Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Quarter 3 > Pharm Exam 1 > Flashcards

Pharm Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Direct acting agonist

A

Class: Cholinomimetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AChE inhibitors

A

Class: Cholinomimetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cholinergic antagonist

A

Class: Anticholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Neuromuscular blockers

A

Class: Anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acetylcholine

A

direct acting Cholinergic Agonist

Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bethanechol

A

direct acting Cholinergic Agonist

Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pilocarpine

A

direct acting Cholinergic Agonist

Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Nicotine

A

direct acting Cholinergic Agonist

Nicotinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Varenicline

A

direct acting Cholinergic Agonist

Nicotinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Neostigmine

A

AChe/Cholinesterase Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pyridostigmine

A

Ache/Cholinesterase Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Physostigmine

A

Ache/Cholinesterase Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Edrophonium

A

Ache/Cholinesterase Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Donepezil

A

Ache/Cholinesterase Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Organophosphates

A

Ache/Cholinesterase Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pralidozime

A

Poisoning tx

Cholinesterase Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Atropine

A

Cholinergic Antagonist

Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Diphenoxylate-atropine

A

Cholinergic Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Scopolamine

A

Cholinergic Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tropicamide

A

Cholinergic Antagonist

Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ipratropium

A

Cholinergic Antagonist

Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tolterodine, Fesoterodine, Darifenacin, Solifenacin

A

Cholinergic Antagonist

Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Oxybutynin

A

Cholinergic Antagonist

Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dicyclomine

A

Cholinergic Antagonist

Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

OnabotuliniumtoxinA

A

Botox
Cholinergic Antagonist
(Muscarinic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Succinycholine

A

Depolarizing Nueromuscular Blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Direct Acting Agonists and Cholinesterase Inhibitors are what class:

A

Cholinomimetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cholinergic Antagonists and Neuromusc blockers are what class:

A

Anticholinergics

think “antagonist” and “blockers” are ANTIcholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Muscarinic effects on the heart

A

stimulates M2 receptors in the SA node

effects primarily SA, AV, and Atrial

Slows conduction thru AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Acetylcholine

A

decreases HR and decreases BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Ach

A

M3 receptors on endothelium increase NO –> increase cGMP –> vasodilation

experimentally driven
very short effect bc Ach has such a short half life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ach

A

stimulates both Muscarinic and Nicotinic receptors

no clinical use (short half life)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Ach effect

A

IV infusion: similar to parasympathetic stimulation

EXCEPT: decrease BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Ach pharmacokinetics

A

hydrolyzed by AchE (Very quickly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Bethanechol (Urecholine)

Mechanism

A

Non specific Muscarinic agonist with highest effect in urinary bladder and GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Bethanechol (Urecholine)

Use

A

Muscarinic DOC for: increasing GI motility, treating Urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bethanechol (Urecholine)

Pharmacokinetics

A

Quart ammon ion (has charge) does not enter brain bc BBB does not allow any charged ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pilocarpine (IsoptoCarpine)

Mechanism

A

Non specific Muscarinic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pilocarpine (IsoptoCarpine)

Use

A

Topical: Acute angle glaucoma (last agent used)

Oral: Xerostomia (dry mouth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pilocarpine (IsoptoCarpine)

Adverse Effects

A

Topical: Blurred vision

Oral: Sweating

Both: HA/brow ache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Overall Adverse effects of Muscarinic Agonists

A

N/V/D, abd cramp, bladder tightness, sweating, salivation, bronchoconstriction, constricted pupils, blurred vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Contraindications to Muscarinic Agonists

A

Asthma/COPD
Peptic Ulcer
Bowel Obstruction
Coronary insuff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Toxicity of Muscarinic Agonists

A

Mushroom poisoning : muscarine

SLUDGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

SLUDGE side effects of Mushroom poisoning

A 
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
Gastric distress
Emesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Bronchoconstriction d/t Muscarinic poisoning

A

Treat with atropine (antagonist) and albuterol (beta agonist) to reverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Sympathetic effects of Nicotine

