Pharm 2 - Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How fast do nonparticulate antacids lose their effectiveness?

A

30-60 minutes after injection

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2
Q

Why are traumas always considered a full stomach?

A

GI motility slowed

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3
Q

Antacids slow the rate of absorption of what drugs?

A

Digoxin
Cimetidine
Ranitidine

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4
Q

Antacids increase the rate of elimination of what drugs?

A

Phenobarbital

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5
Q

Metoclopramide is CI with what patients?

A

Parkinsons

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6
Q

Rapid IV of metoclopramide

A

Abdominal cramping (CI w/ complete bowel obstruction)

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7
Q

What receptor does Narcan have affinity for?

A

Opioid Mu

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8
Q

Narcan class

A

Competative opioid antagonist

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9
Q

Diphenhydramine class

A

competitively blocks H1 receptors

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10
Q

What properties do H1 blockers have?

A

Antimuscarinic and antiserotonergic

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11
Q

The antimuscarinic property of H1B contributes to what side effect?

A

dry mouth

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12
Q

The antiserotonergic activity of H1B provides this action?

A

antiemetic

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13
Q

What 2 actions do H2B accomplish?

A

decrease GI fluid volume

Raise pH of GI content

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14
Q

H2B are used for what perioperative goal?

A

reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonia

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15
Q

which drug increases LES tone, speeds GI emptying, and lowers GI fluid volume?

A

Metoclopramide

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16
Q

What receptor does Metoclopramide work on?

A

It enhances the stimulatory effects of Ach on intestional smooth muscle

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17
Q

Which 3 drugs selectively block Serotonin 5-HT3 receptors (w/ little-no effect on Dopamine)?

A

Ondansetron, granisetron, dolasetron

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18
Q

5HT3 receptors are located only centrally. True or False

A

peirpherally and centrally

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19
Q

What role do 5HT3 receptors play?

A

initiation of vomiting reflex

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20
Q

Class of Ketorolac?

A

parenterally administered NSAID

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21
Q

How does Ketorolac provide analgesia?

A

Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis

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22
Q

What drug is most selective A2 agonist?

A

Precedex

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23
Q

Narcan reverses agonist activity assoicated w/ what opioid compounds?

A

endogenous and exogenous

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24
Q

What is 2 parameters are considered aspiration pneumonia risk?

A

GI volume > 25 mL (0.4mL/kg) AND GI pH <2.5

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25
Q

What 8 factors palce pt aat risk for aspiration?

A
  1. full stomach
  2. intestinal obstruction
  3. hiatal hernia
  4. obestiy
  5. pregnancy
  6. reflux disease
  7. emergency surgery
  8. inadequate depth of anesthesia
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26
Q

What approaches are used to reduce potential aspiration

A

Sellick’s (cricoid pressure)

RSI

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27
Q

Do cricoid pressure and RSI eliminate pulmonary aspiration risk?

A

No only offer limited protection

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28
Q

How do anesthetics increase the risk of passive aspiration?

A

decrease LES tone

decrease or olibterate the gag reflex

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29
Q

What areas is histamine found?

A

CNS, GI mucosa, other peripheral tissues

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30
Q

How is histamine synthesized?

A

by decarboxylation of the amino acid histidine

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31
Q

Where are histaminergic neurons lcoated?

A

Primarily at the posterior hypothalamus bute have wide projections int he brain

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32
Q

What role does histamine play in the sotmach?

A

Major role in the secretion of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells

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33
Q

Where are the highest concentration of histamine found?

A

Storage granules of circulating basophils and mast cells throughout the body

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34
Q

Where are mast cells concentrated?

A

connective tissue juste beneath epithelial(mucosal) surfaces

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35
Q

How is histamine release (degranulation) triggered from mast cells?

A

chemical, mechanical, or immunological sitmulation

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36
Q

How is secretion of hydrochloric acid mediated?

A

By gastrin-induced histamine release from enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL) in the somtach

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37
Q

What is a way that acid secretion by GI parietal cells can be increased INDIRECTLY?

A

By Ach via stimulation of M3

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38
Q

What is a way that acid secretion by GI parietal cells can be increased DIRECTLY?

A

By gastrin through an increase in intracellular Ca+ concentration

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39
Q

How do prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) inhibit acid secretion?

A

Decreases cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate); activity

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40
Q

What receptors mediate the effects of histamine?

A

H1, H2, H3

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41
Q

H1 receptor moa

A

Activates phospholipase C

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42
Q

H2 receptor moa

A

increases cAMP

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43
Q

H3 receptor moa

A

Mediates NEGATIVE FEEDBACK, inhibiting the syntehsis and release of additional histamine

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44
Q

Where are H3 receptors primarily located?

A

Histamine-secreting cells

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45
Q

What does Histamine-N-methyltransferase do?

A

Metabolizes histamine to inactive metabolites that are excreted in URINE

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46
Q

Histamines CV affects of BP, HR, and contractility

A

Lowers ARTERIAL BP
Increases HR
Increases myocardial contractiliy

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47
Q

H1 receptor stimulation cardiovascular effects

A

increases capillary permeability and enhances VENTRICULAR IRRITABILITY

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48
Q

H2 receptor stimulation cardiovascular effects

A

Increases Hr and contractility

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49
Q

Both H1 and H2 stimulation CV effects

A

mediate peripheral arteriolar dilation and some coronary vasodilation

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50
Q

H1 stimulation respiratory effect

A

constricts bronchiolar smooth muscle;

some pulmonary vasodilation

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51
Q

H2 sitmulation respiratory effects

A

may produce mild bronchodilation (smooth muscle)

may be responsible for pulmonary vasoconstriction (blood vessel effect)

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52
Q

Histamines effects on pulmonary vasculature are _____.

A

variable

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53
Q

H2 stimulation (GI)

A

increases GI acid secretion

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54
Q

H1 stimulation (GI)

A

contraction of intestinal smooth muscle

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55
Q

The classic wheal-and-flare response of the skin to histamine results from increased ______ and _______.

A

capilarry permability and vasodilation

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56
Q

Dermal effect from histamine are primarily due to what receptor?

A

H1 activation

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57
Q

Histamine is a major mediatory of what kind of immunological reaction?

A

type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

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58
Q

H1 stimulation (immune)

A

attracts leukocytes and induces synthesis of prostaglandin

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59
Q

H2 sitmulation (immune)

A

activate suppressor t lymphocytes

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60
Q

Promethazine class

A

phenothiazine derivative w/ H1B activity as well as antidopaminergic and alpha blccking activity

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61
Q

What receptors does promethazine (phenergan) block?

A

H1, dopamine, alpha

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62
Q

What class is diphenhydramine?

