3s would move out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What would occur to the cells in the body if admin/ a isotonic solution?
What’d occur to the cells in the body if admin/ a hypertonic solution?
What’d occur to the cells in the body if admin/ hypotonic solution?

A

= cells stay same
=cells shrink & can shrink to crenation
= Cells would swell up & can blow up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure in the vascular system & what creates it?

What is oncotic pressure in the vascular system and what creates it?

A

=Pressure from heart in blood vessels & forces water to cross the capillary membrane into the interstitial space.
=Pulling water back into the blood vessels by the presence of large proteins in the blood (pulling back in)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What IV sites are considered “peripheral IV” sites?

A

Arms, Feet, hands, Legs, External Jugular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are central venous sites?

A

(IJ) intra jugular, subclavian, femoral, peripherally inserted central cath (PICC) line, Port-a-cath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of needle must be utilized to access a Port-a-Cath?

A

Huber needle –> slanted needle with hole laterally also

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a Micro IV administer set & How many drops equals 1 mL?

A

60ggts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the different Macro IV administer sets?

A

20,15,12,10 gtts/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the different types of needles used of intravenous therapy?

A

Butterfly, Teflon, Hallow, Huber, hyperdermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When performing an IV stick, what degree of insertion would you use?

A

15-30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What size of IV catheter would you use to access an EJ?

A

16-18 gauge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does the acronym “TKO” mean?
What does the acronym “KVO” mean?

A

(to keep open) = 20-25mLs/Hr
( keep vein open)= 20-25mLs/Hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

the different complications that can come from intravenous therapy.

A

Infiltration, pyrogenic reaction, air emboli, catheter shear, vein blowing, necrosis, thrombophlebitis, artery puncture, circulatory overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Can you use a scalp vein for IV access, and if you can, what must you remember?

A

Yes you can, and remember can easily blow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When is it okay to perform an IO? (i.e. what type of patient/conditions)

A

Cardiac arrest, cant get IV, Critical PTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the different parts of a bone? (ends, middle, etc..)

A

Epi/ Meta/ Dia/physis, medullary canal, red & yellow bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Where is red bone marrow found?

A

Epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Where is Yellow bone marrow found?

A

Diaphysis -> medullary canal
“Ye(ll)ow medu(ll)ary”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a more technical name for the growth plate of a bone?

A

Metaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What sites can you use for the placement of an IO? (adult versus pediatric)

A

Proximal Tibia (~2 inches for stability)
Proximal Humorous (in peoples way)
Distal Tibia (easier for manual IO),
Sternal aka manubrium (for adults)
Distal femur (for kids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are some potential complications with IO access?
What are the contraindications for the placement of an IO?

A

=PE, Fat emboli, Infiltration, breaking bone
= Infection, previous attempt @ same site, Brittle bones, broken bones

56
Q

What are the 3 most common types of central venous catheters that you will see in the prehospital environment?

A

PICC line, tunneled, med/ port

57
Q

Accessing a central venous catheter, what’s min/ syringe size that should be used?

A

10mL
use 20mL preferably

58
Q

If a patient has their tunneled venous access device utilized for dialysis therapy, can we access it?

A

NO, b/c line have been used already

59
Q

What are some techniques that you could use if you encounter difficulties while trying to aspirate fluid from a PICC line or tunneled venous line?

A

Roll & Shrug shoulders, Turn head side to side

60
Q

What are the two main branches of the nervous system?

A

Central & Peripheral

61
Q

The central nervous system (CNS) is made up of what structures?

A

Brain & Spinal Cord

62
Q

What are the two subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A

Somatic & Autonomic

63
Q

What are the 2 subdivisions of the autonomic NS (ANS)?

A

Sympathetic & Parasympathetic

64
Q

What effects would you see if the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) was to take over?

A

“Fight or Flight”
increase HR & electricity, GI constriction, ect + tropic effects

65
Q

What type of receptors are used by the sympathetic nervous system?

A

A1,A2, B1, B2

66
Q

What is the main pre and post ganglionic neurotransmitter for the SNS?

A

Epinephrine

67
Q

What part of the spinal cord does the SNS originate from?

A

Lumbar & Thoracic Spine

68
Q

How do the nerves of the SNS differ from the PSNS?

A

shorter Pre & longer Post ganglions

69
Q

What would you call a med/ that caused a direct increase in the SNS?

A

Sympathomimetic

70
Q

What would you call a medication that directly blocked the SNS?

A

Sympatholytic

71
Q

What effects would you see if the parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) was to take over?

