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x SCO summer 2015 Pharmacology > Pharm exam 2 Drugs, facts, EVERYTHING > Flashcards

Pharm exam 2 Drugs, facts, EVERYTHING Flashcards

1
Q

Atropine

A

Muscarinic blocker. not very selective. week long duration! has minimal CNS effects. Good for pre–anesthesia. Tx cholinergic poisoning (but doesn’t help against nicotinic effects)

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2
Q

MOA: steroid that Triggers production of specific proteins that reduce cell growth and proliferation

A

Prednisone

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3
Q

__[drug]__ can interfere with penicillins and cephalosporins

A

Tetracyclines can interfere with penicillins and cephalosporins

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4
Q

What drug goes through P450 metabolism

A

Vinblastine and Vincristine and
Docetaxel and Paclitaxel
(microtubule inhibitors)

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5
Q

Bethanechol

A

Direct acting, agonist for ACh. More resistant to AChE

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6
Q

Nm nicotinic receptors are on ___

A

Skeletal Muscle

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7
Q

Which generation cephalosporin has NORMAL gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage (including some Pseudomonal coverage)?

A

5th generation (Ceftaroline) [end of the -line!]

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8
Q

What is good for accurate refraction?

A

Homatropine or cyclopentolate

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9
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A

Non–selective alpha antagonists. IRREVERSIBLE. Greater affinity for alpha 1 over alpha 2. Used for pre–op treatment in cases of pheochromocytoma to control hypertension

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10
Q

What does sypmathetic/parasympathetic activity do to the Kidney?

A

Sympathetic alters the secretion of renin. Parasympathetic does nothing

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11
Q

Dactinomycin

A

Antibiotics – interfere with DNA between GC pair and interferes with RNA polymerase. sometimes combined with methotrexate. via IV. liver excretion. SENSITIZES PATIENT TO RADIATION. Bone marrow depression, Immunosuppression, Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, stomatitis, alopecia,

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12
Q

Which cephalosporin is good for people with renal deficiency?

A

Ceftriaxone (3rd generation) because drug is excreted through bile

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13
Q

Carteolol

A

Non–selective beta antagonists with partial agonist effect

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14
Q

Goserelin

A

Steroid Hormones and Antagonists ….. Steroid hormone that is GnRH analog. Tx prostate and breast cancer. Fewer side effects with treatment than estrogen

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15
Q

What is Tx for hypertension?

A

Clonidine (Alpha 2 agonist)

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16
Q

Which receptor is an “autoreceptor”?

A

Alpha 2

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17
Q

What penicillins are taken IV or IM?

A

Ticarcillin, piperacillin, ampicillin + sulbactam, ticarcillin + clavulanic acid

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18
Q

<p>Neostigmine</p>

A

<p>Intermediate Indirect acting, inhibits AChE. Reverses neuromuscular blockade produced during anesthesia. Used in myasthenia Gravis</p>

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19
Q

Ceftazidime

A

3rd Gen Cephalosporins. further diminished gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage. (including some pseudomonal). elimination through Kidney.

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20
Q

Why is a combination of drugs good for cancer treatment?

A

Provide maximal killing with tolerated toxicity, Effective against broad cell lines, May delay development of resistant cell lines. If use drugs with similar toxicities, dose of each must be reduced

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21
Q

Doripenem

A

Carbapenems. tx both gram + and –, anaerobes, and pseudomonas. Resist hydrolysis by most penicillinases. IM / IV. kidney excreted.

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22
Q

Ertapenem

A

Carbapenems. tx both gram + and –, anaerobes, and pseudomonas. Resist hydrolysis by most penicillinases. IM / IV. kidney excreted.

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23
Q

Which antibiotic cancer drug is cell cycle specific?

A

Bleomycin

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24
Q

Tx MRSA, skin infections

A

Daptomycin, Telavancin

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25
Q

Alprenolol

A

Beta–1 selective antagonists

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26
Q

Edrophonium (Tensilon)

A

Short Indirect acting, inhibits AChE. used for diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis. also Reverses neuromuscular blockade produced during anesthesia

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27
Q

Cefdinir

A

3rd Gen Cephalosporins. further diminished gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage. (including some pseudomonal). elimination through Kidney.

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28
Q

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor of postganglionic sympathetics? Long or short?

A

Long, NE alpha/beta

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29
Q

What is the tissue target and actions for Alpha 2?

A

CNS and PNS nerve terminal (inhibits NT release). Also decreases aqueous production and increase uveoscleral outflow

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30
Q

What happens if the miotic pupil does not dilate with phenylephrine?

A

It’s probably not Horner’s syndrome, then

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31
Q

Terazosin

A

Alpha–1 antagonists

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32
Q

Which cephalosporin is excreted through the bile?

A

Ceftriaxone (3rd generation)

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33
Q

Meropenem

A

Carbapenems. tx both gram + and –, anaerobes, and pseudomonas. Resist hydrolysis by most penicillinases. IM / IV. kidney excreted.

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34
Q

Which generation cephalosporin has diminished gram positive and improved gram negative coverage?

A

2nd generation (…Zil-or-Tin)

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35
Q

What happens when you activate Beta 1 receptors?

A

Affects HEART: higher bp, heart rate, increase contractility. Affects Kidney too (more renin > increase blood volume because more water)

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36
Q

What are the clinical uses of alpha antagonists?

A

For tumors that secrete NE, hypertension, Urinary obstruction (enlarged prostate), ED

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37
Q

Carmustine

A

Alkylating Agent. Alkylates DNA. Tx brain tumors (crosses CNS). via IV. Kidney excretion. AE: Delayed hematopoietic depression, development of aplastic marrow, renal toxicity and pulmonary fibrosis

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38
Q

What kind of receptor are the Alpha and beta receptors?

A

G-protein coupled receptors

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39
Q

5–fluorouracil

A

Antimetabolite – Thymidine analog that prevents DNA synthesis. Tx skin cancer. Through IV and topically. Excreted in the kidney/lungs. Can cause anorexia.

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40
Q

Which drug’s adverse effect? : Pulmonary toxicity Alopecia Hypertrophic skin changes and hyperpigmentation Fever and chills

A

Bleomycin

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41
Q

Sildenafil

A

(Viagra) Type 5 Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

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42
Q

Phenylephrine

A

Alpha–1 agonists. it’s a Mydriatic (eye dilator) and OTC decongestant. Tx for Hypotension. also found in many OTC medications for congestion (local constriction) Used often for acute hypotension caused by severe hemorrhage, decreased blood volume, shock, etc. Diagnosis of Horner’s

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43
Q

What are the clinical uses of Cholinomimetics in the Eye?

A

Glaucoma (pilocarpine and carbachol are older treatments)

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44
Q

What do muscarinic blockers do to the eye?