A

HTN, tachycardia alternating with vagal bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Parasymp effects of Nicotine

A

N/v/d, urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Varenicline (Chantix)

Mechanism

A

Partial agonist on the nicotinic receptor

subtype that stimulates reward system in the brain by releasing Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Varenicline (Chantix)

Use

A

Smoking cessation (provide some nicotine stimulation to decrease craving)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Varenicline (Chantix)

Adverse Effects

A

Nightmares
Psychoses
Suicidal ideation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

AChE inhibitors

A

all ganglia activated, so both Parasympathetic and Sympathetic . nerves are stimulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Parasympathetic dominates the heart

effects of AChE Inhibitors

A

Ach release increased (ganglia) and prolonged (heart) cardiac M2 receptors are stimulated more

Bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

AChe Inhibitors effect on BP

A 
little effect
no cholinergic (Ach) innervation

(BP is only stimulated by sympathetic system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Myasthenia Gravis

A

Autoimmune
Antibodies bind to Nicotinic Ach receptors and REDUCE the receptor number able to respond to Ach

not enough Ach can be released to stimulate the low receptor number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Neostigmine and Pyridostigmine

Mechanism

A

Form covalent bond with AchE enzyme and BLOCK it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Neostigmine and Pyridostigmine

Pharmacokinetics

A

Hydrolyzed slowly

Quat ammon ion- meaning does NOT enter brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Neostigmine and Pyridostigmine

Use

A

Most common used for Myasthenia Gravis

Reverse neuromuscular block after surgery

Postop/neurogenic ileus or atony of urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Neostigmine and Pyridostigmine

Adverse Effects

A

Muscarinic SE, although pt generally becomes tolerant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Physotigmine

Pharmacokinetics

A

Tertiary amm compound- ENTERS CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Physotigmine

Use

A

systemic use rare: used in Muscarinic Antagonist poitoning (Atropine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Edrophonium

Pharmacokinetics

A

VERY short acting (5-10 min), reversible, must be INJECTED

similar to Neo and Pyrido, but more short acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Edrophonium

Use

A

to diagnose and determine tx dose for Myasthenia gravis

To reverse neuromuscular blockade after surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Donepezil

Pharmacokinetics

A

Well absorbed orally and CAN enter CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Donepezil

Use

A

Alzheimer’s dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Finding the right dose of Neostigmine or Pyridostigmine by testing with Edrophonium

A

Add Edro on top of the Neo/Pyrido

If strength improves: need to increase Neo/Pyrido dose

If strength worsens: dose is too high, need to decrease

(if dose is too high, causing desensitization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Predominant tone is usually parasympathetic under what receptor

A

M3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Muscarinic receptors work via:

A

G proteins

secondary cascade that we don’t need to know details about fo this exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Nicotinic receptors work via

A

ligand gated Na+ channel

rapid desensitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Muscarinic effects on eye

A

Miosis (contraction of circular muscle)

Accomodation for near vision

Opens angle, decrease pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Muscarinic agonists can help what in the eye?

A

Glaucoma, help decrease pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Muscarinic effects on the heart

A

slow conduction via SA node

M2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Ach

A

stimulates both M and N receptors

Decrease BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Bethanechol (Urecholine)

A

highest effect on bladder and GI tract

used to: increase GI motility and treat Urinary retention

charged (no enter to brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Pilocarpine (IsoptoCarpine)

A

Applied topically for acute angle glaucoma (last resort though)

Treat Xerostomia (Dry mouth)

SE: blurred vision, sweating, HA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Contraindications to Muscarinic Agonists

A

Asthma, COPD, Peptic ulcer, Bowel obstruction, Coronary insufficiency/heart dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Nicotine activates

A

both para and symp neurons

has para and symp effects

para: n/v/d, urination
symp: HTN, tachy alt with vagal brady

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Varenicline (Chantix)

A

smoking cessation

PARTIAL agonist on Nicotinic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Varenicline (Chantix) bad side effects

A

nightmare, psychose, SI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Neostigmine and Pyridostigmine

