Medication Drug Boxes Flashcards

1
Q

Order for induction meds

A
versed
fentanyl
Lidocaine
Rocuronium
Propofol
Sux
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2
Q

How much Roc do you give as fasciulating dose?

A

5-10 mg

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3
Q

When do you give epherdrine

A

low HR and BP

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4
Q

when do you give neo

A

high HR and low BP

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5
Q

B/c circulation is slow in elderly, what do you need to do?

A

give more time to work

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6
Q

other name for versed

A

midazolam

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7
Q

versed class

A

benzo agonist

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8
Q

versed CI

A

galucoma, pregnancy, lactation, CNS depression

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9
Q

Versed caution:

A

liver dysfunction; protease inhibtiors; elderly

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10
Q

Versed dose fo adults

A

2-5 mg IV

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11
Q

versed IM dose

A

0.007-0.08(?) mg/kg

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12
Q

versed IV induction dose?

A

0.1-0.2 mg/kg

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13
Q

Versed peds PO preop dose

A

0.5 mg/kg

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14
Q

versed peds PO max

A

20 mg

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15
Q

versed peds IM dose

A

0.05-0.1 mg/kg

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16
Q

versed peds IV doee

A

0.025-0.05 mg/kg

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17
Q

versed vial

A

2 mg or 5 mg vials

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18
Q

versed route

A
IV
IM
PO 
nasal
rectal
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19
Q

Versed MOA

A

increases binding affinity for GABA. WHen GABA occupies the site, increased frequency of Cl- channel opening which results in postsynaptic membrane hyperpolarization

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20
Q

versed elimination

A

hepatic (mainly) and renal

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21
Q

versed half life

A

1.7-2.6 hours

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22
Q

versed onset

A

30-60 seconds

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23
Q

versed peak

A

2,8-5.6 minutes

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24
Q

versed doa

A

15-80 min

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25
Q

whats the most common preop med for peds pt?

A

versed

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26
Q

Versed is preferred drug for what pts b/c no active metabolites?

A

renal

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27
Q

other names for fentanyl

A

sublimaze

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28
Q

fentanyl vial

A

250mcg/5 mL

100 mcg/2mL

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29
Q

fentanyl class

A

phenylpiperdine-derivative synthetic opioid agonist

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30
Q

when do you reduce fentanyl?

A

elderly, hypovolemic, high-risk surgical pts, contaminant use of sedatives

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31
Q

does fentanyl cross placenta?

A

yes

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32
Q

Fentanyl w/ head injury causes what?

A

6-9 mmHg increase in ICP

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33
Q

low dose fentanyl

A

1-2 mcg/kg IV

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34
Q

large dose for surgical anesthesia of fentanyl

A

50-150 mcg/kg

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35
Q

fentanyl dose for induction

A

1.5-3 mcg/kg IV

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36
Q

intrathecal max dose of fentanyl

A

25 mcg

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37
Q

oral transmucosal fentanyl dose

A

5-20 mcg

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38
Q

transdermal dose of fentanyl

A

75-100 mcg

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39
Q

Dr. Hammon’s IVP of fentanyl

A

50-100 mcg

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40
Q

fentanyl routes

A
IV
intrathecal
transmucosal
transdermal
epidural
nasal
subaracnoid
IM
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41
Q

fentanyl MOA

A

binds to Mu receptor (1&2), then couples to G proteins, causing membrane hyperpolarization.

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42
Q

How are opioid effects mediated w/ fentanyl?

A

by inhibtion of adenylyl cyclase (reductions in intracellular cAMP concentrations) and activation of phospholipase C
inhibit Ca channels

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43
Q

opioids blunt ____

A

SNS

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44
Q

how is fentanyl cleared?

A

dependent upon hepatic blood flow

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45
Q

how is fentanyl metabolzied?

A

by n-demethylation to inactive metabolites

and P450

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46
Q

how is fentanyl excreted?

A

kidneys

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47
Q

onset of fent

A

2-5 min

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48
Q

peak of fent

A

20-30 min or 3.5 min???

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49
Q

doa fent

A

30-60 min

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50
Q

IM fent onset

A

7-15. min

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51
Q

IM fent peak

A

20-30 min

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52
Q

doa IM fent

A

1-2 hr

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53
Q

transmucosal fent onset

A

5-15 m

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54
Q

peak transmucousal fent

A

20-30 m

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55
Q

fent epidural onset

A

20-30 m

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56
Q

doa epidural fent

A

2-3 hr

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57
Q

transdermal fent peak

A

18 hr

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58
Q

how much more potent is fentanyl than morphine?

A

75-125 x

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59
Q

even w/ large amount of opioids, some ___ must be added to anesthetic to prevent movement

A

hyponotic

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60
Q

how much fent undergoes 1st pass pulm intake?

A

75%

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61
Q

fentanyl is avidly taken up by what in the body?

A

fat

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62
Q

other name for propofol?

A

diprivan

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63
Q

prop vial

A

200 mg/20 mL

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64
Q

prop class

A

sedative hypnotic

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65
Q

caution w/ generic formula of prop in what pts?

A

asthmatic (b/c can cause bronchoconstriction)

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66
Q

mixing what 2 drugs increases PE risk?

A

lidocaine + prop

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67
Q

adult induction dose of propofol

A

1.5-2.5 MG/kg

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68
Q

adult maintenance dose of prop

A

100-300 mcg/kg/m

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69
Q

peds prop dose

A

2.5-3.5 MG/kg

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70
Q

why is a large dose of propofol required for peds pt?

A

larger central distribution volume and clearance rate

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71
Q

prop route

A

IV

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72
Q

prop moa

A

GABA agonist causes pre and post synaptic inhibition of Cl- channels, leads to increased duration of Cl- channel opening

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73
Q

prop protein bound %?

A

98% HIGH

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74
Q

how is prop metabolized?

A

hpeatic P450

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75
Q

how is prop excreted?

A

renal

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76
Q

prop: clearance from plasma ___ hepatic blood flow

A

>

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77
Q

elimination 1/2 T of prop

A

0.5-1.5 hr

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78
Q

do you have imparied elimnation of prop with renal disease?with liver disease?

A

no and no

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79
Q

prop onset

A

<1 min

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80
Q

prop peak

A

2.2 m

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81
Q

prop doa

A

15-45 min

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82
Q

awakening with prop

A

5-15 min

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83
Q

prop has what characteristics?

A

anticonvulsant

amnestic

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84
Q

decrease prop dose by what w/ elderly?

A

25-50%

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85
Q

what patients require decreased prop dose?

A

elderly

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86
Q

why do elderly pts require decreased prop dose?

A

decreased plasma clearance

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87
Q

what type of effect does prop have on smooth muscle?

A

relaxant

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88
Q

b/c of the relaxant effect of prop, it is good for what pts?

A

COPD

PHTN

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89
Q
prop cv effects:
\_\_\_ BP
\_\_\_ HR
\_\_\_ SVR
\_\_\_\_ CO
A

↓ BP
↓HR
↓SVR
↓CO

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90
Q

propofol can cause what respiratory effect?

A

resp depression

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91
Q

prop head effects
___ CBF
____ CMRO2
____ ICP

A

lowers all

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92
Q

propofol can cause what in peds?

A

propofol infusion sydnrome

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93
Q

propofol infusion syndrome presents as ___ in peds?

A

unexpected tachycardia

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94
Q

Propofol infusion syndrome is assoicated w/ what metabolic disorder?

A

lactic acidosis

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95
Q

propofol infusion syndrome is associated w/ fatal ___ in peds

A

bradycardia

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96
Q

other name for Roc

A

zumuron

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97
Q

Roc class

A

ND NMBD

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98
Q

Roc is what type of NMBD

A

steroidal

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99
Q

roc is ____ acting

A

intermediate

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100
Q

what percent of dose of Roc do you give for defasiculating doese?

A

10%

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101
Q

adult induction dose of roc

A

0.6-1.2 MG/kg

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102
Q

peds induction dose of roc

A

0.6-1.2 MG/kg

103
Q

adult maintenance of roc

A

0.1-0.2 MG/kg

104
Q

child maintenance of roc

A

0.08-0.12 mg/kg

105
Q

roc route

A

IV

106
Q

ROC moa

A

ND NMBD that acts as competitive antagonist that binds to the alpha subunits of nicotinic Ach receptors at postsynpatic membrane

107
Q

roc elimination/excretion

A

liver/bile

108
Q

is roc excreted at all in urine?

A

yes, 30%

109
Q

onset of Roc

A

60-90 sec

110
Q

peak of Roc

A

1-3 min

111
Q

doa of roc

A

30-120 m

112
Q

what prolongs Roc effect?

A

hepatic and renal disease

elderly

113
Q

does roc release histamine?

A

no

114
Q

other names for Succ

A

anectine

quelicin

115
Q

succ vial

A

20 mg/mL

116
Q

succ class

A

DEPOLARIZING(!!!) NMBD

117
Q

what is suxx made up of?

A

2 Ach bound together

118
Q

Suxx doa is classified as short, intermediate, or long?

A

short

119
Q

avoid suxx in what pts?

A
hyperkalemia
burns
neuro injury
acute glaucoma
severe sepsis
prolonged immobilization
MH
duchenne
muscular dystrophy
120
Q

What 2 things does sux increase?

A

ICP

IOP

121
Q

Age cut off for Sux

A

8 years

122
Q

induction dose of sux

A

1 MG/kg

1-1.5

123
Q

peds sux induction dose IV

A

1-2 MG/kg

124
Q

peds sux induction dose IM

A

2-4 MG/kg

125
Q

what is a sux dart?

A

1 mL atropine

2mL Sux

126
Q

Time period in which sux can be given?

A

MUST WAIT 5 MINTUES BEFORE REPEAT dose

127
Q

If you give Sux <5 minutes after previous dose, what happens?

A

profound bradycardia and asystole

128
Q

how do you treat sux induced bradycardia?

A

0.4-0.6 MG atropine

129
Q

Sux route

A

IV

IM

130
Q

SUx moa

A

depolarizes endplate region that desensitized nicotinic Ach receptors; inactives Na channels at NMJ, and increases K+ permeability

131
Q

how is Suxx eliminated?

A

plasma cholinesterase through hydrolysis

132
Q

Sux half life

A

47 seconds

133
Q

onset sux

A

30-60 sec

134
Q

peak sux

A

60 sec

135
Q

doa sux

A

5-15 m

136
Q

sux has what effect on which electrolyte?

A

increase K by 0.5

137
Q

Sux can produce what common s/e?

A

muscle fasciculations

138
Q

Sux w/ young kids can cause what?

A

CA

139
Q

other names for morphine?

A

MS contin
Duramorph
Astramorph

140
Q

morphine class

A

opioid

141
Q

morphine cuastions:

A

elderly
hypovolemic
high-risk surgery

142
Q

Can morphine cross placenta?

A

yes

143
Q

morhpine IV dose

A

2.5-15 mg

144
Q

morphine IM dose

A

2.5-20 mg

145
Q

morphine PO dose

A

15-30 mg Q4H

146
Q

Morphine rectal dose

A

5-20 mg Q4H

147
Q

morhpine induction dose

A

1 MG/kg

148
Q

morphine epidural bolus

A

2-5 MG

149
Q

morphine epidural infusion

A

0.1-1 MG/hr

150
Q

morphine spinal dose

A

0.2-1 MG

151
Q

morphine peds IV dose

A

0.05-0.2 MG/kg

152
Q

morphine peds IM dose

A

0.1-0.2 MG/kg

153
Q

morhpine route

A
IM
SQ
IV
PO
inhaled
epidural
spinal
154
Q

morphine moa

A

binds to Mu and acts as agonist; increases threshold to pain and modifies the perception of noxious stimuli

155
Q

morhpine metabolism

A

conjugation with glucuronic acid in hepatic/extrahepatic sites, esp. kidneys

156
Q

morphine excretion

A

urine (10% bile)

157
Q

morphine IM onset

A

15-30m

158
Q

morphine IV onset

A

immediate

159
Q

morphine PO onset

A

<60 m

160
Q

morphine epidural/spinal onset

A

1-60 m

161
Q

morphine IM peak

A

45-90 m

162
Q

morphine IV peak

A

15-30 m (or 90 m ??)

163
Q

morphine epidural/spinal doa

A

24 hr

164
Q

morphine IV/IM/SQ doa

A

2-7 hr

165
Q

what increases the nonionized fraction of morphine?

A

hyperventilation and alkalinization of blood

166
Q

CNS/CV depressant effects of morphine are potentiated by what?

A
alcohol
sedatives
antihistamines
phenothiazines
MOAIs
TCA
167
Q

morphine releases what?

A

histamine

168
Q

morphine reversal

A

naloxone

169
Q

other name for Vec

A

norcuron

170
Q

how do you prepare Vec?

A

reconstitute

171
Q

Vec vial

A

10 or 20 mg

172
Q

Vec class

A

ND NMBD

173
Q

avoid Vec in what pts?

A

hepatic failure

174
Q

Vec adult induction dose

A

0.1 MG/kg

175
Q

Vec adult mainteance dose

A

0.8-1 mcg/kg/min

176
Q

Vec neonate dose

A

47 mcg/kg

177
Q

Vec infant dose

A

42-47 mcg/kg

178
Q

Vec child dose

A

56-80 mcg/kg

179
Q

Vec routes

A

IV

180
Q

Vec MOA

A

comeptes w/ Ach for cholinergic receptor sites and binds w/ the nicotinc cholinergic receptor at postjunctional membrane

181
Q

Vec excretion/metabolism?

A

renal and hepatic

182
Q

Vec onset

A

1-3 m

183
Q

Vec peak

A

2.4 m

184
Q

Vec doa

A

30-60 m

185
Q

Cisatracurium names

A

Nimbex

186
Q

Cisatracurium vials

A

10 mg/5mL
20 mg/10 mL
200 mg/20 mL

187
Q

What type of NMBD is Cisatracurium?

A

benzyl

188
Q

Cisatracurium class

A

ND NMBD

189
Q

which one is. more potent atracurium or cisatracurium?

A

cisatracurium

190
Q

how much more potent is cisatracurium than atracurium?

A

4-5x

191
Q

how is cisatracurium cleared?

A

hoffmans mostly

192
Q

caution w/ cisatracurium in what pts?

A

NM diseases, MG, myasthenic syndrome, GB

193
Q

nimbex dose for paralysis

A

0.05 MG/kg (50 mcg/kg)

194
Q

nimbex intubating dose

A

0.1 MG/kg

195
Q

infant nimbex dose

A

43 mcg/kg

196
Q

child nimbex dose

A

41 mcg/kg

197
Q

nimbex routes

A

IV

198
Q

nimbex MOA

A

binds to nicotinic cholinergic receptor at muscle motor end plate; competitive antagonist for ach

199
Q

how is nimbex eliminated?

A

hofmanns and nonspecific esterase hydrolysis

200
Q

does nimbex release histamine

A

NO

201
Q

pros to nimbex and atricurium elimination

A

non-organ dependent which is good for hepatic and renal disease

202
Q

nimbex onset

A

2-4 m

203
Q

onset of nimbex is faster in what pt population?

A

infates and kids

204
Q

nimbex peak

A

3.1 min

205
Q

nimbex doa

A

30-60 m

206
Q

nimbex is classifed as a short, intermediate, or long acting NMBD?

A

intermediate

207
Q

what NMBD is gent of choice in pts with renal and liver disease?

A

Nimbex/cisatracurium

208
Q

what are advantages of Nimbex use?

A

CV stability
non-organ dependent elimination
lack of histamine release

209
Q

Nimbex use in the elderly?

A

doa is not affected, making it the most predictable for elderly

210
Q

Can Suggamadex reverse nimbex?

A

no

211
Q

Can suggamadex reverse Roc?

A

yes

212
Q

Does nimbex trigger MH?

A

no

213
Q

what is lidocaines class?

A

amide LA

Class 1B antiarrhythmic

214
Q

lidociane is IC w/ what?

A

sinus brady
hypokalemia
severe CKD
heart block

215
Q

Caution w/ Lidocaine when?

A

liver dysfunction

216
Q

Initial administration of Lidociane

A

2 MG/kg IV

217
Q

continuous infusion of Lidocaine

A

1-4 MG/min

218
Q

Lidcaoine routes

A
topical
SQ
IV
PNB
epidural
spinal
219
Q

Lidocaine MOA

A

block Na ion current, reduce excitablity of NEURONAL, CARDIAC, and CNS tissue

220
Q

where is lidocaine metabolised

A

liver

221
Q

Is lidocaine excreted renally?

A

no ??? <5%

222
Q

lidocaine onset

A

45-90 sec

223
Q

lidocaine peak

A

10-20 m

224
Q

lidocaine peak for infiltration

A

30 m

225
Q

lidocaine peak epidural

A

1-2 m

226
Q

lidocaine doa

A

30 m - 4 hr

227
Q

what does lidocaine prevent during induction?

A

laryngeal spasm and gag reflex

228
Q

Why is lidocaine used during induction?

A

blunts gag reflex
prevents laryngreal spasm
decreases prop’s burn

229
Q

what patient population has an increased sensitivity to lidocaine?

A

Pregnant

230
Q

When is elimination 1/2 T of Liodciane increased?

A

liver dysfunction

231
Q

Liver dysfunction can increase 1/2T of Lidocaine by what amount?

A

5x

232
Q

Lidocaine has ________ properties.

A

intrinsic vasodilator

233
Q

other name for etomidate

A

amidate

234
Q

etomidate class

A

sedative/hypnotic

235
Q

caution etomidate

A

history of seizures and/or focal epilepsy

236
Q

What might induce cardiac depression in elderly pt w/ hypotensino?

A

etomidate

237
Q

Etomidate suppresses what?

A

adrenocortical

238
Q

How does etomidate cause adrenocorticol suppression?

A

produces a dose-dependent inhibition of cholesterol to cortisol

239
Q

Avoid etomidate in what pts?

A

sepsis
hemorrhage
or any who require intact cortisol resposne

240
Q

etomidate dose

A

0.2-0.4 MG/kg IV

241
Q

etomidate routes

A

iV

242
Q

where does the anesthetic effect of etomidate come from?

A

R (+) isomer

243
Q

etomidate - which isomer is more potent?

A

R (+)

244
Q

how much more potent is the R isomer of etomidate than the S?

A

5x

245
Q

Etomidate moa

A

relatively selective GABA modulator; site of action is GABAa

246
Q

etomidates gaba effects are where?

A

gaba A

247
Q

how is etomidate metaolibzed?

A

ester hydrolysis in the liver and plasma

248
Q

what is etomidate metabolized into?

A

inactive carboxylic acid metabolites

249
Q

etomidate onset

A

30 sec

250
Q

etomidate peak

A

1 m

251
Q

etomidate doa

A

5-15 m

252
Q

etomidate cerebral effects?

A

direct cerebral vasoconstrictor

253
Q

Etomidate:

____ CBF and CMRO2

A

decresaes by 35-45%

254
Q

Etomidate produces what on an EEG?

A

pattern of excitatory spikes