A

They cause mydriasis (constrictor is inhibited), cause cycloplegia (ciliary muscle is inhibited), and reduce lacrimal secretion.

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45
Q

AE:

Fever, chills, phlebitis at injection site, flushing and/or shock if rapid infusion (can pretreat with anti-histamine)

A

Vancomycin

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46
Q

What can cause Crystalline retinopathy and other vision probs?

A

Tamoxifen

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47
Q

What can regenerate AChE?

A

Pralidoxime

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48
Q

Bleomycin

A

Antibiotics – scission of DNA. Tx testicular cancer. Via subcutaneous, IM, or IV. Kidney excretion. can cause Pulmonary toxicity Alopecia Hypertrophic skin changes and hyperpigmentation Fever and chills

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49
Q

Nilutamide

A

Steroid Hormones and Antagonists ….. Nonsteroidal antiandrogen. Tx prostate cancer. via oral administration. Kidney excretes. NILUTAMIDE CAN CAUSE VISUAL PROBLEMS

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50
Q

Brimonidine

A

(Alphagan–P) Alpha–2 agonists. Tx of glaucoma

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51
Q

Scopolamine

A

Muscarinic blocker. Good for seasickness but can cause drowsiness and amnesia. used for pre–anesthesia.

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52
Q

What is good treatment of Uveitis

A

Homatropine or Cyclopentolate

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53
Q

What drugs gind guanine in DNA to form cross links?

A

Cisplatin, Carboplatin, Oxaliplatin

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54
Q

What will be lower than the other? MIC or MBC?

A

MIC is a lower concentration than MBC

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55
Q

What can treat COPD and Asthma?

A

Ipratropium or Tiotropium

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56
Q

Which drugs can cause anorexia?

A

5-fluorouracil and 6-mercaptopurine

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57
Q

Norepinephrine

A

non–selective Alpha/beta agonist. Little effect on Beta 2 receptors Used often for acute hypotension caused by severe hemorrhage, decreased blood volume, shock, etc.

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58
Q

What receptor stimulates the iris dilator muscle?

A

Alpha 1

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59
Q

Where are the nonsteroidal antiandrogens drugs (anti-cancer)?

A

Flutamide, Nilutamide (can cause visual problems) Bicalutamide

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60
Q

Ipratropium (Atrovent)

A

Muscarinic blocker. Tx COPD and Asthma

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61
Q

What happens when you apply Direct-Acting Cholinoceptor Stimulants to the respiratory system?

A

Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle: Bronchoconstriction. Stimulation of bronchial glands: Increase mucous secretion. This would be bad for an asthma patient

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62
Q

Echothiophate

A

Long indirect actin, inhibits AChE

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63
Q

Carbachol

A

Direct acting, agonist for ACh. more resistant to AChE. Older treatment for glaucoma

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64
Q

What is effect of an Indirect Acting Cholinomimetic on the respiratory tract?

A

Basically the same as direct.
Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle: Bronchoconstriction. Stimulation of bronchial glands: Increase mucous secretion. This would be bad for an asthma patient

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65
Q

Which “steroid hormone and antagonists” are actually steroids? Which are not steroids?

A

STEROIDS:

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66
Q

What is MIC?

A

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration: Lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits bacterial growth. Clinically obtainable antibiotic concentration must be greater than the MIC.

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67
Q

Which alkylating agent transforms into an active metabolite?

A

Dacarbazine

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68
Q

What drug Tx enterocolitis?

A

Oral Vancomycin

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69
Q

What are some problems associated with chemotherapy?

A

Resistance, multidrug resistance, toxicity

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70
Q

Do Adrenergic receptors desensitize?

A

They are non-desensitizing

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71
Q

What does Beta-lactamse inhibitors do?

A

They bind and inactivate penicillinases allowing combined drugs to work.

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72
Q

AE: Delayed hematopoietic depression, development of aplastic marrow, renal toxicity and pulmonary fibrosis

A

Carmustine, Lomustine

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73
Q

What happens when you apply Direct-Acting Cholinoceptor Stimulants to the heart and blood vessels?

A

Hyperpolarization of the SA and AV node (decreases AP and contractility), blood vessels release NO from endothelial cells to cause vasodilation

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74
Q

What is the tissue target and actions for Alpha 1?

A

Vascular smooth muscle (contraction), pupillary dilator muscle (contraction – dilation), and heart (increase force of contraction)

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75
Q

Atenolol

A

Beta–1 selective antagonists

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76
Q

Which drug has this MoA: Inhibits DNA polymerase. Also can be incorporated into cellular DNA

A

Cytarabine

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77
Q

Daptomycin

A

Other” antibiotic. induces rapid depolarization of cell membrane. tx gram positive, skin infections. Inactivated by pulmonary surfactants

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78
Q

Labetalol

A

Non–selective beta antagonists with partial alpha–1 antagonist activity. Can be used in hypertensive emergency

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79
Q

Cefixime

A

3rd Gen Cephalosporins. further diminished gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage. (including some pseudomonal). elimination through Kidney.

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80
Q

Penbutolol

A

Non–selective beta antagonists with partial agonist effect

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81
Q

AE: Severe reactions have been fatal: Must infuse slowly. Hypotension, bronchospasm, and angioedema; Chills and fever after first infusion; Cardiac arrhythmias; You don’t see nausea vomiting hair falling out

A

Rituximab

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82
Q

Which antibiotic cancer drug can cause irreversible cardiotoxicity?

A

Doxorubicin

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83
Q

Bicalutamide

A

Steroid Hormones and Antagonists ….. Nonsteroidal antiandrogens. Tx prostate cancer. via oral administration. Kidney excretes.

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84
Q

Telavancin

A

Other” antibiotic. inhibits cell wall. tx gram positive. (also MRSA). Tx skin infections. Taste disturbances, nausea, vomiting, insomnia, foamy urine, NOT to be used during pregnancy Caution in cardiac conditions”

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85
Q

Which drugs can cause buildup of uric acid in the urine?

A

Vinblastine and Vincristine (microtubule inhibitors)

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86
Q

Is tamoxifen cell-cycle specific or not?

A

Tamoxifen is NOT cell-cycle specific

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87
Q

Doxorubicin

A

Antibiotics – induces cytotoxicity and free radicals. must be given IV. Red urine and dark red veins because of extravasation.

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88
Q

Doxazosin

A

Alpha–1 antagonists. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle as well as smooth muscle in the prostate. Doxazosin has longer half–life

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89
Q

Interferons

A

Recombinant DNA via bacteria, activation of macrophages and suppression of cell proliferation. Alpha– primarily leukocytic Beta– produced by CT fibroblasts Gamma– produced by T–lymphocytes

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90
Q

What is the mechanism of MRSA resistance?

A

Altered PBPs (penicillin binding proteins) for reduced drug affinity.

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91
Q

What drug can cause foamy urine?

A

Telavancin

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92
Q

Name MOA: Forms a stable complex with DNA Intercalates into double helix between G-C base pairs Interferes with RNA polymerase and hinders DNA synthesis

A

Dactinomycin

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93
Q

What are the long-acting organophosphates? Where are they distributed?

A

Echothiophate, Malathion, Parathion, Sarin. All are distributed to CNS except echothiophate

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94
Q

Which adregergic receptors lead to a blood pressure decrease?

A

Alpha 2, Beta 2

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95
Q

Cephalexin (Keflex)

A

1st Gen Cephalosporins. Tx gram positive and basic gram negative. poor oral administration. elimination through Kidney. Tx eye (lid) infections. tx pharyngitis

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96
Q

What is Tx for cardiac arrest?

A

Isoproterenol, Epinephrine

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97
Q

What do muscarinic blockers do to the GI tract?

A

Decrease salivation, production of stomach acid, smooth muscle tone and propulsive movements

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98
Q

What is the short-acting Indirect Acting Cholinomimetic? How does it work?

A

Edrophonium. Forms reversible bond with the enzyme. Not actually a substrate for ACh-esterase

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99
Q

What happens when you activate Beta 2 receptors?

A

Bronchodilation, elevates blood glucose (via glycogen breakdown) and increases glucagon secretion from pancreas. Also decreases blood glucose vis insulin. Relaxes smooth ciliary muscle to decrease accommodation.

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100
Q

Tx MRSA, infection blepharitis, corneal ulcers…

A

Bacitracin (“other’)

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101
Q

What is good for seasickness?

A

Scopolamine and other muscarinic blockers

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102
Q

If you’re allergic to penicillin, what else can you not take?

A

Other beta-lactams like Cephalosporins. Nor Augmentin

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103
Q

Nafcillin

A

Penicillinase–Resistant Penicillins. tx Gram (+). only for infections caused by penicillinase staph. High toxicity, causes interstitial nephritis Used only to identify MRSA.

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104
Q

Tiotropium (Spiriva)

A

Muscarinic blocker. Tx COPD and Asthma

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105
Q

Which generation cephalosporin has further diminished gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage and FULL coverage against Pseudomonas?

A

4th generation (cefepime) [4th gen is almost -prime time!]

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106
Q

Prednisone

A

Steroid Hormones and Antagonists ….. Steroid hormone that reduces cell growth and proliferation. Tx lymphomas and induces remission. Via oral, excreted urine. Predispose patient to infection, Hyperglycemia, Cataract formation, increased IOP, Osteoporosis, Mood changes: hyper and happy

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107
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Non–selective beta agonist. Tx cardiac arrest (w/ epinephrine)

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108
Q

What are the common adverse side effects of cancer treatment?

A

Severe vomiting, Bone marrow suppression, Alopecia, Myelosuppression (patient prone to infection)

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109
Q

Cevimeline

A

Direct acting, agonist for ACh. Used in Sjogren’s syndrome (for salivation)

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110
Q

What generation of cephalosporins are ok to use with people allergic to penicillin?

A

3rd, 4th, 5th.

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111
Q

Metaproterenol

A

Beta–2 agonists. Tx Asthma

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112
Q

What are some AE to penicillins?

A

Hypersensitivity. Diarrhea, nephritis (esp. with methicillin), neurotoxicity, hematologic toxicity (decreased coagulation).

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113
Q

What is the distribution and elimination of muscarinic blockers?

A

Most are widely distributed through CNS. They are eliminated via the kidney.

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114
Q

What drug stops VEGF from stimulating new blood vessels?

A

Bevacizumab

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115
Q

Which antibiotic is safe during pregnancy?

A

Bacitracin (“other”)

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116
Q

Parathion

A

Long indirect actin, inhibits AChE

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117
Q

Oxaliplatin

A

Platinum coordinating complex, IV administration. Little penetration to CSF. Renal excretion. forms cross–links in guanine. Mild nausea, myelosuppression

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118
Q

Which drug has this MoA: Pyrimidine analog Forms a molecular complex that deprives the cell of thymidine (DNA synthesis stops)

A

5-fluorouracil

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119
Q

Vincristine

A

Microtubule Inhibitors–halts anaphase. IV injection. Metabolism by the P450 system. Excretion via bile and feces. hyperuricemia (buildup of uric acid in the urine) Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, alopecia. Phlebtis or cellulitis if extravasation occurs.

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120
Q

What are side effects unique to cholinesterase inhibitors?

A

Miosis, Salivation, Sweating, and Muscle weakness. Both direct and indirect have Bronchial constriction, Vomiting, Diarrhea, Convulsions,

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121
Q

What can cause vasoconstriction?

A

Alpha agonists (Epi, Phenylephrine, Tetrahydrozoline)

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122
Q

How are Monoclonal antibodies administered.

A

NOT orally! IV

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123
Q

Which antimetabolite is given orally?

A

6-mercaptopurine (and Methotrexate can be oral)

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124
Q

Cefoxitin

A

2nd Gen Cephalosporins. has diminished gram positive and improved gram negative coverage. elimination through Kidney.

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125
Q

What is a Pharmacologic Sanctuary?

A

A place where some tumor cells can “hide” in tissues where chemotherapeutic agents cannot enter. Radiation “finds” these tumors

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126
Q

Ampicillin

A

Aminopenicillins. tx Gram (+). limited gram (–) coverage Considered extended spectrum. via only oral.

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127
Q

What does a selective receptor mean?

A

It can become non-selective at high concentration

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128
Q

What drug class would be bad for an asthma patient?

A

Direct and indirect acting cholinoceptor stimulant, Timolol (beta blocker)

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129
Q

Nadolol

A

Non–selective beta antagonists. Long duration of action

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130
Q

Cefprozil

A

2nd Gen Cephalosporins. has diminished gram positive and improved gram negative coverage. elimination through Kidney.

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131
Q

What do muscarinic blockers do to the urinary tract and sweat glands?

A

Slows voiding. Reduces sweating

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132
Q

Methotrexate

A

Antimetabolite – Prevents folic acid conversion to THF leading to decreased DNA/ protein materials. Thymidine depletion is most prominent. Low doses Tx inflammatory diseases (Rheumatoid arthritis, crohn disease). via oral, IM, IV. intrathecal for CNS. Avoid in pregnancy. can lead to crystalluria

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133
Q

Which antibiotic type is often combined with penicillinase inhibitor?

A

Aminopenicillins (like ampicillin and amoxicillin)

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134
Q

What is effect of an Indirect Acting Cholinomimetic on the Eye?