A

most common drug for Myasthenia Gravis

Also used to: reverse neuromuscular blockade post surgery, and for postop/neurogenic ileus or atony of bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Physostigmine

A

Used in Muscarinic antagonist poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Edrophonium

A

test dose for Neo and Pyrid

short acting, injected

and to reverse neuro blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Donepezil

A

Alzheimer’s dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Organophosphates

A

long lasting effect

soman, sarin, tabun, VX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

AChE Inh Toxicity

A

SLUDGE
Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastric distress, emesis

Miosis, sweating, bronchoconstrict, n/v/d

CNS: confusion, ataxia,s lurring, convulsions, coma

Neuromusc stimulation followed by blockade –> paralysis –> respiratory arrest –> Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Tx of Organophosphate AcHe inh poisoning

A

Atropine until pupils dilate

2-PAM (Pralidozine) if less than 3-4 hrs since exposure

Diazepam (Valium) for convulsions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Many drugs block Muscarinic receptors:

A 
Old antihistamine (Benadryl)
Antidepressants
Antipsychotics
GI meds
Eyedrops
Plants

*poisoning fairly common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Nicotinic Receptor

A

Acetylcholine
Nondepolarizing blocker
Depolarizing blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Catecholamine

89
Q

Epinephrine

A

Catecholamine

90
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Catecholamine

91
Q

Catecholamines

A

Norepi, Epi, Isoproterenol

92
Q

Alpha 1 Agonists

A

Phenylephrine, Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed), Oxymetazoline (Afrin)

93
Q

Phenylephrine

A

Alpha-1 agonist

94
Q

Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)

A

Alpha-1 agonist

95
Q

Oxymetazoline (Afrin)

A

Alpha-1 agonist

96
Q

Alpha-2 agonists

A

Clonidine, Methyldopa, Tizanidine

97
Q

Clonidine

A

Alpha-2 agonist

98
Q

Methyldopa

A

Alpha-2 agonist

99
Q

Tizanidine

A

Alpha-2 agonist

100
Q

Beta-1 agonist

A

Dobutamine

101
Q

Beta-2 agonist

A

Albuterol

102
Q

Beta-3 agonist

A

Mirabegron

103
Q

Dopamine Agonist

A

Dopamine

Fenoldopam

104
Q

Dopamine

A

Dopamine agonist

105
Q

Fenoldopam

A

Dopamine agonist

106
Q

Tx for Organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine (until pupils dilate)

2-PAM (if 3-4hr since exposure)

Diazepam “Valium”: convulsions

107
Q

How does 2-PAM work

A

A strong nucleophile

pulls the Organophosphate away from the AcHe preventing the “aging”

108
Q

“aging” of organophosphate

A

the breaking of the phosphorus-oxygen bond, making the resulting bond to the AChE irreversible (AChE is now inactive)

109
Q

Atropine

A

Muscarinic Antagonist

it lessens normal parasympathetic effects, therefore has effects like sympathetic would

110
Q

Atropine uses

A

prevent excessive Vagus nerve stimulation during surgery

111
Q

Atropine uses

A

reverse bradycardia

112
Q

Atropine uses

A

Treat diarrhea (combined with an opoid)

113
Q

Atropine uses

A

block Muscarine effects

  • pesticide or nerve gas poisoning
  • muscarine poisoning (mushrooms)
114
Q

Scopolaine (transferm scop)

A

crosses BBB

For motion sickness

115
Q

Tropicamide (mydriacil)

A

topical, short acting, used to DILATE pupils for EYE EXAM

Cycloplegia side effect- can’t see near vision

116
Q

Ipratropium (atrovent)

A

Immediate lung bronchodilation

not absorbed into sytemic, only works in the lungs!!