A

ethanolamine

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63
Q

Uses of benadryl?

A
  1. suppression of allergic reactions & s/s of upper resp. tract infection (uritcaria, rhinitis, conjunctivitis)
  2. vertigo, n/v
  3. sedation
  4. cough suppression
  5. dyskinesia
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64
Q

What diseases is benadryl beneficial in?

A
Menieres disease (inner ear/vertigo)
parkinsonism
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65
Q

H1B respiratory effect

A

PREVENT bronchoconstriction that occurs in reponse to histamine

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66
Q

Do H1B treat bronchial asthma?

A

no

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67
Q

What histamine blocker do you use to prevent the hypotensive effect of Histamien?

A

H1 + H2 (must be administered together)

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68
Q

Do H1 blockers affect ventilatory drive?

A

Unaffected in the absence of other sedatives;

Combined with sedatives potentiates sedation

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69
Q

What antihistaminic drugs in particular have antiemetic and mild hypontic properties?

A

Benadryl
Promethazine
Hydroxyzine

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70
Q

What 2 antihistaminic drugs were often cmobined with opioids to potentiate analgesia?

A

Promethazine

Hydroxyzine

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71
Q

Second-generateion antihistamines produce little-no sedation d/t _____.

A

Limited penetration of BBB

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72
Q

2nd gen antihistamines

A

Loratadine
Fexofenadine
Cetirizine

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73
Q

Preparations for allergic rhinitis often contain what 2 drugs?

A
antihistamines
Pseudoephedrine (vasocontrictors)
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74
Q

What 2 antihistamines are used primarily as antiemetic?

A

Meclizine

Dimenhydrinate

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75
Q

What antihistamine is used for Cushings, carcinoid, and vascular (cluster) HA?

A

Cyproheptadine (also has serotonin blocking activity)

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76
Q

Usual dose of benadryl

A

25-50 mg (0.5-1.5 mg/kg) Q4-6H

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77
Q

H1B potentiate what other drugs?

A

CNS depressants such as barbiturates, Benzos, and opiods (d/t sedative effect)

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78
Q

What are 4 H2B?

A

Cimetidine
Famotidine
Nizatidine
Ranitidine

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79
Q

H2B MOA

A

Competitively inhibit histamine binding to H2 receptors

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80
Q

H2B 2 actions:

A
  1. reduce gastric acid output

2. raise gastric pH

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81
Q

What is the onset of Reglan?

A

1-3 minutes

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82
Q

What is the normal dose of IV Reglan?

A

10 mg

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83
Q

Which H2B are most effective in treating Peptic, duodenal, and gastric ulcers, hypersecretory states (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome), and GERD?

A

ALL are EQUALLY effective

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84
Q

Duodenal and gastric ulcers are treated w/ H2B and ____.

A

Combo of Bismuth, Tetracycline, and Flagyl

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85
Q

What infection are duodenal and gastric ulcers associtaed w/?

A

Helicobacter pylori

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86
Q

What happens to the pH of Gi content after admin of H2B?

A

These drugs affect the pH of only those gastric secretions that occur after administration

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87
Q

How do H2B reduce the perioperative risk of aspiration pneumonia?

A

By decreasing gsatric fluid volume nad Hydrogen ion content

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88
Q

(for drug-induced allergic reaction) Pretreatment with combo of H1 and H2 blockers _____ histamien release

A

does not reduce

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89
Q

(for drug-induced allergic reaction) Pretreatment with combo of H1 and H2 blockers ______ subsequent hypotension

A

may decrease

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90
Q

Combo of H1 and H2 blockers provides _______ against drug-induced allergic reaction (IV contrast, blue dyes)

A

some protection

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91
Q

What two H2B do you want to avoid rapid IV injection?

A

Cimetidine and Ranitidine

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92
Q

Rapid injection of Cimetidine (particularly in critically ill) and Ranitidine can rarely cause

A

Hypotension
Bradycardia
Arrhythmias
Cardiac arrest

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93
Q

_____ is a H2B that can be safely injected over 2 minutes

A

Famotidine

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94
Q

How do H2B change the gastric flora?

A

By virtue of their pH effects

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95
Q

Complications of long-term Cimetidine therapy

A

Hepatotoxicity
Interstitial nephritis
Grnulocytopenia
Thrombocytopenia

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96
Q

Besides binding to H2 receptors, Cimetidine also binds to ____ receptors, occasionally causing ______.

A

Androgen

gynecomastia and impotence

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97
Q

Which H2B causes changes in mental status ranging form lethargy and hallucinations to seizures?

A

Cimetidine

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98
Q

The mental status changes associated with Cimetidine adminsitration are most common in what population?

A

Eldelry

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99
Q

Which 3 H2B penetrate the BBB poorly?

A

Ranitidine
Nizatidine
Famotidine

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100
Q

When do you administer H2B as a premedication?

A

At bedtime and again at least 2 hours before surgery

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101
Q

How are H2B eliminated?

A

Kidneys

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102
Q

When do you reduce H2B dose?

A

With significant renal dysfunction

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103
Q

Cimetidine can cause drug interactions becuase it _____

A

may reduce hepatic blood flow and bind to the P450 mixed-function oxidases

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104
Q

Cimetidine can slow the metabolism of what drugs?

A
Lidocaine
Propranolol
Diazepam
Theophylline
Phenobarbital
Warfarin
Phenytoin
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105
Q

Which H2B is a weak inhibtior of P450?

A

Ranitidine

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106
Q

Which H2B does not affect P450?

A

Famotidine and Nizatidine

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107
Q

Antacids MOA

A

neutralize the acidity of gastric fluid by providing a base that reacts w/ H+ ions to form water

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108
Q

What is the base that antacids provide?

A

Usually Hydroxide, Carbonate, Bicarbonate, Citrate, or Trisilicate

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109
Q

Uses of antacids:

A

Treatment of gastric and duodenal ulcers, GERD, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

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110
Q

What are antacids use in anesthesia?

A

Provide protection against the harmful affects of aspiration pneumonia by raising the pH of gastric contents

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111
Q

antacids onset

A

immediate (this is unlike H2B)

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112
Q

Con of antacids?

A

Increases intragastric volume

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113
Q

Particulate antacid examples

A

aluminum or magensium hydroxide

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114
Q

Aspiration of particulate antacids is comparable to waht?

A

the abnormalities in lung function of those that occur following acid aspiration

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115
Q

Examples of nonparticulate antacids?