A

Basically the same as direct. Contraction of iris sphincter (miosis), ciliary muscle (accommodation), and opening of trabecular meshwork (lower IOP)

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135
Q

What classes of antibiotics show Time-dependent killing?

A

β-lactams, glycopeptides, macrolides, clindamycin, and linezolid

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136
Q

Docetaxel

A

Microtubule Inhibitors – binds to tubulin and makes too stable. via IV. P450 metabolism Biliary excretion. Neutropenia, peripheral neuropathy Docetaxel contraindicated in cardiac disease (can cause fluid retention) and is more potent than paclitaxel

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137
Q

Which cancer drug Sensitizes the patient to radiation (sun)?

A

Dactinomycin

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138
Q

Dobutamine

A

Beta–1 agonist

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139
Q

Which antibiotic is used to identify resistant strains of S. aureus?

A

Methicillin

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140
Q

What are the properties of Choline esters?

A

ACh, Carbachol, Bethanechol are hydrophilic (poorly absorbed), Carbachol and Bethanechol are more resistant to AChE –longer duration of action

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141
Q

What is Tx for chronic orthostatic hypotension?

A

Midodrine (Alpha 1 agonist)

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142
Q

Which cholinomimetric alkaloid can be absorbed across the skin?

A

Nicotine

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143
Q

What is the process of making NE?

A

Tyrosine > DOPA > Dopamine, which enters vesicles > NE via Dopamine β hydroxylase. NE is metabolized by MAO and diffused into surrounding tissue

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144
Q

Which Antibiotic cancer drugs can be given subcutaneously, IM, or IV?

A

Bleomycin

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145
Q

Clavulanic acid + amoxicillin (Augmentin)

A

β–lactamase Inhibitor + Antibiotic Combos. bindand inactivate penicillinases allowing combined drugs to work. Used in to treat many eye infections.

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146
Q

What cancer drug is a powerful blistering agent?

A

Mechlorethamine

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147
Q

AE: Severe vomiting, Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity

A

Cisplatin

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148
Q

Which is more potent:

Docetaxel, Paclitaxel?

A

Docetaxel

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149
Q

What antibiotic should not be used during pregnancy?

A

Telavancin

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150
Q

What is Tx for acute hypotention?

A

Alpha agonists (NE, Phenylephrine)

151
Q

Albuterol

A

Beta–2 agonists. Most commonly used asthma Rx

152
Q

What antibiotic has no activity against gram (+)?

A

Monobactams

153
Q

Flutamide

A

Steroid Hormones and Antagonists ….. Nonsteroidal antiandrogens. Tx prostate cancer. via oral administration. Kidney excretes.

154
Q

Tacrine

A

Intermediate Indirect acting, inhibits AChE. Treatment for Alzheimer’s (not as often as other options because of side effects)

155
Q

Prazosin

A

Alpha–1 antagonists. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle as well as smooth muscle in the prostate

156
Q

Which ANS receptors are nicotinic?

A

All pre-ganglionic cells (and somatic skeletal muscle motor end plates)

157
Q

Cefotaxime

A

3rd Gen Cephalosporins. GOOD CSF penetration. further diminished gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage. (including some pseudomonal). elimination through Kidney.

158
Q

Which adrenergic receptors lead to an increase in heart contractility and heart rate?

A

Beta 1

159
Q

Ceftaroline

A

5th Gen Cephalosporins. gram positive. improved gram negative. is active against S. aureus (including MRSA) and S. pneumoniae. elimination through Kidney.

160
Q

What classes of antibiotics show concentration-dependent killing?

A

Aminoglycosides

161
Q

Timolol (Timoptic)

A

Non–selective beta antagonists. Very effective when used topically to the eye, but do not prescribe for an asthmatic patient. Increased survival after heart attack

162
Q

Which cephalosporin can penetrate the CSF well?

A

Cefotaxime (3rd generation)

163
Q

Curing cancer results in about ___% of patients. Overall 5-year survival rate for cancer patients is
__%

A

10%. 65%

164
Q

What is the tissue target and actions for Beta 2?

A

Respiratory, uterine, and vascular smooth muscle (Relaxes smooth muscle). Skeletal muscle (promotes K+ uptake)

165
Q

Metoprolol

A

Beta–1 selective antagonists. Increased survival after MI

166
Q

Apraclonidine

A

Alpha–2 agonists. Tx of glaucoma

167
Q

What are the different ways drug resistance happens?

A

Spontaneous mutations (good, neutral, bad), DNA transfer (conjugation), altered protein expression

168
Q

Which antibiotic is highly toxic, causing interstitial nephritis?

A

Methicillin [Penicillinase-Resistant Penicillin] (and Bacitracin [“other” category])

169
Q

What cephalosporin is good for eye lid infections?

A

Cephalexin (1st generation)

170
Q

Penicillins act against gram ____ bacteria

A

Penicillins act against gram positive bacteria

171
Q

Are alkylating agents cell cycle specific or non-cell cycle specific?

A

Not cell-cycle specific

172
Q

What adrenergic drugs are limited clinically?

A

Alpha 2 antagonists, but they are being used experimentally in diabetes and depression.

173
Q

Letrozole

A

Nonsteroidal Aromatase inhibitors: decrease the production of estrogen. More potent selective. Do not need hydrocortisone supplement. does not predispose to endometrial cancer.

174
Q

Which drug has this MoA: Inhibits the first step of purine-ring biosynthesis and blocks formation of AMP

A

6-thioguanine and 6-mercaptopurine

175
Q

AE: Hot flashes, nausea, vomiting, skin rash; Potential to cause endometrial cancer, Crystalline retinopathy and other vision problems

A

Tamoxifen

176
Q

What is effect of an Indirect Acting Cholinomimetic on the CNS?

A

Low concentrations: alerting response. High concentrations: convulsions

177
Q

Which antibiotic type is often combined with other antibiotics? What should you do to avoid an inactive complex from forming between the two?

A

Penicillins. Never place in same infusion fluid because they can form an inactive complex

178
Q

Esmolol

A

Beta–1 selective antagonists. Very short acting (Eskimos are short)

179
Q

Propranolol

A

Non–selective beta antagonists. Increased survival after heart attack

180
Q

Cefazolin

A

1st Gen Cephalosporins. Tx gram positive and basic gram negative. poor oral administration. elimination through Kidney. longer duration of action (penetrates bone!)

181
Q

Nicotine

A

Direct acting, agonist for ACh. Can be absorbed through the skin.

182
Q

Cefaclor

A

2nd Gen Cephalosporins. has diminished gram positive and improved gram negativecoverage. elimination through Kidney.

183
Q

Aztreonam

A

Monobactams. only for gram negative! tx pseudomonas. it’s a ring not fused to another ring. No cross reactivity with penicillin!

184
Q

What kind of receptor is muscarinic?

A

g-protein.

185
Q

What are side effects unique to Direct-Acting Muscarinic Stimulants?

A

Nausea, Frontal headache (from accommodation stimulated), Urinary urgency, Salivation, Sweating, and flushing of the skin (vasodilation) . Both direct and indirect have Bronchial constriction, Vomiting, Diarrhea, convulsions

186
Q

What is used to treat lymphomas?

A

Prednisone, Rituximab

187
Q

Which antibiotic is good against gram +, -, anerobes, and pseudomonas?

A

Carbapenems

188
Q

What drug should not be given to people undergoing cataract surgery?

A

Tamsulosin because it can cause IFIS (Floppy iris syndrome)

189
Q

What is effect of an Indirect Acting Cholinomimetic on the heart and vessels? What is the NET result?

A

Decrease heart rate and force of contraction (decrease in cardiac output and BP). Increase in vascular resistance (vasoconstriction causes increase in BP because of sympathetic ganglia stimulation). Net result is mild BP increase but high dose will cause BP to fall.

190
Q

Tadalafil

A

(Cialis) Type 5 Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

191
Q

Nebivolol

A

Beta–1 selective antagonists

192
Q

Which cephalosporin can cross BBB. Tx bronchitis / pneumonia in the elderly/immunocompromised?

A

Cefuroxime (2nd generation)

193
Q

What is good for dilated fundus exam?

A

Tropicamide or Cyclopentolate

194
Q

Cisplatin

A

Platinum coordinating complex, forms cross–links in guanine. IV administration. Little penetration to CSF Renal excretion. Severevomiting, Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity

195
Q

Which nonsteroidal antiandrogens drug can cause visual problems?

A

Nilutamide can cause visual problems

196
Q

What can cause chemical conjunctivitis at high doses?

A

Cytarabine (antimetabolite)

197
Q

How do you test for Horner’s syndrome?

A

Use phenylephrine. If it doesn’t dilate then it’s probably not Horner’s. then test with opthalmic cocaine: No dilation = postganglionic lesion. Dilation= preganglionic lesion.

198
Q

What treats breast cancer?

A

First line treatment: Tamoxifen Aminoglutethimide, Anastrozole and Letrozole, Exemestane [all aromatase inhibitors]. For advanced breast cancer: Leuprolide and Goserelin [GnRH analogs]

199
Q

What is MBC?

A

Lowest concentration of antibiotic that kills the bacteria

200
Q

Which antimetabolite should be avoided in pregnancy ?

A

Methotrexate

201
Q

What happens when you apply Direct-Acting Cholinoceptor Stimulants to the eye

A

Contraction of iris sphincter (miosis), ciliary muscle (accommodation), and opening of trabecular meshwork (lower IOP)

202
Q

Which ANS receptors are muscarinic?

A

Only post-ganglionic receptors

203
Q

Adult eye bacteria are mostly gram ___

A

Adult eye bacteria are mostly gram positive

204
Q

What happens when you activate Alpha 2 receptors?

A

Reduces NE release from preganglionic neuron, reducing sympathetic effects. Insulin release is inhibited

205
Q

Cefadroxil

A

1st Gen Cephalosporins. Tx gram positive and basic gram negative. poor oral administration. elimination through Kidney

206
Q

What adrenergic receptor prevents urination?

A

Alpha 1

207
Q

What is good against pseudomonas?

A

Kinda (3rd, 4th, 5th, cephalosporins) carbapenems, and monobactams (which is Aztreonam) Antipseudomonal Penicillins (think TiPi)

208
Q

What should you NOT use in pneumonia because pulmonary surfactants deactivates?

A

Daptomycin

209
Q

What’s good for advanced breast cancer?

A

Leuprolide and Goserelin

210
Q

What is the tissue target and actions for Beta 1?

A

Heart (increases force and rate of contraction)

211
Q

Which receptor targets the Vascular smooth muscle, pupillary dilator muscle, and heart?

A

Alpha-1

212
Q

Salmeterol

A

Beta–2 agonists

213
Q

Tamsulosin

A

(Flomax) Alpha–1 antagonists. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle as well as smooth muscle in the prostate. Tx enlarged prostate (BPH) but can cause Floppy iris syndrome in cataract surgery patients.

214
Q

What receptor is only on the heart?

A

Beta 1

215
Q

What are the clinical uses of Cholinomimetics in the GI/urinary tract?

A

Postpoperative atony, neurogenic bladder. Basically smooth muscle disorders where there is no obstruction. Pilocarpine and Cevimeline can increase salivary secretion in Sjogren’s syndrome.

216
Q

What is a treatment of testicular cancer?

A

Bleomycin with vineblastine or etoposie

217
Q

What happens if the cocaine drops cause dilation?

A

Horner’s syndrome is from preganglionic lesion

218
Q

Pilocarpine

A

Direct acting, agonist for ACh. Older treatment for glaucoma. Used in Sjogren’s syndrome (for salivation)

219
Q

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor of postganglionic parasympathetics? Long or short?

A

Short, Ach muscarinic

220
Q

What is the goal of chemotherapy?

A

Goal is to cause a lethal cytotoxic event or apoptosis in the cancer cell or arrest tumor’s progression

221
Q

What is effect of an Indirect Acting Cholinomimetic on the NMJ?

A

prolong and intensify the actions of acetylcholine

222
Q

Which generation cephalosporin has further diminished gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage (including some Pseudomonal coverage)?

A

3rd generation (many drugs)

223
Q

AE of “other” cancer drugs: Mild nausea, myelosuppression

A

carboplatin and oxaliplatin

224
Q

What receptor relaxes the smooth ciliary muscle?

A

Beta 2

225
Q

Bacitracin (common ocular)

A

Other” antibiotic. Gram positive. similar to vancomycin. via TOPICAL. SAFE IN PREGNANCY. causes nephrotoxicity. Tx MRSA, infection blepharitis, corneal ulcers”

226
Q

6–thioguanine

A

Antimetabolite – Inhibits the first step of purine–ring biosynthesis and blocks formation of AMP. Genetic counseling is recommended because some patients accumulate higher toxic metabolites. Don’t use for maintenance therapy

227
Q

cholinomimetric alkaloid are easily or hardly absorbed from administration sites?

A

cholinomimetric alkaloid are EASILY absorbed from administration sites?

228
Q

What drugs bind to tubulin subunits and make microtubules more stable (cells are stuck in metaphase)

A

Docetaxel, Paclitaxel

229
Q

What does sympathetic activity do to the blood vessels in skeletal muscle and in the skin?

A

Symp causes dilation in muscles but constriction in the skin

230
Q

What are the adverse effects of Muscarinic blockers?

A

Mydriasis, Cycloplegia, Dry mouth, Tachycardia, Flushed skin, Agitation, Delirium, Elevated body temperature

231
Q

What is still used to treat ED ouside US? What mechanism?

A

Yohimbine! It’s alpha 2 antagonist that promotes NE release to increase sympathetic activation

232
Q

Which drugs are the choline esters?

A

ACh, Carbachol, Bethanechol

233
Q

Piperacillin

A

Antipseudomonal Penicillins. tx Gram (+). has good gram (–) coverage (considered extended spectrum). via IV or IM

234
Q

Penicillin G

A

Natural Penicillins. tx Gram (+).Cannot be taken orally. Susceptible to inactivation by B–lactamases

235
Q

Bevacizumab (Avastin)

A

Monoclonal antibody … Anti VEGF. Tx retinal neovascular diseases. Via IV.

236
Q

Ceftizoxime

A

3rd Gen Cephalosporins. further diminished gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage. (including some pseudomonal). elimination through Kidney.

237
Q

What do muscarinic blockers do to the lungs?

A

They cause Bronchodilation, a reduce secretions in lung

238
Q

Tetrahydrozoline

A

(aka visine) Alpha–1 agonists. It sucks! Leads to rebound redness due to receptor desensitization Local constriction reduces red eye

239
Q

What penicillins are taken orally?

A

penicillin V, amoxicillin, amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

240
Q

Activation of what receptor causes bronchodilation?

A

Beta 2

241
Q

Oxybutynin

A

Muscarinic blocker. Tx urinary urgency/bladder spasm.

242
Q

Which cancer drug basically activates the immune system?

A

Interferons

243
Q

What are some examples of prophylactic use of antibiotics?

A

Rheumatic heart disease, dental excretions, using before surgery, preventing HIV in fetus

244
Q

Acetylcholine (Miochol)

A

Direct acting, agonist for ACh

245
Q

Which drugs Bind to microtubule protein and prevent polymerization?

A

Vinblastine and Vincristine (microtubule inhibitors)

246
Q

Which drug is only topical?

A

Bacitracin

247
Q

AE: Constipation (all the rest are diarrhea), nausea, headache,

A

Daptomycin

248
Q

Pyridostigmine

A

Intermediate Indirect acting, inhibits AChE. common long–term myasthenia gravis treatment.

249
Q

Paclitaxel

A

Microtubule Inhibitors – binds to tubulin and makes too stable. via IV. P450 metabolism Biliary excretion. Neutropenia, peripheral neuropathy. Docetaxel is more potent than paclitaxel.

250
Q

Acebutolol

A

Non–selective beta antagonists with partial agonist effect

251
Q

What is Log kill?

A

The concept that destroying cancer cells follows first-order kinetics (that a steady dose kills a constant FRACTION of cells)

252
Q

Why don’t we use nicotinic blockers?

A

They are too non-specific and would cause major side-effects

253
Q

What is the first line therapy for breast cancer?

A

Tamoxifen

254
Q

Child eye bacteria are mostly gram ___

A

Child eye bacteria are mostly gram negative

255
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Steroid Hormones and Antagonists.. Estrogen antagonist. First line treatment for breast cancer (and prophylactic). often given with leuprolide. Hot flashes, nausea, vomiting, skin rash; Potential to cause endometrial cancer; Crystalline retinopathy and other vision probs

256
Q

Which antimetabolite is given topically for skin cancer and the prevention of scar formation?

A

5-fluorouracil

257
Q

Dicyclomine

A

Muscarinic blocker

258
Q

Which drugs are Cholinomimetric Alkaloids?

A

Pilocarpine, nicotine, muscarine

259
Q

Nn nicotinic receptors are on ___

A

Neurons

260
Q

Which non-selective alpha agonist can potentially be used for ED treatment (injection)?

A

Phentolamine

261
Q

Dicloxacillin

A

Penicillinase–Resistant Penicillins. tx Gram (+). only for infections caused by penicillinase staph.

262
Q

Physostigmine

A

Intermediate Indirect acting, inhibits AChE

263
Q

How are penicillins excreted?

A

Most via kidneys

264
Q

Phentolamine

A

Non–selective alpha antagonists. Causes cardiac stimulation via reduced peripheral resistance Used in an injection format for treatment of ED – may lead to orthostatic hypotension and fibrosis (eek!)

265
Q

How are cephalosporins eliminated?

A

Through the kidney, except for ceftriaxone (3rd gen)

266
Q

Formoterol

A

Beta–2 agonists

267
Q

Which generation cephalosporin has gram positive coverage (including Staph aureus) and basic gram negative coverage

A

1st generation (…oxil lin xin)

268
Q

What is the effect of activating muscarinic receptors of the GI tract?

A

Increased muscle tone and peristaltic activity

269
Q

Yohimbine

A

Alpha–2 antagonist. Used to treat ED Still found in many OTCs/”nutritional supplements”

270
Q

Sarin

A

Long indirect actin, inhibits AChE

271
Q

Imipenem–cilastatin

A

Carbapenems. tx both gram + and –, anaerobes, and pseudomonas. Resist hydrolysis by most penicillinases. IM / IV. kidney excreted.

272
Q

What do muscarinic blockers do to the cardiovascular system?

A

Increase HR but no strong net effect

273
Q

What can treat cholinergic poisoning?

A

Atropine (muscarinic blocker)

274
Q

Ceftibuten

A

3rd Gen Cephalosporins. further diminished gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage. (including some pseudomonal). elimination through Kidney.

275
Q

Which adrenergic receptors lead to a blood pressure increase?

A

Alpha 1, Beta 1 (but there is a reflex decreasein HR)

276
Q

Leuprolide

A

Steroid Hormones and Antagonists ….. Steroid hormone that is GnRH analog. Tx prostate and breast cancer. Fewer side effects with treatment than estrogen

277
Q

Which alkylating agent is given orally?

A

Lomustine

278
Q

What receptor is on respiratory, uterine, and vascular smooth muscle and skeletal muscles?

A

Beta 2

279
Q

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor of preganglionic sympathetics? Long or short?

A

Short, ACh nicotinic

280
Q

What do nonsteroidal antiandrogens do?

A

Nonsteroidal antiandrogens that compete with natural hormone for the androgen receptor and prevent translocation of the hormone into the nucleus

281
Q

Cefditoren

A

3rd Gen Cephalosporins. further diminished gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage. (including some pseudomonal). elimination through Kidney.

282
Q

Betaxolol

A

Beta–1 selective antagonists. Also used as a glc tx

283
Q

Ticarcillin

A

Antipseudomonal Penicillins. has good gram (–) coverage (considered extended spectrum). via IV or IM.

284
Q

Which anti-metabolite is not used for maintenance therapy?

A

6-thioguanine

285
Q

Which non-selective alpha antagonist has greater affinity for alpha 1 over alpha 2?

A

Phenoxybenzamine

286
Q

What Tx for certain lymphomas and leukemias?

A

Rituximab

287
Q

What drugs are mutagenic and carcinogenic?

A

Alkylating agents

288
Q

Amoxicillin

A

Aminopenicillins. tx Gram (+). limited gram (–) coverage Considered extended spectrum. via only oral. Almost completely absorbed. COMBINE WITH CLAVULANIC ACID FOR AWESOMENESS

289
Q

What is Tx for asthma?

A

Albuterol, Metaproterenol, Terbutaline

290
Q

What does a specific receptor mean?

A

Specific means it will stay specific regardless of concentration

291
Q

Anastrozole

A

Nonsteroidal Aromatase inhibitors: decrease the production of estrogen. More potent selective. Do not need hydrocortisone supplement. does not predispose to endometrial cancer.

292
Q

Which antibiotic cancer drug can make red urine and dark red veins?

A

Doxorubicin

293
Q

Malathion

A

Long indirect actin, inhibits AChE

294
Q

6–mercaptopurine

A

Antimetabolite– Inhibits the first step of purine–ring biosynthesis. Given orally in spite of lower bioavailability. Bone marrow depression Anorexia, nausea, can cause JAUNDICE

295
Q

What is the mechanism of Type 5 Phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

A

It inhibits PDE5 to allow for more cGMP (causes vasodilation). Muscarinic ACh > Nitric Oxide > cGMP.

296
Q

Methicillin

A

Penicillinase–Resistant Penicillins. tx Gram (+).

297
Q

Exemestane

A

Steroidal inhibitor of aromatase. Tx Breast cancer. Via oral.

298
Q

Retuximab

A

Monoclonal antibody … Induce cell–mediated cytotoxicity. Tx Lymphomas and Leukemias. Via IV. Severe rxns have been fatal, must be infused slowly. Hypotension, bronchospasm and angioedema. Chills and fever after first infusion. Cardiac arrhythmia. You don’t see nausea vomitinghair falling out

299
Q

Cefuroxime

A

2nd Gen Cephalosporins. has diminished gram positive and improved gram negative coverage. elimination through Kidney. can cross BBB. Tx bronchitis / pneumonia in the elderly/immunocompromised

300
Q

What are beta blockers used for clinically?

A

Hypertension, Ischemic heart disease by regulating heart beat and decreasing O2 demand, Cardiac arrhythmias, Heart failure, Glaucoma, Hyperthyroidism, migraines, tremors and stage fright/anxiety

301
Q

Donepezil

A

Intermediate Indirect acting, inhibits AChE. Treatment for Alzheimer’s

302
Q

Tropicamide

A

Muscarinic blocker. shortest duration (6 hours). Good for dilated fundus exam, uveitis treatment

303
Q

Homatropine

A

Muscarinic blocker. Second longest effect (1–3 days). Good for accurate refraction, uveitis treatment

304
Q

What generation cephalosporin is active against S. aureus (including MRSA) and S. pneumoniae

A

5th generation (Ceftaroline) [end of the -line!]

305
Q

Which receptors are rapid on/off and desensitize to constant activation?

A

Nicotinic receptors

306
Q

Aminoglutethimide

A

Nonsteroidal Aromatase inhibitor. Tx breast cancer. Also inhibits hydrocortisone synthesis, given with hydrocortisone.

307
Q

Which antibiotic cancer drug goes through extensive liver metabolism?

A

Doxorubicin.

308
Q

Which drugs are analogs of gonadotrophin releasing hormone?

A

Leuprolide and Goserelin

309
Q

What are the effects of Beta blockers on the cardiovascular system?

A

Decrease in blood pressure in patients with hypertension (decrease in renin release), Slow atrioventricular conduction (Decrease heart rate and cardiac output). Can have an acute effect of increasing BP via the blocking of B2 mediated vasodilation

310
Q

Where are alpha 2 receptors located?

A

On the presynaptic membrane. They are “autoreceptors”

311
Q

Penicillin V

A

Natural Penicillins. tx Gram (+).CAN be taken orally. Susceptible to inactivation by B–lactamases

312
Q

Which cancer drug treats melanoma?

A

Dacarbazine

313
Q

Oxacillin

A

Penicillinase–Resistant Penicillins. tx Gram (+). only for infections caused by penicillinase staph.

314
Q

Dacarbazine

A

Alkylating Agents. Attacks nucleophilic groups in DNA. Tx melanoma. via IV. Nausea and vomiting, myelosuppression, hepatotoxicity

315
Q

AE: Severe nausea and vomiting Severe bone marrow depression Latent viral infections due to immunosuppression Patient will be very susceptible to infection. Must use caution.

A

Mechlorethamine

316
Q

Tx MRSA, infection blepharitis, corneal ulcers

A

Bacitracin

317
Q

What drug induces cell-mediated cytotoxicity and must be infused slowly?

A

Rituximab

318
Q

What can be used for Alzheimer’s treatment?

A

Tacrine (not used as often due to side effects), Donepezil, Galantamine, Rivastigmine

319
Q

What cephalosporin is good for gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone (3rd generation)

320
Q

What are common steroid effects?

A

Predispose patient to infection, Hyperglycemia, Cataract formation, increased IOP, Osteoporosis, Mood changes: hyper and happy

321
Q

What happens when you apply Direct-Acting Cholinoceptor Stimulants to the NMJ?

A

Causes depolarization followed by depolarization blockade

322
Q

Vardenafil

A

(Levitra) Type 5 Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

323
Q

Carvedilol

A

Non–selective beta antagonists with partial alpha–1 antagonist activity

324
Q

What is the MoA of penicillins?

A

The beta lactam causes autolysis by forming covalent bonds to the Penicillin binding proteins

325
Q

Cytarabine

A

Antimetabolite – interferes with DNA polymerase. Given IV, excreted in the Kidneys. high doses can induce chemical conjunctivitis.

326
Q

Which cancer drug is hardly excreted?

A

Mechlorethamine

327
Q

Antibiotics have what kind of toxicity?

A

Relative, so the concentration of drug must be carefully controlled to avoid damage to the host

328
Q

Which alkylating agent can penetrate the CNS?

A

Carmustine, Lomustine

329
Q

Cefpodoxime

A

3rd Gen Cephalosporins. further diminished gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage. (including some pseudomonal). elimination through Kidney.

330
Q

Vancomycin

A

Other” antibiotic. Inhibits cell wall synthesis. mostly topical because oral = nephrotoxicity. via slow IV. elim via kidneys. tx MRSA, tx enterocolitis (oral). Fever, chills, phlebitis at injection site, flushing and/or shock if rapid infusion (can pretreat with anti–histamine)”

331
Q

Which adrenergic drug is effective in topical administration to the eye?

A

Timolol

332
Q

What are the steps of ACh production and use?

A

1 Choline enters and 2 combines with Acetyl CoA through Choline acetyltransferase. 3 Ach put in vesicles. 4 AP causes Ca++ to enter the axon > 5 vesicle fuses with axon terminal. 6 ACh eventually gets broken down by AChE. 7 Choline gets recycled

333
Q

Which drugs contain a benzene ring with ethylamine side chain?

A

Sympathomimetic

334
Q

What happens if the cocaine drops do not cause dilation?

A

Horner’s syndrome is from postganglionic lesion

335
Q

What is the distribution of penicillins?

A

All cross the placenta but NOT teratogenic. Penetration to bone or CSF insufficient unless inflammation is also present. Prostate levels are insufficient. Excretion for most via the kidneys

336
Q

Midodrine

A

Alpha–1 agonists. Tx orthostatichypotension (it helps get blood to the heart)

337
Q

Vinblastine

A

Microtubule Inhibitors–halts anaphase. IV injection. Metabolism by the P450 system. Excretion via bile and feces. hyperuricemia (buildup of uric acid in the urine) Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, alopecia. Phlebtis or cellulitis if extravasation occurs

338
Q

Which antimetabolite is used in low doses to treat inflammatory diseases: severe psoriasis, rheumatoid arthritis, crohn disease?

A

Methotrexate

339
Q

What is good against MRSA?

A

Vancomycin, Bacitracin, Ceftaroline (5th) (kinda Telavancin, kinda Daptomycin)

340
Q

Which cholinomimetric alkaloid is toxic?

A

Muscarine

341
Q

Lomustine

A

Alkylating Agents. Alkylates DNA. Tx brain tumors (crosses CNS). via oral. Kidney excretion. AE: Delayed hematopoietic depression, development of aplastic marrow, renal toxicity and pulmonary fibrosis

342
Q

Which drug has this MoA:

Prevents folic acid conversion to THF leading to decreased DNA/ protein materials

A

Methotrexate

343
Q

What are the ocular side effects of type 5 Phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

A

Mild impairment of color vision, Blurry vision, Increased risk of ischemia

344
Q

Which cancer drugs tend to have fewer adverse effects?

A

Monoclonal antibodies because they can be directed at specific targets.

345
Q

Carboplatin

A

Platinum coordinating complex, IV admistration. Little penetration to CSF. Renal excretion. forms cross–links in guanine. Mild nausea, myelosuppression

346
Q

Which drug is an estrogen antagonist?

A

Tamoxifen

347
Q

Cyclopentolate

A

Muscarinic blocker. short duration (1 day). Good for accurate refraction, dilated fundus exam, uveitis treatment

348
Q

Cefepime

A

4th Gen Cephalosporins. has furtherdiminished gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage and FULL coverage against Pseudomonas. elimination through Kidney.

349
Q

Galantamine

A

Intermediate Indirect acting, inhibits AChE. Treatment for Alzheimer’s

350
Q

What are the side effects of beta blockers?

A

Increased airway resistance in the respiratory tract – CAUTION IN USE WITH AN ASTHMATIC PATIENT! Impair recovery from hypoglycemia; Increase VLDL and decrease HDL, Bradycardia, Mild sedation or depression, Cardiac decompensation, Caution in use in high cholesterol and diabetic patients!

351
Q

Rivastigmine

A

Intermediate Indirect acting, inhibits AChE. Treatment for Alzheimer’s

352
Q

Clonidine

A

Alpha–2 agonists. Tx high blood pressure.

353
Q

Terbutaline

A

Beta–2 agonists. Tx long–term asthma

354
Q

MoA: induces rapid depolarization of cell membrane.

A

Daptomycin

355
Q

Which drugs help increase survival after a heart attack?

A

Propranolol (Beta blocker), Timolol (beta blocker), Metoprolol (Beta 1 blocker)

356
Q

How can bacteria have resistance against penicillins?

A

Bacteria can make beta-lactamase to hydrolyze the beta-lactam ring, use an efflux pump to lower permeability, and alter PBPs (penicillin binding proteins) for reduced drug affinity.

357
Q

Which cancer drugs are aromatase inhibitors?

A

Aminoglutethimide, Anastrozole and Letrozole, Exemestane

358
Q

Mechlorethamine

A

Alkylating Agent. Cross links between guanine bases in DNA Causes strand breakage and the occasional miscoding mutations. Very unstable blistering agent. Via IV. almost no drug is excreted. Severe nausea and vomiting Severe bone marrow depression Latent viral infections due to immunosuppression Patient will be very susceptible to infection. Must use caution.

359
Q

Pindolol

A

Non–selective beta antagonists with partial agonist effect

360
Q

What Tx for prostate cancer?

A

Flutamide, Nilutamide (can cause visual problems) Bicalutamide [all nonsteroidal antiandrogens]. Also
Leuprolide and Goserelin

361
Q

Varenicline (Chantix)

A

Direct acting, agonist for ACh

362
Q

Ceftriaxone

A

3rd Gen Cephalosporins. Tx gonorrhea. BILE excretion

further diminished gram positive coverage with improved gram negative coverage. (including some pseudomonal).

363
Q

What does a long postantibiotic effect allow?

A

A long PAE allows for infrequent dosing (once a day, for example)

364
Q

What antibiotic has no cross reactivity with penicillin?

A

Aztreonam (Monobactams)

365
Q

What is good for myasthenia gravis?

A

Indirect acting Cholinomimetic (Edrophonium for diagnosis, pyridostigmine for treatment and neostigmine)

366
Q

What are the 3 properties of antibiotics that have significant influence?

A

Concentration-dependent killing, Time-dependent killing, post-antibioitc effect.

367
Q

Vomiting and diarrhea are uncommon for which anticancer drug?

A

Docetaxel and Paclitaxel

368
Q

What do adrenoceptor antagonists do (heart, and other effects)

A

They block vasoconstriction, lowering blood pressure. This can result in orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia. They also cause pupil constriction, cause nasal stuffiness, and increase urine flow

369
Q

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor of preganglionic parasympathetics? Long or short?

A

Long, Ach nicotinic

370
Q

Pralidoxime

A

Reactivates AChE

371
Q

What can produce a fever in younger patients?

A

Muscarinic blockers

372
Q

What was developed as a mustard gas during WWI

A

Mechlorethamine

373
Q

What can treat urinary urgency or bladder spasm?

A

Oxybutynin (Muscarinic blocker)

374
Q

What happens when you activate Alpha 1 receptors?

A

Vasoconstriction in skin increases blood pressure, Iris dilator muscle dilates pupil, urine retention, slows GI tract (but contracts sphincters)

x SCO summer 2015 Pharmacology (6 decks)

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