To treat: COPD, sometimes in Asthma attacks

117
Q

Tolterodine, Fesoterodine, Darifenacin, Solifenacin

A

M3 selective

To treat overactive bladder

118
Q

Oxybutynin (ditropan)

A

To treat bladder spasms

119
Q

Dicyclomine (bentyl)

A

to treat diarrhea- dominant IBS (with abdominal cramping)

120
Q

Botox

A 
Blocks release of Ach
Used for:
-urinary incontinence
-chronic migraine
-wrinkles

can cause Asthenia: speech, swallowing, numbness, ptosis- loss of TONE

121
Q

Overall Adverse Effects of Muscarinic Antagonists

A 
Dry mouth and eyes
Mydriasis, cycloplegia
Tachy
Decreased GI motility
Urinary retention

With high doses: hot and dry skin, decreased sweating

122
Q

Contraindications of Muscarinic Antagonists

A

Acute- angle glaucome (bc M antagonists increase ocular pressure)

Benign Prostate Hyperplasia (bc M antagonists cause urinary retention)

123
Q

Atropine overdose

A

Hot, dry, blind, red face, agitation

124
Q

Tx for Atropine overdose

A

Supportive
Physostigmine to increase Ach levels in brain (helps to rescue the brain Muscarinic effects)

bc Ach acts on M receptors in brain

125
Q

Nicotinic receptor

A

quick depolarizing effects!!

126
Q

Nondepolarizing NMJ blockers

none on drug list, understand mechanism

A

They are Ach antagonists

Bind to Ach’s place but do not emit a response.

Solely paralysis

127
Q

How do you reverse a Non depolarizing NMJ blocker?

A

Just add AcHe inhibitor

out compete the blocker

128
Q

Nondepolarizing blockers

A

No CNS effects

used for anesthesia in surgery

129
Q

Depolarizing blocker

A

Succinylcholine

opens up the channel: initial depolariztion and contraction

THEN, blocks the channel: paralysis

130
Q

Succinylcholine use

A

Tracheotomy or Intubation anesthesia

short procedures bc it’s fast acting

131
Q

Succinylchoine

A

longer lasting than Ach but still short acting

IV only
rapid onset: <90 sec
Rapid recovery: 5-10 min

hydrolyzed by plasma pseudocholinesterase

132
Q

Amphetamine

A

Adderall

133
Q

Methylphenidate

A

Ritalin

134
Q

Methamphetamine

A

Desoxyn

135
Q

Ach release onto Vagus nerve is responsible for

A

SLOWING heart down

136
Q

Amphetamine

A

Adderall

137
Q

Methylphenidate

A

Ritalin

138
Q

DOC for ADHA

A

Amphetamine (Adderall) and Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

139
Q

Do not eat Tyramine rich foods with

A

MAOIs

depression meds

140
Q

INDIRECT acting adrenergic effectors

A

act on PRESYNAPTIC neuron to increase synthesis, cause release, inhibit reuptake/catabolism

141
Q

examples of INDIRECT adrenergic effectors

A

Cocaine, Tyramine, Amphetamine, MAOIs

142
Q

DIRECT acting adrenergic effectors

A

act on receptors on the TARGET TISSUE to mimic sympathetic stimulation

143
Q

Denervation

A

Stops INDIRECT acting (bc damaging the pre-synaptic neuron which needs to be intact for these to work)

May enhance DIRECT acting (bc receptor up regulation happens)

144
Q

alpha 1 receptor

A

excitatory

specific agonist: phenylephrine

145
Q

alpha 2 receptor

A

inhibitory
PRE-synaptic
specific agonist: Clonidine

146
Q

All beta receptors

A

excitatory

Isoprot > NE and Epi

147
Q

beta 1 receptor

A

spec agonist: Dobutamine

148
Q

beta 2 receptor

A

spec agonist: Albuterol

149
Q

beta 3 receptor

A

spec agonist: Mirabegron

150
Q

D 1 receptor

A

excitatory

spec agonist: Fenoldopam

151
Q

NE

A

acts on alpha 1 and beta 1 equally

way down the road, acts on beta 2

152
Q

NE use

A

RARELY used to increase BP in severe hypotensive crisis

153
Q

NE pharmacokinetics

A

IV only

very short action

154
Q

NE adverse effects

A

can cause Severe Vasoconstriction at infusion site (can necrose)