A

sodium citrate or sodium bicarb

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116
Q

Pros of nonparticulate antacids

A

much less damaging to lung alveoli if aspirated

Mix with gastric contents better

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117
Q

Usual dose of Bicitra or Polycitra

A

15-30 mL PO 15-20 minutes prior to induction

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118
Q

What is Bicitra

A

sodium citrate and citric acid

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119
Q

what is polycitra

A

sodium citrate, potassium citrate, and citric acid

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120
Q

Antacids alter ____ and ____ pH

A

gastric and urinary

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121
Q

Reglan acts peripherally as ______

A

cholinomimetic (ie facitilates Ach transmission at selective muscarinic receptors)

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122
Q

Reglan acts centrally as _______

A

dopamine receptor blocker

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123
Q

Do Reglan stimualte secretions?

A

No

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124
Q

Reglan’s prokinetic action in the UGIT is not dependent upon _______ but is abolished by _________.

A

vagal innervation

antichlinergic agents

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125
Q

What 3 actions does Reglan achieve through stimulating Ach on intestinal smooth muscle?

A

Increases LES tone
Speeds GI emptying
Lowers gastric fluid volume

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126
Q

Reglan works on what 2 receptors

A

Ach/selective muscarinic

Dopamine

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127
Q

Reglan is used for treatment of waht two things?

A

Diabetic gastroparesis

GERD

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128
Q

Reglans affect on the secretion of gastric acid

A

None

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129
Q

Reglan’s affect on teh pH of gastric fluid?

A

None

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130
Q

Reglan is used prophylactically to?

A

Decrease risk for aspiration pneumonia

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131
Q

How does Reglan produce an antiemetic effect?

A

Blocks dopamine receptors in the CTZ of the CNS

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132
Q

Reglan’s ability to reduce PONV is _____ when given during perioperative period

A

negligible at these doses

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133
Q

Rapid IV admin of REglan?

A

Abdominal cramping

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134
Q

Reglan is CI with what patients?

A

Complete bowel obstruction

Parkinsons

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135
Q

Reglan can _____ in patients with pheochromocytoma.

A

Induce HTN crisis by releasing catecholamines from tumor

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136
Q

Uncommon s/e of Reglan

A

sedation, nervousness, extrapyramidal s/s (akathisia)

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137
Q

Rare CV effects of Reglan

A

Low BP and arrythmias

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138
Q

Reglan increases what two hormones during short term therpay

A

aldosterone

prolactin

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139
Q

Adult dose of Reglan

A

10-20 mg (0.25 mg/kg)

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140
Q

Route of Reglan

A

PO, IM, IV

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141
Q

How fast do you inject Reglan?

A

Over 5 minutes

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142
Q

Onset of IV Reglan

A

3-5 minutes

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143
Q

Onset of PO Reglant

A

30-60 minutes

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144
Q

How is Reglan excreted?

A

Urine

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145
Q

Decrease Reglan with what?

A

Renal dysfunction

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146
Q

What dose Reglan is used during chemo to prevent emesis?

A

1-2 mg/kg - Large dose

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147
Q

What medications can block the effects of Reglan?

A

Antimuscarinic such as Atropine and Robinul

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148
Q

What drug does Reglan decrease the absorption of?

A

PO Cimetidine

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149
Q

PPI examples

A
Omeprazole (Prilosec)
Lansoprazole (Prevacid)
Rabeprazole (Aciphex)
Esomeprazole (Nexium)
Pantoprazole (Protonix)
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150
Q

Protonix MOA

A

Bind to proton pump of parietal cells in the gastric mucosa and inhibit secretion of H+

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151
Q

PPI Uses:

A

treats: duodenal ulcer, GERD, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
heal: peptic ulcers and errosive GERD

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152
Q

Do PPIs or H2B heal ulcers and erosive GERD quicker?

A

PPIs

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153
Q

Concern when PPIs are taken with _____ drug due to inadequate ______ therapy when the drugs are combined

A

clopidogreal (Plavix0

antiPLT

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154
Q

Are PPIs tolerated well?

A

Generally, b/c they cause few s/e

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155
Q

Most common s/e of PPI

A

Gi system (nausea, abd. pain, constipation, diarrhea)

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156
Q

PPI rare s/e

A

myalgia
anaphylaxis
angioedema
severe dematologic reaction

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157
Q

Why does long-term use of PPIs increase risk of pneumonia?

A

bacterial colonization in the higher pH environment

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158
Q

Long-term PPI use has been associated w/ hyperplasia of the?

A

gastric enterochromaffin cell

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159
Q

PO doses of Omeprazole and Rabeprazole?

A

20 mg

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160
Q

PO dose of Protonix

A

40 mg

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161
Q

PO dose of Lansoprazole

A

15 mg

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162
Q

When do you decrease dose of PPI?

A

with severe liver impariement

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163
Q

How are PPIs eliminated?

A

liver

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164
Q

How often does PONV occur in general population (w/o prophylaxis)?

A

20-30%

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165
Q

How often does PONV occur in high risk (w/o prophylaxis)?

A

70-80%

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166
Q

As anesthetic duration increases, PONV risk _____

A

increases

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167
Q

WHich society provides a scoring system for PONV?

A

Society of Ambulatory Anesthesia (SAMBA)

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168
Q

Obesity, anxiety, and reversal of NMBD are or are not independent risk factors of PONV?

A

ARE NOT

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169
Q

What drugs are used in the treatment and prophylaxis of PONV?

A
5-HT3 blockers
Butyrophenones
Dexamethasone
Neurokinin-1 receptor blockers (aprepitant, Emend)
Antihistamines
Transdermal scopolamine
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170
Q

Risk factors for pONV (7 total)

A
female
nonsmoking
history of PONV
use of volatiles
NO
opioids
duration of surgery
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171
Q

Each duration of ______ of surgery increases the baseline risk of PONV by 60%.

A

30 minutes

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172
Q

How many PONV interventions do you do for those at moderate risk?

A

1-2

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173
Q

How mnay PONV interventions do you do for those at high risk?

A

multiple

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174
Q

Where is serotonin 5-HT present in the body?

A

Large quantiites in PLT and the GI tract

NT in multiple areas of CNS

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175
Q

What part of the GIT ahs serotonin 5-HT?

A

enterochromaffin cells and the myenteric plexus

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176
Q

How is serotonin formed?

A

By hydroxylation and decarboxylation of tryptophan

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177
Q

What inactivates serotonin into 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)?

A

Monoamine oxidase

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178
Q

How many receptors of serotonin are there?

A

At least 7, most w/ subtypes

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179
Q

What serotonin receptor mediates vomiting?

A

5-HT3

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180
Q

Where is the 5-HT3 receptor found?

A

GI tract and the brain (area postrema)

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181
Q

5-HT2a

A

responsilbe for smooth muscle contraction and PLT aggregation

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182
Q

5-HT4

A

in the GI tract and mediate secretion and peristalsis

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183
Q

5-HT6 and 5-HT7

A

located primarily in limbic system where they appear to pay a role in depression

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184
Q

All except ____ receptor are coupled to G proteins and affect either adenylyl cyclase or phospholipase c. (serotonin)

A

5-HT3

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185
Q

How are the effects of 5-HT3 mediated?

A

via an ion channel

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186
Q

Serotonin is a powerful ____ of arterioles and veins.

A

vasoconstrictor

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187
Q

What areas of the body lack serotonin’s vasoconstrictive properties?

A

heart and skeletal muscle

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188
Q

What effect does serotonin have on the heart’s vessels?

A

vasodilator effect, (endothelium dependent*)

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189
Q

When the myocardial endothelium is injured, serotonin produces _____.

A

vasoCONSTRICTION

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190
Q

What 2 vasculatures are sensitive to serotonin’s arterial vasoconstrictive effect?

A

pulmonary and renal

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191
Q

Modest and transient _____ in cardiac contractility and HR may occur after serotonin release;reflex ____ often follows.

A

increases

bradycardia

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192
Q

What affect does released serotonin have on respiratory system?

A

contraction of smooth muscle –> increased airway resistance

bronchoconstrictioN

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193
Q

Prominent feature associated w/ released serotonin of carcinoid syndrome?

A

bronchoconstriction

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194
Q

Does serotonin affect secretions?

A

No

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195
Q

Serotonin directly contracts GI smooth muscles via what receptor?

A

via 5-HT2

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196
Q

Serotonin-induced release of Ach in the myenteric plexus occurs via what receptor?

A

via 5-HT3

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197
Q

Serotonin 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 do what for the GI system?

A

greatly augement peristalsis

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198
Q

Activation of ____ serotonin receptors causes PLT aggregation.

A

5-HT2

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199
Q

What 3 meds selectively block 5-HT3 receptors, with no effect on dopamine receptors?

A

Ondansetron (Zofran)
Granisetron (Kytril)
Dolasetron (Anzemet)

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200
Q

5HT3 receptors are located peripherally in _____ and centrally at ________.

A

abdominal vagal afferents

CTZ of the area postrema and nucleus tractus solitarius

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201
Q

What serotonin receptor plays a roel in initiation of vomiting reflex?

A

5HT3

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202
Q

The 5HT3 receptors of the CTZ are ______ the BBB.

A

outside

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203
Q

How does the CTZ trigger zone initiate vomiting?

A

trigger zone is activated by substances such as ansethetics adn opioids, sends signal to neclues tractus soiatrious resulting in vomiting

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204
Q

What activates teh CTZ?

A

anesthestics

opioids

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205
Q

How does the GIT stimulate PONV?

A

emetogenic stimuli (in a similar manner to CTZ vomiting activation)

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206
Q

When are 5HT3 administered during surgery?

A

at teh end of surgery

207
Q

Zofran = 4 mg Decadron = 1.25 mg Droperidol in effectiveness of _____

A

antiemetic action in postop period

208
Q

A new agent ______ has extended DOA (5HT3)

A

Palonsetron (Aloxi)

209
Q

Aloxi’s extended DOA is useful for what?

A

reducing PDNV

210
Q

What s/e do 5HT3B have?

A

devoid of any serious s/e even in doses several times the recommended

211
Q

5HT3B do not cause ____, _____, or _____.

A

sedation
extrapyramidal signs
respiratory depression

212
Q

Most common s/e of 5HT3 blockers?

A

HA

213
Q

5HT3 blockers ekg effect?

A

prolong the QT

214
Q

Prolonged QT is more frequent with which 5HT3 blocker?

A

Dolasetron

215
Q

5HT3 blockers should be used cautiously in what patients?

A

Those taking antiarrhythmic drugs OR those with a prolonged QT interval

216
Q

How is Zofran metabolized?

A

extensive metabolism in the liver via hydroxylation and conjugation by P450

217
Q

When should you reduce the dose of Zofran?

A

with liver failure

218
Q

Recommended IV dose of Dolasetron?

A

12.5 mg

219
Q

Recommended IV dose of Granisetron?

A

1 mg

220
Q

What type of drug is Droperidol?

A

Butyrophenones

221
Q

What is the dose of Droperidol for PONV?

A

0.625 - 1.25 mg

222
Q

How does Droperidol work?

A

Blocks dopamine receptors that contribute to PONV developmetn

223
Q

What medication has a black box warning about risk of QT prolongation and development of Torsades des pointes?

A

Droperidol

224
Q

What dose of Droperidol causes QT prolongation and Torsades?

A

5-15 mg

225
Q

With large doses of Droperidol what type of monitoring is indicated?

A

cardiac

226
Q

Since Droperidol antagonizes dopamine, careful consdieration of use in ____ and _____ patients is necessary.

A

Parkinson’s disease and patients manifesting extrapyramidal signs

227
Q

What type of medication is prochlorperazine (Compazine)?

A

Phenothiazine

228
Q

What receptors does Phenothiazine work on?

A

Histaminergic
Dopamine
Muscarinic

229
Q

What is Compazine used for?

A

PONV management

230
Q

What type of s/e does Compazine cause?

A

extrapyramidal and anticholinergic

231
Q

Promethazine is also called?

A

Phenergan

232
Q

Phenergan works primarily as ____ and ____ agent.

A

anticholinergic

antihistamine

233
Q

What s/e can happen with Phenergan?

A

sedation
delirium
confusion
visoin changes

234
Q

When should you give dexamethasone (decadron) for PONV?

A

at induction

235
Q

Decadron is what class?

A

glucocorticoid

236
Q

Substance P is a neuropeptide that interacts with what receptors?

A

neurokinin-1

237
Q

NK1 antagonists block ____ at central and peripheral receptors.

A

Substance P

238
Q

What NK1 antagonist has been found to reduce PONV perioperatively?

A

Aprepitant (Emend)

239
Q

What is Aprepitant an additive for?

A

Zofran

240
Q

Transdermal Scopolamine can produce what s/e?

A

central anticholingergic

confusion, blurred vision, dry mouth

241
Q

Alternative methods for PONV?

A

acupuncture, acupressure, and transcutaneous electrical stimulation of P6 acupuncture point

242
Q

No single agent will both TREAT and PREVENT PONV. (true or false)

A

True

243
Q

Toradol classification:

A

parenteral NSAID that provide analgesia

244
Q

What length of use is Toradol indicated for?

A

short-term <5 days

245
Q

A standard dose of Toradol provides analgesia that = ______

A

6-12 mg IV morphine

246
Q

What has a quicker onset, MOrphine or Toradol?

A

They have similar onset

247
Q

What has a longer DOA, Morphine or Toradol?

A

Toradol

248
Q

How long is toradols DOA?

A

6-8 H

249
Q

Toradol has ____ CNS s/e.

A

minimal

250
Q

Toradol dose NOT cause ____, _____, or _____.

A

respiratory depression
sedation
n/v

251
Q

Does Toradol cross the BBB?

A

No

252
Q

IM dose of Toradol

A

60 mg

253
Q

IV dose of Toradol

A

30 mg loading

then 15-30 mg Q6H

254
Q

Who should receive a reduced dose of Toradol?

A

Elderly patients

255
Q

What decreases the protein binding of Toradol; thereby increasing active unbound drug?

A

Aspirin

256
Q

Toradol’s effect on MAC?

A

none

257
Q

Toradols effect on hemodynamics?

A

none

258
Q

Toradol decreases the requirement of _____

A

postoperative analgesics.

259
Q

What do NSAIDs inhibit?

A

cyclooxygenase (COX) isoenzymes

260
Q

What 2 things does COX-1 do?

A

Maintains gastric mucosa

Stimulates PLT aggregation

261
Q

What does COX-2 do?

A

Expressed during inflammation

262
Q

Toradol is a ______ inhibitor of COX ______

A

nonselective

1 & 2

263
Q

What NSAIDs are selective for COX-2?

A

Parecoxib (Dynastat)
Celecoxib (Celebrex)
Rofecoxib (Vioxx)

264
Q

NSAIDs selective for COX ___ have an increased risk of CV thromboembolic events.

A

2

265
Q

When are NSAIDs that either selectively or nonselectively inhibit COX-2 contraindicated?

A

post CABG

266
Q

IV Tylonel is called?

A

Ofirmev

267
Q

Acetaminophen class:

A

Centrally acting analgesic w/ likley central COX inhibition and weak peripheral COX

268
Q

Acetaminophen lacks _____ b/c of its moa

A

GI irritation and clotting abnormalities

269
Q

Max dose of Ofirmev for >50kg

A

1 g

270
Q

Max daily dose of Ofirmev for >50 kg

A

4 g

271
Q

Max dose of Ofirmev for <50 kg

A

15 mg/kg

272
Q

Max daily dose of Ofirmev for <50 kg

A

75 mg/kg/day

273
Q

Ofirmev should be used in caution in what patients?

A

Hepatic disease or undergoing hepatic surgery

274
Q

Clonidine is _____ lipid soluble

A

highly

275
Q

Can Clonidine penetrate the BBB and placenta?

A

Yes

276
Q

Clonidine class

A

Alpha 2 agonist

277
Q

WHere is the binding of Clonidine to receptors highest?

A

The rostral ventrolateral medulla in the brainstem (the final common path for sympethetic outflow)

278
Q

Clonidine activates what type of neurons?

A

inhibitory

279
Q

Clonidines overal effect is to ____, ____, and ____.

A

decrease sympathetic activity
enhance parasypmathetic tone
reduce circulating catecholamines

280
Q

There is evidence that Clonidine’s antiHTN effect is b/c of its binding to _____ receptor.

A

nonadrenergic (imidazoline)

281
Q

CLonidine’s analgesic effect is mediated how? (particularly in spinal cord)

A

entirely via pre and post synpatic alpha 2 receptors that block nociceptive transmission

282
Q

Clonidine has what effect when applied to peripheral nerves?

A

LA

283
Q

Clonidine is added to what kind of solutions often?

A

LA

284
Q
Clonidine CV effects:
\_\_\_ sympathetic tone
\_\_\_\_ SVR
\_\_\_\_ HR
\_\_\_\_\_ BP
A

↓ALL

285
Q

CLonidine is used as an adjunct for ___, ___, and ____ in anesthesia

A

epidural
caudal
peripheral nerve block

286
Q

CLonidine is often used in the management of what issue?

A

chronic neuropathic pain

287
Q

When given epidurally, Cloidine’s analgesic effect is ____.

A

segmental (localized to lvel at which it is infused)

288
Q

When added to LA with ____ DOA for epidural or peripheral nerve block, Clonidine will _____.

A

intermediate;

markedly prolong DOA

289
Q

LA with intermediate DOA

A

Mepivacaine or Lidociane

290
Q

Common s/e of clonidine

A

sedation
dizzy
bradycardia
dry mouth

291
Q

Rare s/e of clonidine

A

bradycardia
orthostatic hypotension
nausea
diarrhea

292
Q

Abrupt d/c of Clonidine following adminsitration >____, leads to rebound hypertension, agitation, and sympathetic overacitvity.

A

1 month

293
Q

Epidural clonidine starting dose

A

30 mcg/h

294
Q

PO clonidine maintenence dose

A

0.1 mg - 0.3 mg bid

295
Q

PO clonidine onset

A

30-60 minutes

296
Q

DOA PO clonidine

A

6-12 h

297
Q

Doses of Clonidine for acute HTN

A

0.1 mg Q1H (max 0.6 mg)

298
Q

Transdermal dose of Clonidine

A

0.1, 0.2, 0.3 mg (replaced Q7D)

299
Q

How is clonidine metabolzied?

A

liver

300
Q

How is clonidine excreted?

A

renal

301
Q

Doses of clonidine should be reduced with what patients?

A

renal insufficiency

302
Q

Clonidine prolongs ___ and ____ block from LA

A

sensroy and motor

303
Q

Clonidine can potentiate sedaiton, hypotension, and bradycardia when given with?

A

hypnotic agents
general anesthetics
sedatives

304
Q

You should use clonidine cautiously if at all in patients that take what medication?

A

BB

also caution /w cardiac conduction issues

305
Q

Clonidine’s effect on diabetics

A

masks hypoglycemia

306
Q

Precedex class

A

parenteral selective A2 agonist

307
Q

Which medication is more selective for A2?

A

precedex

308
Q

At high doses, precedex loses _____ and also stimualtes ____.

A

selectivitiy

A1

309
Q

Precedex actions:

A

sedation
anxiolysis
analgesia
blunts sympathetic response to surgery

310
Q

Precedex has a ____ sparing effect

A

opiod

311
Q

Does precedex significantly depress respiratory drive?

A

no

312
Q

Does precedex cause excessive sedation?

A

no

313
Q

Does precedex cause airway obstruction?

A

it can

314
Q

How long is precedex used for mechanical ventilation?

A

short term <24H

315
Q

D/c of precedex is used longer than 24H can cause what?

A

withdrawal

316
Q

4 s/e of precedex

A

bradycardia
heart block
hypotension
nausea

317
Q

Precedex loading dose

A

1 mcg/kg over 10 min

318
Q

precedex maintaine gtt

A

0.2-0.7 mcg/kg/h

319
Q

Precedex onset

A

rapid

320
Q

Precedex half life

A

2 hours

321
Q

How is Precedex metabolized?

A

liver

322
Q

How is Precedex excreted?

A

Urine

323
Q

When should you reduce Precedex doses?

A

Renal or liver impairement

324
Q

You should be cautious administering precedex with ____, ____, or ____ drugs

A

vasodilators
cardiac depressants
drugs that lower HR

325
Q

Doxapram (Dopram) class

A

peripheral and CNS stimulant

326
Q

Low doses of Doxapram stimulate ____.

A

hypoxic drive

327
Q

Low doses of Doxapram increase ____ and ____.

A

tidal volume

RR

328
Q

Large doses of Doxapram stimualte ____.

A

the central respiratory centers in the medulla

329
Q

Low doses of Doxapram are selective for activation of what?

A

carotid chemoreceptors

330
Q

What does Doxapram mimic?

A

Low PaO2

331
Q

What drug is useful in COPD patients who are dpendent on hypoxic drive yet require supplemental oxygen?

A

Doxapram

332
Q

Doxapram can temporarily overcome ___ and _____

A

drug-induced respiratory and CNS depression

333
Q

Doxapram s/e

A

changes in mental status
cardiac abnormalities
pulmonary dysfunction
(remember its a STIMULANT)

334
Q

What is a particular concern for patients administered Doxapram during the postoperative period?

A

Laryngospasm

Vomiting

335
Q

Doxapram CI (6)

A
  1. epilepsy
  2. cerrebrovascular disease
  3. acute head injury
  4. CAD
  5. HTN
  6. broncial asthma
336
Q

Doxapram bolus IV dose

A

0.5-1 mg/kg

337
Q

Bolus Doxapram onset

A

1 minute

338
Q

Bolus Doxapram DOA

A

5-12 minutes

339
Q

Doxapram Gtt dose

A

1-3 mg/min (max 4 mg/kg)

340
Q

Name 2 endogenous opioid compounds?

A

enkephalins

endorphins

341
Q

Perioperative resp. depression d/t opioids can be antagonized in ____w/ Narcan adminsitration.

A

1-2 minutes

342
Q

With minimum required dose of Narcan that maintains adequate ventilation, what can be spared?

A

some degree of analgesia

343
Q

Low doses of IV Narcan reverse the s/e of ______ without necesarily reversing ____.

A

epidural opioids

analgesia

344
Q
Abrupt reversal w/ Narcan can cause 
1.
2.
3.
4.
A
  1. tachycardia
  2. ventricular irritability
  3. HTN
  4. pulmonary edema
345
Q

The extent of Narcan’s s/e is proportional to ____ and ___.

A

amount of opioid being reversed

speed of reversal

346
Q

What is a pure opioid antagonist w/ high affinity for Mu receptor, but which has longer half life than Narcan?

A

Naltrexone

347
Q

PO Naltrexone use:

A

maintenance treatment of opioid addicts and ethanol abuse (blocks pleasnat effects)

348
Q

Other name for Flumazenil?

A

Romazicon

349
Q

Flumazenil class:

A

specific and competative antagonist of benzos at benzo receptor

350
Q

Flumazenil onset

A

<1 minute

351
Q

Flumazenil reverses the ____ effect of Benzos, but less relaibliy prevents _____

A

hypnotic; amnesia

352
Q

What can linger after flumazenil use?

A

evidence of repsiratory depression (despite AAO)

353
Q

TV and minute ventilation _____, while the slop of carbon dioxide is ____ with Flumazenil use?

A

normal; depressed

354
Q

Benzo reversal with Flumazenil is most difficult to reverse in what patients?

A

elderly

355
Q

Rapid admin of flumazenil?

A

anxiety or withdrawl

356
Q

Administration of what reversal has been associated with increased in ICP in patients with head injury and abnormal intracranial compliance?

A

Flumazenil

357
Q

When might Flumazenil cause seizures?

A

If benzos were given as anticonvulsant or w/ OD of TCAs

358
Q

What 2 drugs may increase the incidence of emergency dysphoria and hallucinations with flumazenil reversal?

A

Midazolam -Ketamine combo

359
Q

Does flumazenil cause n/v?

A

yes, not uncommon

360
Q

Does flumazenil affect MAC?

A

no

361
Q

Flumazenil dose:

A

0.2 mg/min until desired reversal reached

362
Q

Usual total dose of flumazenil?

A

0.6-1 mg

363
Q

How is flumazenil cleared?

A

hepatic

364
Q

When are repeat doses of flumazenil required?

A

may be required after 1-2 H to avoid resedation

365
Q

With an OD of long acting Benzos, what should be considered upon reversal?

A

Gtt (0.5mg/h) of Flumazenil may be preferred

366
Q

What can prolong the clearance of Benzos and Flumazenil?

A

Liver failure

367
Q

LA transiently inhibit some or all of ____, ____, or ____ function.

A

sensory
motor
autonomic nerve

368
Q

Local and regional anesthesia techniques depend on what?

A

LA

369
Q

What is the resting membrane potential of nuerons?

A

-60 to -70

370
Q

The sodium-potassium pump sends ___ Na ____ and ___K ___.

A

3 Na out

2 K in

371
Q

The cell membrane is more leaky for which electrolyte?

A

K

372
Q

What is the Na channel made up of?

A

1 large alpha subunit

1-2 smaller beta subunits

373
Q

Where does the Na ion pass?

A

alpha subunit

374
Q

What three states do Na channels exist in?

A
  1. resting
  2. open
  3. inactivated
375
Q

Where do LA bind on the Na channel?

A

alpha subunit

376
Q

LA consist of what 2 groups?

A

lipophilic and hydrophilic

377
Q

The lipophilic group of a LA is usually what?

A

aromatic benzene ring

378
Q

The hydrophilic group of LA is usually waht?

A

tertiary amine

379
Q

What determines the class of LA

A

the nature of the intermediate chain

380
Q

What are the two type sof LA?

A

ester

amides

381
Q

Potency of LA correlates w/ the ability of the LA to _____.

A

permeate lipid membranes

382
Q

How can you increase potency of LA?

A

adding large alkyl groups to parent molecule

383
Q

What affects the minimum concentration of LA that blocks impulse? (5 things)

A
  1. fiber size
  2. myelination
  3. pH
  4. stimulation frequency
  5. electrolyte concentratoin
384
Q

The onset of LA depends on?
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. lipid solublity
  2. concentration of nonionized/more lipid soluble free base to ionized/water soluble form
  3. pKa
385
Q

LA are prepared commerically as ______.

A

water soluble hydrocholirde salts

386
Q

Epinephrine is stable or unstable in alkaline environements?

A

unstable

387
Q

Commercial products that contain Epi are generally more ____ than plain solutions. (acidic or basic)

A

acidic

388
Q

What is the pH of water soluble hydrochloride salt LA?

A

6-7

389
Q

DOA of LA correlates w/ ____ and ____.

A

potency

lipid solubility

390
Q

What is the benefit of alkalyzing LA?

A

speeds onset

improves qulaity of block

391
Q

LA are weak ___.

A

bases

392
Q

Acid + acid =

A

nonionized

393
Q

base + base =

A

nonionized

394
Q

acid + base +

A

ionized

395
Q

pKa is?

A

pH were 50% nonionzed and 50% ionized

396
Q

pKA affects waht?

A

onset

397
Q

Lipid solublity affects what?

A

potency

398
Q

The ___ lipid soluble the ___ potent.

A

more; more

399
Q

Why does lipid solublity affect potency?

A

The more lipid soluble, the less likely blood flow can carry LA away.

400
Q

protein binding affects what?

A

DOA of LA

401
Q

A Na channel that is in the resting/closed stage, the M-gate is open or closed?

A

closed

402
Q

In a Na channel in the activated/open stage, the M-gate and H-gate are open or closed?

A

open

403
Q

In a Na channel in the inactivated state, what gate is closed rendering its inactivation?

A

H-gate

404
Q

What gate does the LA interact with to cause its affect?

A

H-gate

405
Q

A LA must have a ___ charge to interact with the H-gate.

A

postive

406
Q

Can ionized or nonionzed cross the phospholipid layer?

A

nonionzied

407
Q

Can ionized or nonionzed bind with the h-gate inside the membrane?

A

ionized

408
Q

Which is lipid soluble: non-ionized or ionized?

A

non-ionized

409
Q

Which is water soluble: non-ionzed or ionzied?

A

ionized

410
Q

Which is the acid form: noin-ionzied or ionzied?

A

non-ionized

411
Q

which is the conjugate base form: nonionized or ionized?

A

ionzied

412
Q

What happens if a largely non-ionized form of a drug is place in water?

A

precipitates

413
Q

What 2 things delay LA onset?

A
  1. drug that has a pKa further from physiologic pH

2. pH of environment that is acidic

414
Q

What type of environments are acidic?

A

wound infections or ischemic areas

415
Q

Which a drug that has a pKa far from the physiologic pH, more of the drug is nonionized or ionzied?

A

ionized

416
Q

More protein bound = _____ DOA

A

longer

417
Q

When the pKa is closer to the physiologic pH, the onset is faster or slower?

A

faster

418
Q

What is the pKa of chloroprociane?

A

9.1

419
Q

What drug is the exception to the pKa and onset rule?

A

Chloroprociane

420
Q

How much of Chloroprociane is protein bound?

A

0%

421
Q

What is the pKa of prociane?

A

9.1

422
Q

What is the protein binding of Procaine?

A

o%

423
Q

What is the pKa of Lidocaine?

A

7.6-7.9

424
Q

What is Lidocianes onset?

A

“relatively fast”

425
Q

What is added to LA to prolong duration?

A

Epi

426
Q

What is added to LA for faster onset?

A

Bicarb

427
Q

Why do you add Bicarb to speed up onset?

A

The drug is more nonionzed w/ Bicarb. (LA are weak bases )

428
Q

What medication can precipitate when you add Bicarb?

A

Bupivacaine

429
Q

What dose of Bicarb do you add to Bupivacaine?

A

0.1 mEq per 20 mL (SMALLER than normal)

430
Q

What does of Bicarb do you add to Lidocaine?

A

1 mEq Bicarb/ 10 mL of Lidocaine

431
Q

Epi will not increase the DOA for what drugs and why?

A

B, E, R

b/c they have long DOA already

432
Q

What is the pKa range of LA?

A

7.6 - 9.1

433
Q

Why is the speed of onset slower when a LA is injected into an infected area?

A

The area is acidic and the extent of ionized portion will be increased. Then diffusion will be slowed

434
Q

The greater the amount of LA that exists in ___ state, the faster the onset.

A

nonionized

435
Q

Short acting LA?

A

Pro

C

436
Q

Intermediate acting LA?

A

L, M, Pri

437
Q

Long Acting LA?

A

BET on a long shot

438
Q

LA w/ high pKa are highly ___ at physiologic pH

A

ionized

439
Q

For LA w/ high pKa the Na channel must be in the ____ state for effect to occur.

A

open (activated)

440
Q

What nerves have greater suspectiblity to LA w/ high pKa?

A

nerves w/ frequent depolarizations

441
Q

What nerves have frequent depolarizations?

A

sensory nerves, autonomic nerves

442
Q

What nerves have less freuqnet depolarizatoins?

A

motor nerves

443
Q

Which nerves have less susceptibility to LA w/ high pKa?

A

motor nerves (b/c less frequent depolarizations)

444
Q

Where does sympathetic block occur?

A

2-6 dermatones higher than sensory block

445
Q

where does motor block occur?

A

2 dermatones lower than sensroy block

446
Q

How does the LA progress in block?

A
  1. autonomic, temp, pain (ATP)
  2. touch, pressure (TP)
  3. motor, vibratory, proprioception (MVP)
447
Q

How many nodes of Ravier must be blocked to stop nerve conduction of myelinated axons?

A

2-3

448
Q

What do weak acids combine with?

A

postive charge ions (Na, Mg, Ca)

449
Q

What do weak bases combine with?

A

negative charged ions (cl, sulfate)

450
Q

Which drugs are examples of weak acids?

A

Sodium Ceto

Magnesium Tibucaine

451
Q

Which drug is an example of a weak base?

A

Lidocaine hydrochloride

452
Q

Weak acids administered to a pt with a pH of 1 (lol) is more nonionized or ionized?

A

nonionized

453
Q

Weak acids administered to a pt w/ a pH of 14 is more nonionied or ionized?

A

ionized

454
Q

WEak bases adminsitered toa pt w/ a pH of 1 (lol), the drug is more nonionized or ionized?

A

ionized

455
Q

Weak bases administered toa. pt w/ a pH of 14, teh drug is more nonionized or ionized?

A

nonionized

456
Q

Weak bases become more ____ as pH increases

A

nonionized

457
Q

Should a weak acid be stored in a low or high pH?

A

High so it does not precipitate

458
Q

What has contributed to the emergence of bacterial resistance?

A

Excessive treatment to treat condition that benefit little or not at all

459
Q

What percentage of Rx written, is written for conditions for which Rx are rarely indicated in ambulatory patients?

A

25%

460
Q

What are some conditions that have little benefit from Rx?

A

URI

Bronchitis

461
Q

What is the surgical care improvement project (SCIP)?

A

designed to combat a perceived national crisis of preventable surgical site infections identified in 1990s

462
Q

Surgical site infection are associated w/ what 3 things:

A
  1. double risk of mortality
  2. 60% higher likelihood of spending time in ICU
  3. 5x risk of readmission
463
Q

SIP was expanded to SCIP to include ____?

A

additional perioperative qulatiy measures r/t infection control

464
Q

SCIP has been retired. T/F

A

T

465
Q

Under joint commission, not every surgical infection is targeted now, wht is targeted?

A

Hospitals are allowed to choose targeted surgical site infections based on own risk assessments

466
Q

Risk factors for infection?

A
1. extremes of age
poor nutrition
obestiy
DM *
Periop glycemic control
PVD
tobacco use
coexistent infections
altered immune response
corticosteroid therapy **
467
Q

Other risk factors of surgical infection?

A
surgical scrub/hair removal
surgical experience of surgeon
technique (open vs/ lap)
duration of surgery
sterilizaiton of instruments
maintenance of normothermia
468
Q

SCIP findins show for bowel surgeries, BS should be kept < ____ for ____ hours post-op b/c there is evidence showing significantly lower number of surgical site infection.

A

200

48

469
Q

What favors infection and imparied healing?

A

Issues r/t hypothermia

470
Q

What issues are r/t hypothermia?

A
  1. results in peripheral vasoconstriction
  2. decreased wound oxygen tension
  3. decreased recruitment of leukocytes
471
Q

Method to prevent normothermia associated infections?

A

intraoperative warming

472
Q

What is the difference between SCIP 1 and 2?

A

1: prophylactic abx received within 1h prior to incision
2: prophylactic abx selection for each patient

473
Q

With Scip 2, the Abx should be appropraite to waht 2 things?

A
  1. most likley microorganisms r/t procedure

2. patient characteristics

474
Q

Abx should be given on ___ vs ____

A

risk

benefit

475
Q

When does the risk of using Abx outweigh the benefits?

A

in clean elective surgical procedures

476
Q

example of clean elective surgical procedure

A

mastectomy or thyroidectomy where tissue (other than skin) carrying an indigenous flora is being penetrated

477
Q

What are the predominant organisms causing surgical site infection after clean procedures are?

A

skin flor

478
Q

skin flora organisms?

A

Staph aureus

Staph epidermidis

479
Q

Cephalosporings have ___ TI

A

wide

480
Q

Cephalosporins have high or low incidence of s/e?

A

low

481
Q

What cephalosporins are used most often?

A

cost effective first generations

482
Q

Example of 1st gen cephalosporin?

A

cefazolin

483
Q

What is the abx of choice for surgical procedure where normal flora, skin flora, GI and GU tracts are the most likely pathogens?

A

CEPHALOSPORINS

484
Q

How common are documented IgE reactions to cephalosporin?

A

rare

485
Q

Most reactions to cephalosporin are d/t?

A

mistaken allergies r/t n/v, yeast infection

486
Q

Can you use cephalosporins in pts who are allergic to PNC?

A

YES***

487
Q

A PNC reaction cannot be an IgE-mediated reaction such as these 4 things?

A
1. anaphylaxis
urticaria
bronchospams
exfoliative dermatitis (SJS)
DO NOT GIVE CEPHALOSPORINS EITHER
488
Q

Early reports of high cross-ractivity of PCN and ceph was r/t what?

A

contaminated drug lots

489
Q

What is the cross-reactivity rate of ceph and pnc?

A

1%

490
Q

True anaphylaxis w/ ceph is severe. T/F

A

TRUE!

491
Q

Does bowel prep alone reduce infection?

A

No

492
Q

What was used to eradicate gram neg organisms, S. aureus, and yeasts from oral cavity to rectum?

A

selective decontamination of digestive tract w/ oral topical polymiyxin, tobramycin, and amphotericin

493
Q

Why can you not use Vanc w/ bowel prep and decontamination?

A

it would be active against MRSA BUT also would affect gram positive flora which plays an important role in resistance to colonization

494
Q

What is a nosocomial infection?

A

hospital acquired

495
Q

What 3 sites do nearly 80% of NI occur?

A
  1. urinary tract
  2. respiratory tract
  3. blood stream
496
Q

NI are associated highly w/ what 3 things?

A
  1. ventilators
  2. vascular access catheters
  3. urinary catheters
497
Q

Vascular access catheters are most common cause of what 2?

A

bacteremia

fungemia

498
Q

In the CT surgery population, ____ is associated w/ an approx. 50% decrease in deep sternal infection.

A

glucose control

499
Q

CT surgery population - glucose control best method for reduction in surgical site infection?

A

continuous insulin gtt (when compared w/ SQ injection)

500
Q

Stopping smoking briefly prior to surgery decreases what rates by about 50%?

A

infection

501
Q

When do you stop smoking preop?

A

4-8 weeks prior

502
Q

Immunosuppresion from long term use of corticosteroids has been considered a risk factor for surigcal site infection. T/F

A

Few studies support this claim

503
Q

Long term steroid use is associated w/ _____ in bowel surgeries.

A

anatomotic leaks

504
Q

Does 1 time use of corticosteroid for n/v and pain lead to infection?

A

no

505
Q

When do IgE mediated anaphlyatic raction to antimicrobials occur?

A

30-60 min after dosing

506
Q

IgE mediated anaphylactic reaction to antimicrobials s/s:

A

urticaria (hives)
bronchospasm
Hemodynamic collapse

507
Q

Examples of clean-contaminated procedures

A

colorectal and abdominal surgeries

508
Q

Clean contaminated procedures require additional coverage for what?

A

gram-neg rods and anaerobes in addition to skin flora

509
Q

What can be added for additional coverage of gram-neg rods and anareobes for clean-contaminated procedures?

A

Metronidazole

510
Q

Metronidazole is usually added with what abx?

A
  1. cefazolin
  2. cefoxitin
  3. cefotetan
  4. ampicillin-sulbactam
  5. ertapenem
  6. ceftriaxone
511
Q

What 2 types of abx are bactericidial?

A

PCN

Cephalosporin

512
Q

Methods for sterilizing instruments? (6 total)

A
Formaldehyde
Glutaraldehyde
Pasteruzaiton
cresol
silver nitrate
ethylene oxide
513
Q

In clean contaminated procedures, the most common organisms include:

A

gram negative rods
Enterococci
staph aureus
staph epidermidis