A

“Rest & Digest”
“calms down” bodies’ organs

72
Q

What type of receptors are used by the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Nm (nicotinic muscle), Nn (nicotinic neuronal),
& Muscarinic = found in heart

73
Q

What is the main pre and post ganglionic neurotransmitter for the PSNS?

A

Acetylcholine

74
Q

hat part of the spinal cord does the PSNS originate from?

A

Cranial & Sacral Spine

75
Q

How do the nerves of the PSNS differ from the SNS?

A

longer Pre & shorter Post Ganglion

76
Q

What would you call a med/ that caused a direct increase in the PSNS?

A

Parasympathomimetic

77
Q

What would you call a medication that directly blocked the PSNS?

A

Parasympatolytic

78
Q

What is the difference between an agonist and an antagonist?

A

Agonist= Stimulates Antagonist= Inhibits

79
Q

The very small area between two nerve cells is known as a?

A

Synapse

80
Q

What is the difference between a positive and negative feedback loop?

A

Neg/= maintains/ brings back to homeostasis Pos/= Continues effects

81
Q

Autoclave means?

A

clean/sanitize w/ heat

82
Q

ET tube meds you can give:

A

(NAVEL) Narcan, Atropine, Vasopressors, Epi, Lidocaine

83
Q

Chemical med name:
Generic med name:
Official med name:
Brand med name:

A

least common EX 7-chlor-1-3dihydro….
manufactured EX diazepam, (usually capitalized) EX Ibuprofen
name registered listed with USP EX Diazepam, USP
name by company followed by trademark/propriety EX Motrin Advil

84
Q

Where meds come from:

A

plants, animals, minerals, synthetic (lab-made),

85
Q

Harrison-Narcotic act (1914):

A

aimed a controlling the importation, manufacture, & sale of opium & coca plant & its derivatives

86
Q

FDA & Cosmetic act (1938)

A

truth-in-labeling cause→ state whether prep has habit-forming drugs and its% “cosmetic makeup additive & %”

87
Q

Durham-Humphrey amendments (1951)=

A

requires pharmacists to have either a prescription for certain meds

88
Q

Kufauver-Harris amendment (1962)=

A

amendment to FDCA, → mandates pharmaceutical manufacturers to list complications “med have me hair”

89
Q

Drug abuse (1970)=

A

classifies the drugs used in medicine into 5 different schedules

90
Q

Schedule 1 med:
Schedule 2 med:
Schedule 3 med:
Schedule 4 med:
schedule 5 med:

A

=never give, highest abuse potential
=high abuse ~dependence accepted med indi/s (codeine, morphine)
=less abuse potential low dependence (acetaminophen)
=low abuse potential = benzos (diazepam, lorazepam)
=lowest abuse potential w/ lil bits of opioids often for cough/diarrhea

91
Q

Phase 1 med studies:
Phase 2 med studies:
Phase 3 med studies:
Phase 4 med studies:

A

=meds/ pharmacokinetics, toxicity, safe dose (therapeutic dose) “make”
=test on limited pop/ “test”
= refined therapeutic dose; data on side effects ”refine”
= post-marketing analysis during conditional approval “sell”

92
Q

FDA pregnancy category A:
FDA pregnancy category B:

FDA pregnancy category C:

FDA pregnancy category D:
FDA pregnancy category X:

A

=studied a lot and had not showed harmful effects to fetus/mom
=animals studies hadn’t showed harm effects to animals but not humans
=animals studies pos/ prob/ w/ no studies on pregnant mother no good studies on animals/pregnant
= fetal risks have been demonstrated benefits could outweigh risks
=fetal risk demonstrated risk outweighs possible benefits to mother

93
Q

Med Bioavailability:
Med Biotransformation:
Med Prodrug:

A

=how much the body breaks down the dose
=METABOLISM→ liver #1 ⅔ filter → means of body filtering med
=body has to break drug down for med to work as intended EX aspirin

94
Q

Idiocrasy effect:
Cross tolerance effect:
Tachyphylaxis effect:
Cumulative effect:

Med antagonist effect:
Summation effect:
Synergism effect:
Potentiation effect:
Interference effect:

A

=individual reaction is unusually dif/ from what is commonly seen
= body builds up tolerance to 1 med thus, tolerance to another med
=rapid occurring tolerance to med
= when med admin/ in many doses thus increased effect, due to quantitative buildup of the drug in the blood
=effects of one med blocks the response to another drug
=2 meds that enhance each other
= 2 meds admin/ together that produces a greater response (“1+1=5”)
=when med enhances effects of another (promethazine + morphine)
=med directly effects the pharm/ of another “football” EX: non-selective beta blocker w/ albuterol so asthma worsts

95
Q

Bioequivalence:
Assay:
Bioassay:
Efficacy:
Teratogenic med:

A

=relative therapeutic effectiveness of chemically equivalent med/s
= test done to determine the amount of purity of a given chemical
=test to ascertain a med/s in a biological model
= ability of med/ to cause a expected response
=medication that can kill/deform the fetus in the mother

96
Q

What are the 2 main branches of NS:

A

Peripheral & central

97
Q

SC the SNS originate from: Thoracic & Lumbar
Nerves of SNS differ from PSNS:
Med/ causing a direct increase in the SNS is:
Med/ directly blocking SNS is:
Parts of heart innervated by sympathetic nervous system:

A

= Thoracic & Lumbar
= Shorter Pre & Longer Post
= Sympathomimetic
= sympatholytic
= All of heart

98
Q

Effects if (SNS) was to take over:
Receptors used by (SNS)
pre/post ganglion neurotransmitter for SNS: Pre & Post
Post w/ sweat glands:

A

= “Fight or Flight” Mydriasis
= Alpha 1,2 Beta 1,2,3
= ACh & NORepi
= ACh

99
Q

Effects if (PSNS) was to take over:
What type of receptors are used by (PSNS):
Main pre/post ganglion neurotransmitter PSNS?
Where does PSNS originate on SC:
Nerves of PSNS differ from the SNS: Longer pre & shorter post

A

= “Feed & breed” miosis
= Muscararic 1 2& Nicotinic 1 2
= ACe for both
= Cranial Sacral
= Longer pre & shorter post

100
Q

Med causing a direct increase in PSNS:
Med/ directly blocking the PSNS is:
Parts of heart innervated by PSNS:
Difference in agonist & antagonist:

A

= Parasympathomimetic
= Parasympatholytic
= AV & SA node
= Ag: stims & Ant: inhibits

101
Q

if a agonist binds to a B1 receptor:
if a agonist binds to a B2 receptor:
if a agonist binds to an A1 receptor:
if a agonist binds to an A2 receptor:
if an agonist binds to muscarinic receptor:

A

= + /tropic effects
= Bronchodilation
= Vaso-consriction
= Keeps A1 in check
= Relaxes Smooth M.

102
Q

Competitive antagonist:
Noncompetitive antagonist:
Irreversible antagonist:

A

= Finds & Fights for receptor
= won’t fight for receptor spot
= misshapes cell where receptor can’t bind from damage/misshaping

103
Q

Small area between two nerve cells is known as a:
Pos/&Neg/ feedback loop:

A

= Synapse
= N= homeostasis P=Excessive

104
Q

What is the RP & AP of a neuron:
The influx of what ion causes it to depolarize?
The efflux of what ion causes it to repolarize?

A

= RP -70mV AP -55mV
= Na
= K

105
Q

Ectopic foci:
Phases 0 & 3 of AP:

A

= abnormal impulse then is propagated throughout the heart
= Depolarization & Repolarization

106
Q

RP & AP of cardiac contractile cell:
RP to AP from:
Influx of ion causes it to depolarize?
Efflux of what ion causes it to repolarize?

A

= RP -90mV AP -85mV
= Ca & Na gap junction
= Na
= K

107
Q

Phases 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 of CC: Phase0:

Phase1:
Phase2:

Phase3:
Phase4:

A

= depolarization Cell gap Junction rapid Na influx by an impulse gen/ed elsewhere in heart. Na then stops entering cell once inside +
= K slowly leaves cell slowly returning cell to normal negative charge
= “plateau” M contraction: Ca+ interrupts w/ influxing into cell. (M.s ussing Ca for contraction). This plateau phase slows repolarization
= Repolarization: cessation Ca influx & rapid K efflux
= Refractory & moving ions back to original seats for RP

108
Q

Na/K pumps working ions move w/ each cycle:
Direction ions move:

A

= 3Na 2K
= Na out & K in

109
Q

Renin-Angiotensin Aldosterone System (RAAS) work: 1st:
2.Liver is always releasing what in bloodstream
3. Kidney release what/by in response to hypoperfusion?
4. Liver makes what that mixes w/ kidney release?
5. Angiotensin1 becomes angiotensin2:
6. Angiotension2 then goes & stim/s Adrenal glands to:
What are the effects of angiotensin II? Vasoconstriction ultimately

A

= (JG cells) jugaxtugaler cells detect decreased blood Vol/press/
= Angiotensinogen released by liver
= Renin released by kidney
= Angiotensin + renin =angiotensin 1
= in the Lungs via releasing (ACE) Angiotensin- Converting Enzyme
= produce & release Alderosterone; Retain/absorbs more Na & water
= Vasoconstriction ultimately

110
Q

Acid-Base balance perfect number:
What is the normal pH range:
Acid: Compensated & Uncomp/:
Alk:& Compensated & Uncomp/:
Respiratory Acid & Alka:
Metabolic Acid & Alka:

A

= 7.4
= 7.35-7.45
= within 7.35-7.4 & Uncomp/: <7.35
= within 7.4-7.45 Uncomp/: >7.45
= ETCO2 acid: <35 & Alk: >45
= ETCO2 35-45 pH and/or ABG >/< 22-26

111
Q

Oxy Dissociation Curve:
Bohr Effect:
Haldane Effect:

A

= H-globin “Train” taking & dropping oxy
= Acidotic with R-shift of hemoglobin w/ decrease oxy affinity
= Alkalotic w/ L-shift Loves oxy in Lungs

112
Q

Bohr Effect:
Influences by:
What does it do to hemoglobin:

A

= Acid> Hemoglobin droping oxy off in body
= + CO2, +temp, -pH+ BPG 2,3 in body
= -oxy affinity

113
Q

Haldane Effect:
Influences by:
What does it do to the hemoglobin?

A

= Alk> Hemoglobin Loves oxy in Lungs
= -CO2, -temp, +pH -BPG 2,3, in Lungs,
= +oxy affinity

114
Q

he (CNS) is made up of what structures: Brain & SC
2 subdivisions of (PNS): Autonomic & Somatic
2 subdivisions of (ANS):

A

= Brain & SC
= Autonomic & Somatic
= Sympathetic & parasympathetic

115
Q

Effects if (SNS) was to take over:
Receptors used by (SNS)
pre/post ganglion neurotransmitter for SNS:
Post w/ sweat glands:

A

= “Fight or Flight” Mydriasis
= Alpha 1,2 Beta 1,2,3
= ACh & Norepi
= ACe

116
Q

Parasympathetic touches 4 cranial nerves:

A

= 3,7,9,10

117
Q

(H2CO3)Carbonic acid (HCO3)bicarbonate system:
Starts & to:
Lungs to/:
H2CO3:
HCO3:

A

= Fastest buffer system “ Teeter-totter”
= CO2 + H2O <> H2CO3 <> H + HCO3 to lungs
= HCO3 + H <> H2CO3 <> CO2 + H2O to body/exhaled
= Carbonic acid
= Bicarbonate

118
Q

Arterial Blood Gas(ABG):
ABG Acid:
ABG Alk:

A

= 22-26 HCO3 (like pH)
= <22
= >26

119
Q

pH: 7.4-7.45, CO2: >45, HCO3: 22-26:
pH: 7.4-7.45, CO2: <35, HCO3: 22-26:

A

= Compensated Respiratory Acidosis
= Compensated Respiratory ALkalosis

120
Q

pH: 7.35-7.4, CO2:35-45, HCO3: <22:
pH: 7.4-7.45, CO2: 35-45, HCO3: >26:

A

= Compensated Metabolic ACidosis
= Compensated Metabolic ALkalosis

121
Q

pH:>7.45, CO2:35-45, HCO3: >26:
pH: <7.35, CO2 = 35-45, HCO3 = <22:

A

= Uncompensated Metabolic ALkalosis
= Uncompensated Metabolic ACidosis

122
Q

pH = <7.35, CO2 = >45, HCO3 = 22-26:
pH = >7.45, CO2: <35, HCO3: 22-26:

A

= Uncompensated Respiratory ACidosis
= Uncompensated Respiratory ALkalosis

123
Q

Different buffer systems in body & how they work: Mid:

Slowest:

Quickest:

A

= Protein buffer system> Carbaminohemoglobin: Amino acid chains pick up CO2
= Phosphate system: Loop-diuretics effects kidneys nephrons to loosen retention of water & release it
= Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system (relies on lungs) “See-Saw” CO2 + H2O <> H2CO3 <> H + HCO3

124
Q

“Natural Pacemaker” of heart & firing rate:
“Gate-Keeper” of heart & firing rate:
Purkinje System inherent firing rate:
Electrical impulses get from right to L-Atrium via:

A

= SA Node 60-100
= AV Node 40-60
= 15-40
= Backman’s Bundle

125
Q

Equation for cardiac output:
Heart & SV volumes:

Equation for BP:
How can you make a + & - effect on it?