155
Q

Epi (Adrenalin)

A

activates ALL adrenergic receptors

Affinity: beta 1 and 2 first, then way down the road alpha 1

156
Q

Epi (Adrenalin) use

A

Treat anaphylactic shock
Decrease diffusion of injected drugs
Glaucoma eye drops
Emergency tx for cardiac arrest

157
Q

Epi (Adrenalin) CV effects

A

Remember stimulates beta receptors first

158
Q

Epi (Adrenalin) CV effects

A

bottom line: most clinical situations will be high dose- where alpha receptors are ultimately activated and Baroreceptor reflex slows the HR

159
Q

Epi (Adrenalin) CV effects

A

low dose: HR stays high, only beta receptors activated

high dose: alpha receptors are reached, baroreflex kicks in, HR is slowed down

160
Q

Epi (Adrenalin) adverse effects

A

Tremor, HA, inc BP, Tachy
Angina in pts w/Heart dz
Vasoconstriction can cause severe HTN and tissue necrosis

161
Q

Epi (Adrenalin) contra-indications

A

Those taking Beta Blockers- will lead to severe HTN

162
Q

Phenylephrine (Neofrin) mechanism

A

alpha 1 selective agonist

163
Q

Phenylephrine (Neofrin) use

A

Vasoconstriction (increased BP but baroreflex takes HR back down)
Hypotensive emergency
Decongestant
Mydriasis (topical)- eye exam

164
Q

Phenylephrine (Neofrin) adverse effects

A

Rebound effect decongestant

Prolonges use: ischemic changes in mucous membranes

165
Q

Phenylephrine (Neofrin) contraindications

A

Those w HTN and BPH

166
Q

Pseudoephrine (Sudafed) mechanism

A

alpha 1 agonist

similar and more effective than phenylephrine

167
Q

Oxymetazoline (Afrin) use

A

topically to cause vasoconstriction in eye and nares

  • decreases eye redness
  • decongestant
168
Q

Oxymeazoline (Afrin) caution

A

closed angle glaucoma

HTN

169
Q

Clonidine and Methyldopa

A

NOT 1st line drugs

170
Q

Clonidine and Methyldopa

A

alpha 2 agonist

INHIBITORY- decrease sympathetic output from CNS

171
Q

Clonidine and Methyldopa use

A

treat HTN (Methyldopa is one of recommended Pregnancy HTN drugs)
Decrease addict cravings
Decrease hot flashed
Pre-anesthesia to dry up secretions

172
Q

Clonidine and Methyldopa pharmacokinetics

A

Both oral

Clonidine offered as patch too

173
Q

Clonidine and Methyldopa adverse effects

A

Xerostomia (dry mouth)
Sedation
Erectile Dysfx

174
Q

Other adverse effects of Methyldopa

A

Hemolytic anemia w/pos coombs test
Hepatotoxic
Increased prolactin secretion –> gynecomastia and lactation

175
Q

Contraindications to Clonidine and Methyldopa (alpha 2 agonists)

A

Not recommended for monotherapy
Sudden withdrawal of Clonidine –> HTN crisis
Avoid getting patch hot –> hypotension

176
Q

Tizanidine mechanism

A

Alpha-2 agonist (inhibitory)

BUT less effect than Clonidine and Methyldopa

177
Q

Tizanidine use

A

Reduce muscle spasticity in neuro conditions

178
Q

Tizanidine pharmacokinetics

A

Short duration- used when spasticity muscle control is imp

179
Q

Tizanidine adverse effects

A

Asthenia (dose related weakness, fatigue, tiredness)

180
Q

Isoproterenol mechanism

A

very potent selective B1 and B2 agonist

181
Q

Isoproterenol use

A

Emergency tx for cardiac arrest and complete heart block

182
Q

Isoproterenol adverse effects

A

large doses: tachycardia, palpitations, arrhythmia

183
Q

Dobutamine mechanism

A

beta 1 agonist

184
Q

Dobutamine use

A

increase cardiac contractility and output

often used in cardiac stress test

185
Q

Dobutamine pharmacokinetics

A

given IV, short half life of ~2 min

186
Q

Dobutamine adverse effect

A

if pt HTN, BP may increase if given too quickly

187
Q

Albuterol (Ventolin)

A

beta 2 agonist

188
Q

Albuterol (Ventolin) use and pharmacokinetics

A

Asthma

given orally or inhaled

189
Q

Albuterol (Ventolin) adverse effects

A

HA, Tachycardia, tremor

190
Q

Mirabegron mechanism

A

beta 3 agonist

191
Q

Mirebegron use

A

Tx of overactive bladder

192
Q

Mirebegron adverse effects

A

HTN, sinus tachycardia, nausea, HA, diarrhea, constipation, dizzy

193
Q

Dopamine

A

DA agonist

194
Q

Dopamine use

A

low dose- D1 receptors- renal vasodilation
med dose- beta 1 receptors- ionotropic
high dose- alpha receptors- vasoconstriction

195
Q

Dopamine use

A

short term tx of severe refractory HF (useful if an increase in BP is needed)

196
Q

Dopamine pharmacokinetics

A

IV

Metabolized by monoamine oxidase (MAO)

197
Q

Fenoldopam mechanism

A

D1 agonist

198
Q

Fenoldopam use

A

Emergency HTN situation- causes dilation of renal vascular beds which decreases BP

199
Q

Fenoldopam pharmacokinetics

A

given IV, short half life of ~5 min

200
Q

Fenoldopam adverse effects

A

Reflex tachy, HA, flushing

201
Q

Indirect acting sympathomimetics (give “symp like” effects)

A

Amphetamine (Adderall)
Methamphetamine (Desoxyn)
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

202
Q

Mechanism of Indirect acting

A

Increase release of NE from neurons, esp in the CNS

taken into neuron by NET, DISPLACES the neurotransmitter in vesicle causing it to be released

203
Q

Why is methamphetamine a drug of abuse

A

more central actions and fewer peripheral effects

204
Q

Amphetamine (Adderall) and Methylphenidate (Ritalin) use

A

CNS stimulants used for ADHD and narcolepsy

205
Q

Amphetamine (Adderall) and Methylphenidate (Ritalin) adverse effects

A

Tremor, tachycardia, HTN
Psychosis

Also: restless, aggression, HA, angina, cerebral hemorrhalge, convulsions

206
Q

Cocaine

A

Indirect acting sympathomimetic

207
Q

Cocaine mechanism

A

inhibits re-uptake of DA and NE

208
Q

Cocaine use

A

local anesthetic and powerful vasoconstrictor, rarely used for naroph surgery

209
Q

Cocaine adverse effects

A

severe HTN and stroke
Tachycardia–> arrhythmia and MI
long term- cocaine induced psychoses

210
Q

Cocaine and Amphetamine (Adderall) synergism

A

because cocaine prevents the reuptake of NE, and Amphetamine displaces more into the cleft

211
Q

Tyramine (food component) mechanism

A

increase catecholamines from nerve terminals

212
Q

Tyramine pharamcokinetics

A

rapidly hydrolyzed by Monoamine Oxidase (MAO) in GI tract and Liver

Tachyphylaxis will develop (diminishing response)

213
Q

Tyramine Contraindication

A

In pts treated for depression with MAOI (mao inhibitors) –> severe HTN crisis

214
Q

Prazosin (Minipress)

A

highly selective alpha 1 antagonist

215
Q

Prazosin (Minipress) use

A

Men who have BPH and HTN

216
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A

IRREVERSIBLe, non specific alpha antagonist

217
Q

Phentolamine

A

nonspecific alpha antagonist

218
Q

Tamsulosin (Flomax)

A

alpha 1 antagonist

[different bc its more selective for alpha1A subtype (prostate) rather than alpha1B (blood vessels)]1

219
Q

Tamsulosin (Flomax) use

A

BPH

more selective for the prostate

Quarter 3 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions