Pharm Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT an action of the body on a drug?

a- absorption
b-distribution
c-metabolism
d-excretion
e-adverse affects

A

e- adverse effects

(pharmacokinetics - body on drug= ADME)

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2
Q

The study of cost and benefits/detriments of drugs used clinically:

A

pharmacoeconomics

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3
Q

The study of drugs effects between individuals in a population and between populations:

A

pharmacoepidemiology

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4
Q

What phase can be used for humans but is still in the post-marketing surveillance phase?

A

phase 4

(only phase with post-marketing surveilence)

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5
Q

What phase is the investigative new drug phase?

A

after preclinical testing & before phase 1

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6
Q

What phase is the new drug application?

A

after phase 3 and before phase 4

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7
Q

Which of these drugs’ target interactions is an example of covalent bonding? (irreversible)

A

-aspirin & cycloxygenase
- proton pump & omeprazole

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8
Q

what determines the degree of movement of a drug between body compartments?

a- size
b- pH
c- degree of ionization
d-protein binding
e- all of the above

A

(distribution)

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9
Q

Aspirin readily donates a proton in aqueous salutations and pyrimethamine readily accepts a proton in aqueous solution. Thus aspirin is a ____ and pyrimethamine is a ___.

A

acid; base

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10
Q

For a dose/response chart, what will you need to do to the dose if you add a competitive inhibitor?

A

increase dose to get same effect as agonist alone

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11
Q

Following the agonist activation of a single GPCR, amplification of the downstream signal occurs because:

A

duration of activation of g-protein is long than agonist activation of receptor

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12
Q

What allows histamine to get a variety of different affects in different receptors?

A

the heterogeneity of the g-protein coupled receptors

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13
Q

What superfamily has a DNA binding domain?

A

nuclear receptors

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14
Q

What keeps the nuclear receptor ligands stable?

A

heat shock protein

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15
Q

What receptor takes the longest and requires hours to days for an affect?

A

nuclear receptor

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16
Q

What receptors can be involved in rapid responses (seconds to minutes)

A

GPCR (beta adrenergic)

Ligand gated (nicotinic acetylcholine)

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17
Q

Acidic drugs bind primarily to which of the following plasma proteins?

A

albumin

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18
Q

Basic drugs bind primarily to which of the following plasma proteins?

A

alpha-1 glycoprotein

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19
Q

Cp= plasma concentration
our goal is to get a plasma concentration within a therapeutic window in order to elicit and appropriate response with out causing toxicity

parameters of this include:
1. clearance
2. volume of distribution
3. half life

A
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20
Q

determines the maintenance dose rate?

A

clearance

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21
Q

determines the loading rate?

A

volume of distribution

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22
Q

determines the time to reach steady state and dosing intervals?

A

half life

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23
Q

The free or unbound fraction of a drug is usually a portion that:

A

exerts a pharmacologic effect

(if protein binding is reduced, greater free drug concentration is available which may lead to increased drug activity)

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24
Q

If a drug is 80% bound to blood elements or plasma proteins, what part is considered the free form?

A

20%

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25
Q

What is the average bioavailability of a drug following IV administration?

A

100%

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26
Q

What organ is responsible for metabolism in the FIRST pass effect?

A

liver

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27
Q

Which of the following would receive a drug slowly?

A

adipose

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28
Q

Bactrim is a 2C9 inhibitor and warfarin is a 2C9 substrate. what happens when the two are taken together?

A

increased warfarin effect

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29
Q

Pharmacokinetics is the effect of ____ and pharmacodynamics is the effect of the ____.

A

kinetics = body on drug
dynamics= drug on body

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30
Q

Which of the following describes minimal effective concentration (MEC)

A

the minimal drug PLASMA concentration to produce an effect

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31
Q

Which of the following is NOT a pharmacokinetic process:

A

the drug causes dilation of coronary vessels

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32
Q

What refers to your body “tank”

A

volume of distribution

(VD also determines the loading rate!)

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33
Q

For first order drug elimination, half-life is t1/2 is ____ at two places on the curve and a constant ____ is lost per unit time

A

equal; percentage

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34
Q

What happens to insulin once its bound to the receptor?

A

phosphate group to tyrosine kinase protein

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35
Q

Physiochemical properties of drugs-

A

racemic mixture regarding chirality

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36
Q

What is the equation for loading dose for an IV drug?

A

D= Vd x Css/ F

Dry = Very Dry x Cause / Fuck

37
Q

Which of the following drugs would likely need a loading dose to help reach therapeutic levels?

A

whichever drug has the greatest half life

38
Q

Which of the following is the amount of drug absorbed per the amount administered?

A

bioavailability

39
Q

The lipid soluble form of a base is ____ and the lipid soluble form of an acid is ____

A

unprotonated; protonated

40
Q

What prohibited full FDA review of supplements and botanicals as drugs?

A

dietary supplemental health and education act

41
Q

Who is in charge of safety regarding drug development?

A

Manufactureres

42
Q

Paul ehrlich states that a drug will not work unless:

A

bound

43
Q

What happens to the curve when naloxone is bound to morphine?

A

right shift

44
Q

What superfamily receptor is a single trans-membrane spanning domain?

A

kinase linked and related receptors

45
Q

What drug is used for patients with TNA-alpha to decrease symptoms?

A

infliximab

46
Q

What does verapamil block?

A

calclium

47
Q

T/F: The first order elimination of a drug half-life is constant

A

true

48
Q

For a drug to be useful, what needs to occur?

A

must show a high degree of binding site specificity

49
Q

What drug interaction still allows binding of the agents, but binds to the same receptor?

A

allosteric antagonist

50
Q

HMG-CoA redutase inhibitors:

A

statins

51
Q

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors do?

A

competitively inhibit rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis in the liver (lovastatin)

52
Q

An anti-epileptic with cognitive impairment, gingival hyperplasia, and drug interaction of CYP450 3A4 enzyme induction?

A

phenytoin

53
Q

Drugs that cause gingival hyperplasia include:

A
  1. anticonvulscents
  2. calcium channel blockers
  3. cyclosporin (anti-fungal)
54
Q

abtianginal medication that works by blocking beta adrenoreceptor

A

atenolol

55
Q

What are three endogenous catecholamines?

A
  1. epi
  2. Norepi
  3. dopi
56
Q

Cardiac output is a function of:

A

SV x HR

57
Q

Myocardial oxygen demand is determined by:

A
  1. HR
  2. myocardial contractility
  3. myocardial wall stress
58
Q

What is true of regarding the EXTRINSIC pathway of coagulation cascade?

A

results in formation of activated factor 7a

59
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the INTRINSIC pathway?

A

all components are present in the blood

60
Q

Predictable dose related reaction NOT part of the therapeutic effect?

A

side effect

61
Q

Levofloxacin is 2C9 inhibitor and warfarin is a 2C9 substrate. What happens when both are taken?

A

Increased warfarin effect

62
Q

What results from covalent modification and alteration of DNA?

A

mutagenesis

63
Q

What will dissolve in H20?

A

must be ionized

64
Q

T/F: Ionized drug more readily crosses the plasma membrane

A

false

  • small uncharged molecules
65
Q

After FDA approval how long is left of patent life?

A

5-10 years

66
Q

Beta 2 agonist for short term control in asthma:

A

albuterol

67
Q

Vaughn Williams classification for potassium channel blocker?

A

class IV

68
Q

What happens to EC50 when competitive agonist is added?

A

shift to right

69
Q

What is a high intensity dose?

A

Rousuvastatin at 20 mg

70
Q

What is a high intensity dose?

A

Atorvastatin (lipitor) 80 mg

71
Q

What has the most perfusion?

A

central organs (heart brain liver kidney)

72
Q

HDL should be:

A

greater than 60

73
Q

LDL should be:

A

less than 100

74
Q

What competitive inhibits conversion of plasminogen to plasmin by TPA?

A

tranexamic acid

75
Q

Which drug is associated with anaphylactic shock?

A

PCN

76
Q

Dries secretions and increases HR in nerve agent exposure?

A

atropine

77
Q

Pt is using albuterol for asthma which medication nis most likely to result in pharmacodynamic interaction and negate use?

A

propranolol

78
Q

Class of lipid lowering agents most potent lowering LDL cholesterol and also very expensive?

A

PCSK-9 inhibitors

79
Q

Study of genetic basis of ADME and receptor target interaction?

A

pharmacogenomics

80
Q

Study of drug effect at a population level?

A

parhamcoepidemiology

81
Q

What enzyme is responsible for breaking down acetylcholine in serum?

A

aceytelcholineesterase

82
Q

Clot that occurs in arterial circulation and consists of platelets:

A

white thormbus

83
Q

Taking APAP with codeine, what effects can it have on other meds they take?

A

slowed absorption

84
Q

What should be avoided in asthmatic patients?

A
  1. Asprins
  2. NSAIDs
  3. Opiates
  4. Barbituates
  5. Antihistamine
85
Q

Non-covalent type of interaction:

A

formation of hydrogen peroxide

86
Q

Antianginal medications with gingival hyperplasia:

A

dilitazem

87
Q

DIRECT thrombin inhibitor:

A

pradaxa

88
Q

WHIch would you not expect with acute cholinergic toxicity?

A

dry mouth

89
Q
A