A

= CO= SV x HR
= usually squeezes 70mLs & heart holds 100-110mL
= BP=(SV X HR) X SVR
= Meds: diuretics, vaso-constructors

126
Q

Vaughn Williams Classification System:
Class I meds:
Class II meds:
Down regulation:
Never mix what w/ what b/c:
Class III meds:
Class IV meds:
Miscellaneous meds:

A

= Antiarrhythmic med classes by pharmacodynamics
= Sodium channel blockers
= Beta-Blockers
= takes away/blocks CA cells channels:
= Never mix Ca blocker w/ Beta blockers→ stops heart
= Potassium channel blockers “phase 3 K”
= Calcium channel blockers
= Miscellaneous EX Adenosine→ dif/ & adenosine receptors

127
Q

Capnography waveform:
What is Phase I called:
What is Phase II called:
What is Phase II called:
What is Phase IV called:

A

= Measured at end of phase 3
= Baseline
= Upstroke
= Plateau
= Inspiratory Downstroke

128
Q

(Capno/ waves) Shark fin:
Tachypnea:
Bradypnea:
Curare’s Cleft:

A

= Bronchoconstriction
= thin wave width, small baselines, hypocapnia if severe
= thick wave width, Big baselines, Hypercapnia if severe
= Dip in phase 3 from diaphragm/PT waking up

129
Q

hormone is secreted by the Alpha Cells:
What effect would this have on PT’s BGL:
What hormone is secreted by the Beta Cells:
What effect would this have on PT’s BGL:
What is the purpose of insulin in the body:

A

= Glucagon
= Raise BGL
= Insulin
= Lower BGL
= Facilitates & lower BGL

130
Q

Main inhibitory neurotransmitter:
Main excitatory neurotransmitter:
Neurotransmitter for reward & motivation:
Neurotransmitter Which plays a role in stress response:
Neurotransmitter for Mood & helps w/ sleep & digestive regulation:

A

= GABA
= Glutamate
= Dopamine
= Epinephrine
= Serotonin

131
Q

How is “Therapeutic Index” established for a particular med/:
Med studies 4 phases:
Phase 1:
Phase 2:
Phase 3:
Phase 4:

A

= Ratio of med’s lethal dose to its effective dose “sweet spot” determined w/ phase 1 of med study
= med: pharma/kin/, toxicity, safe (therapeutic) dose, PT volunteers
= tested on limited population
= refined therapeutic dose; collects data on side effects
= post-marketing analysis during conditional approval

132
Q

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent:
Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent:
Common med & Contraindicated use w/:

A

= Blocks/shuts down brain & muscle paralyzing PT 60-90mins
= Blocks/shuts down brain & muscle paralyzing PT 5-15mins
= Succinylcholine: Hyperkalemia, Burns, Crush Injury, +ICP, Trauma

133
Q

Beta-Blocker:
Cardio-Selective Beta-Blockers:–
Non-selective Beta-blockers:

A

= blocks β adrenergic receptors
= Atenolol, Esmolol, Metoprolol
= Propranolol, Nadolol, Labetalol, Sotalol.

134
Q

Alpha Adrenergic antagonists Meds:

α2 Agonists:
α1 Antagonist: Minipress

A

= Inhibits the release of NorEpi into the synapse thus decreases HR(CHronotropy) & electrical impulse speed (Inotropy)
= Clonidine (Catapres)
= Minipress

135
Q

(Vaughn-Williams Antiarrhythmics) Procainamide & Lidocaine:
Aminodrone:
“lol” Labetalol:
Aminodrone:
Diltiazem:
Adenosine & Digoxin:

A

= Class I: Na Channel Blockers:
= Class 3: K+ Channel Blockers (“phase 3 repolar”):
= class 2 beta blockers
= class 4 Ca blockers
= miscellaneous

136
Q

Pulse pressure: SBP-DBP
MAP form steps: step 1:
Step 2:
Step 3:
Step 4:
CPP Cerebral Perfusion form:

A

= Pulse pressure: SBP-DBP
=1. BP120/80
= 2. SBP-DBP =40
=3. PP 40/3 + 30
=4. back to PP 40= 93
= (MAP-ICP) + 10

137
Q

plant for Digoxin:
plant for Atropine:

A

= foxglove
= nightshide

Exams (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions