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PHA6114 > [PHA6114 lec] Immunology > Flashcards

[PHA6114 lec] Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Immunology is derived from the Latin word ________ which means ________

A

Immunis, exempt

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2
Q

It is the study of a host’s reactions when foreign substances are introduced to the body

A

Immunology

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3
Q

Foreign substances that induce a host response are called ________

A

Antigens

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4
Q

The first recorded attempts to deliberately induce immunity dates back to the _________ from the _________when they _________

A

1500s, Chinese, inhaled powder made from smallpox scabs

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5
Q

In the late ________, an English Doctor by the name of ________, was able to successfully prevent infection with _________ by injecting _________ from a disease affecting cows

A

1700s, Edward Jenner, smallpox, cowpox

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6
Q

Jenner coined the term ‘vaccination’ which was derived from the Latin word _______, meaning ________

A

Vacca, cow

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7
Q

Father of Immunology

A

Louis Pasteur

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8
Q

He observed by chance that older bacterial cultures would not cause disease in chickens.

A

Louis Pasteur

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9
Q

This means to make a pathogen less virulent

A

Attenuation or change

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10
Q

How does attenuation take place?

A

Heat, aging, or chemical means

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11
Q

It remains the basis for many of the immunizations that are used today.

A

Attenuation

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12
Q

It refers to the processes that occur to defend the body against foreign organisms or molecules

A

Immunity

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13
Q

Immunity encompasses the following:

A

a. Inflammation
b. Complement activation
c. Phagocytosis
d. Antibody synthesis
e. Effector T lymphocytes

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14
Q

Two types of Immunity

A

a. Innate (nonspecific or natural)
b. Adaptive (specific or acquired)

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15
Q

Type of immunity wherein an individual is born with it and does not need prior exposure.

A

Innate Immunity

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16
Q

T or F: Effectiveness of the immune response varies with age

A

True

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17
Q

What are the first line of defense in Innate Immunity?

A
  1. Physical barriers (e.g., skin)
  2. Chemicals secreted by cells and tissues
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18
Q

What are the second line of defense in Innate Immunity?

A
  1. Phagocytosis
  2. Inflammation - including chemical release, cellular movement, elimination of foreign material, and tissue repair
  3. Complement system - enhances phagocytosis, stimulates inflammatory response, and lyses foreign cells
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19
Q

Type of Immunity that is acquired only after a specific challenge is encountered and responds specifically to the challenge

A

Adaptive Immunity

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20
Q

2 responses under Adaptive Immunity

A
  1. Humoral-mediated Immunity
  2. Cell-mediated Immunity
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21
Q

Adaptive Immunity: It is more important in protection against extracellular pathogens

A

Humoral-mediated Immunity (HMI)

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22
Q

Adaptive Immunity: It is more important in protection against intracellular pathogens

A

Cell-mediated Immunity (CMI)

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23
Q

Adaptive Immunity: Plasma cells produces antibodies

A

Humoral-mediated Immunity (HMI)

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24
Q

Active Immunity

A
  1. Natural: Host is exposed to foreign immunogen as a result of infection, and the host’s immune cells manufacture specific products to eliminate foreign immunogen
  2. Artificial: Vaccination, Immune system responds to an altered (non-infectious organism)
  3. Active Immunity generally endures for life
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25
Q

Passive Immunity

A
  1. Natural: Maternal antibody crosses placenta to protect infant
  2. Artificial: Immune products from another animal injected into the host (e.g., pooled gamma-globulin)
  3. Passive immunity short term; no memory cells produced
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26
Q

Substance capable of inducing an immune response

A

Immunogen

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27
Q

Substance that specifically interacts with cells or substances of the immune system

A

Antigen

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28
Q

T or F: Immunogens are also antigens, therefore all antigens produce an immune response

A

False, not all antigens produce an immune response

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29
Q

Portion of molecule that binds to an antibody or T cell receptor

A

Epitope

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30
Q

[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
Must be recognized by the body as “nonself”

A

Foreignness

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31
Q

[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
Size

A

> 10 kilodaltons

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32
Q

[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
__________ and __________ are the most immunogenic while _________ and _________ are weakly immunogenic

A

Proteins and carbohydrates, Lipids and Nucleic Acids

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33
Q

[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
The more complex a molecule, the more immunogenic it becomes

A

Complexity

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34
Q

[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
This also determines immunogenicity

A

Route of entry into the host

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35
Q

[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
This affects immunogenicity

A

Dose of immunogen

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36
Q

[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
Immunogen needs to be degraded and presented to cells of the immune system

A

Degradability

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37
Q

Compound that enhances an immune response

A

Adjuvant

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38
Q

T or F: Adjuvants are not immunogenic and cannot induce an antibody response alone

A

True

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39
Q

Protein that binds to antigens

A

Antibody (Immunoglobin or Gammaglobulin)

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40
Q

What are the 5 classes of Antibodies?

A

IgG, IgM, IgE, IgA, and IgD

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41
Q

Where does antibodies primarily migrate during protein electrophoresis?

A

Beta and gamma regions

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42
Q

Predominant serum antibody that is approx. 75% in the blood

A

IgG

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43
Q

It is the only immunoglobin that crosses the placenta

A

IgG

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44
Q

Produced in secondary antibody response

A

IgG

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45
Q

Activates the classical complement pathway

A

IgG

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46
Q

10% of total serum immunoglobins

A

IgM

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47
Q

First antibody produced against an immunogen

A

IgM

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48
Q

Produced in both primary and secondary antibody responses

A

IgM

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49
Q

Best activator of the classical pathway of complement

A

IgM

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50
Q

Accounts for 15-20% of total serum antibody

A

IgA

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51
Q

Serum and secretory forms

A

IgA

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52
Q

What are the functions of serum IgA?

A

Antigen clearance and immune regulation

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53
Q

What are the functions of IgA in mucous membranes?

A

Block attachment of viruses, bacteria, and toxins to host cells

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54
Q

Primarily a cell membrane surface component of B lymphocytes

A

IgD

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55
Q

Responsible for allergic (type i hypersensitivity) reactions

A

IgE

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56
Q

Binds to receptors on mast cells and basophils

A

IgE

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57
Q

Once attached, IgE binding an allergen triggers ________ and _________

A

Degranulation of the cell, Release of allergic mediators

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58
Q

During parasitic infections, IgE concentrations are _________?

A

Elevated

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59
Q

Cells that are responsible for nonspecific response of the immunity system

A

Monocytes and macrophages, granulocytes, lymphocytes

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60
Q

Where are monocytes produced? Where do they reside?

A

Bone marrow, blood stream

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61
Q

When do monocytes become macrophages?

A

When they circulate outside the blood vessel

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62
Q

The main task of this cell is to eliminate foreign substances from outside

A

WBC or Neutrophils

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63
Q

Type of WBC that is said to comprise a small percent of all WBC

A

Eosinophils

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64
Q

T or F: Eosinophils multiply during allergic reactions or parasitic infections

A

True

65
Q

T or F: Eosinophils are weak, therefore they are not capable of phagocytosis

A

False, they are capable even though they are weak

66
Q

Type of WBC that comprises less than 1% of all WBC

A

Basophils

67
Q

Type of WBC that releases histamine and the like to trigger an allergic reaction

A

Basophils

68
Q

T or F: Basophils creates a substance that draws both Neutrophils and Eosinophils to the affected area

A

True

69
Q

AKA Antibody-producing Cell

A

B Lymphocyte / Cell

70
Q

A type of lymphocyte that fights antigens such as bacteria and viruses by producing weapons called antibodies

A

B Lymphocyte / Cell

71
Q

An immature T Cell which has never encountered an antigen

A

Naive T Cell

72
Q

Serves as commanders who formulate appropriate attack strategies, and they issue orders to Killer T Cells

A

Helper T Cells

73
Q

Mobilize under orders from the Helper T Cells which kills virus-infected cells, cancer cells and the like

A

Cytotoxic T Cells

74
Q

Patrols the entire body on the hunt for cancerous or virus-infected cells to attack

A

NK Cell (Natural Killer Cell)

75
Q

In the peripheral blood, this cell is a ________

A

Monocyte

76
Q

In the tissue, it is a __________

A

Macrophage - includes alveolar macrophage, Kupffer cells (liver), and astrocytes and microglia cells (nervous system)

77
Q

Functions of Monocytes and Macrophages

A
  1. Phagocytosis of invaders
  2. Present immunogens to T helper cells - 1st step in immune response
  3. Release cytokines (monokines) that affect other cells’ activities
78
Q

[Granulocytes]
60-70% of WBCs in circulation and functions in phagocytosis and contributes to inflammatory response

A

Neutrophils (Polymorphonuclear cells or PMNs)

79
Q

[Granulocytes]
1-3% of circulating WBCs and mediates IgE allergic response

A

Eosinophils

80
Q

[Granulocytes]
0-1% of circulating WBCs and has receptors for IgE and granules responsible for allergic reactions

A

Basophils

81
Q

Consists 20-40% of circulating WBCs

A

Lymphocytes

82
Q

3 types of Lymphocytes

A
  1. B lymphocytes (B cell)
  2. T lymphocytes (T cell)
  3. Natural killer cells (NK cells)
83
Q

20% of circulating lymphocytes

A

B lymphocytes

84
Q

Express surface molecules such as CD19 and CD20

A

B lymphocytes

85
Q

Where does B lymphocytes mature?

A

In the bone marrow

86
Q

80% of circulating lymphocytes

A

T lymphocytes

87
Q

Where does T lymphocytes mature?

A

In the thymus

88
Q

CD4+ are also known as

A

T helper cells

89
Q

CD8+ are also known as

A

T suppressor cells

90
Q

What are the roles of T lymphocytes?

A

Stimulate or suppress other cells

91
Q

Lack markers found on T and B Cells

A

Null Lymphocytes or NK Cells

92
Q

Slightly larger than T or B cells and have cytoplasmic granules

A

Null Lymphocytes or NK Cells

93
Q

Kills viruses and tumor cells

A

Null Lymphocytes or NK Cells

94
Q

[Other cells]
Presents antigen to T cells and notify other immune system cells

A

Dendritic cells

95
Q

[Other cells]
Dendritic cell found in the dermis and squamous epithelia

A

Langerhans cells

96
Q

[Other cells]
Granulocyte resembling basophil that contains many chemicals (e.g., histamines, leukotrienes) that affect the immune response

A

Mast cell

97
Q

Organs and Tissues of the Immune Cells

A

Primary and Secondary Lymphoid Organs

98
Q

[Primary Lymphoid Organs]
Where Pre-B Lymphocytes develop into mature B cells

A

Bone marrow

99
Q

[Primary Lymphoid Organs]
Where Pre-T Lymphocytes develop into mature T cells

A

Thymus

100
Q

[Secondary Lymphoid Organs]
B cells migrate to the cortex and T cells to the paracortex

A

Lymph nodes

101
Q

[Secondary Lymphoid Organs]
Filters blood

A

Spleen

102
Q

[Secondary Lymphoid Organs]
Found in the submucosa in the GIT, RIT, and UGT and interacts with the environment and can begin the immune response early

A

Mucosal-associated lymphoid Tissue

103
Q

Specialized MALT found in the lower ileum

A

Peyer’s patch

104
Q

Overreactive immune response to innocuous substances on re-exposure that can result in tissue damage

A

Hypersensivity

105
Q

T or F: Hypersensitivity involves humoral- and cell-mediated responses

A

True

106
Q

Molecule that triggers a hypersensitivity reaction

A

Allergens

107
Q

AKA Type I hypersensitivity Reaction

A

Anaphylactic

108
Q

Classified as an immediate hypersensitivity reaction because it occurs within minutes after re-exposure to an allergen

A

Type I Hypersensitivity

109
Q

T or F: After the primary exposure, basophils and mast cells are sensitized with IgE

A

True

110
Q

T or F: Upon second exposure, IgE binds to a specific allergen and chemical mediators are released from those cells (degranulation) which causes allergic symptoms

A

True

111
Q

How can individuals get Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction?

A

Exposure to allergens through upper respiratory tract, absorption from the intestinal tract, and direct skin contact

112
Q

T or F: Eosinophil levels in blood stream and nasal secretions may not be elevated, and IgE may be normal or elevated

A

False, they may be elevated

113
Q

Give common symptoms of Type I Hypersensitivity

A

N&V, cramps, abdominal pain, and diarrhea within 2 hours

114
Q

Systemic form of Type I Hypersensitivity that can be life-threatening, can cause shock or edema of the upper respiratory tact

A

Anaphylaxis

115
Q

Substances that can trigger anaphylaxis

A

Peanuts, seafood, egg albumin, honeybee, wasp or hornet strings, vaccines, penicillin, or sulfonamides

116
Q

Causes contraction of bronchioles and smooth muscle of blood vessel, increase capillary permeability, increases mucus secretion in the airway

A

Histamine

117
Q

Causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

A

Prostaglandins

118
Q

Causes erythema and wheal formation; 30-1000x the ability of histamine to cause bronchospasms and also stimulate mucus secretion in the airways

A

Leukotrienes

119
Q

Treatment of Anaphylaxis

A
  1. Allergen avoidance and drug therapy
  2. Immunotherapy (hyposensitization)
120
Q

Due to IgG or IgM antibodies directed against cell surface antigens

A

Type II Hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic)

121
Q

Incompatible blood transfusions are examples of this type of hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type II Hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic)

122
Q

Damage to sensitized tissue cells causes inflammation which in turn, causes damage to normal tissue cells

A

Type II Hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic)

123
Q

Immune complexes are deposited on tissues, causing inflammation

A

Type III Hypersensitivity (Immune complex)

124
Q

Two sites where immune complexes are often deposited

A

Heart valves and renal glomeruli

125
Q

An allergen is injected intradermally

A

Arthus reaction

126
Q

Patients develop antibodies against heterologous serum proteins

A

Immune complex disorders (serum sickness)

127
Q

Immune complexes are deposited on renal glomeruli causing inflammation of the kidney and possibly renal failure

A

Glomerulonephritis

128
Q

Inflammation of the blood vessel walls

A

Vasculitis

129
Q

Reactions are caused by soluble factors or lymphokines released by T cells; antibody and complement are not involved in this reaction

A

Type IV Hypersensitivity (Cell-Mediated, Delayed)

130
Q

Recruitment and activation of cells takes how many hours and is referred to as ______?

A

24-72 hours, delayed hypersensitivity

131
Q

Types of Type IV Hypersensitivity

A
  1. Tuberculin-type
  2. Contact sensitivity (dermatitis)
132
Q

[Transplant Immunology]
Transfer of tissue from one site to another within an individual

A

Autograft

133
Q

[Transplant Immunology]
Transfer of tissue between genetically identical individuals

A

Isograft (syngraft)

134
Q

[Transplant Immunology]
Transfer of tissue between two genetically non-identical individuals of the same species

A

Allograft

135
Q

[Transplant Immunology]
Transfer of tissue between two individuals of different species

A

Xenograft

136
Q

[Transplant Immunology]
When does graft acceptance occur?

A

Revascularization and healing lead to repair-site in about 2 weeks

137
Q

[Transplant Immunology]
2 Types of Graft Rejection

A
  1. First-set –> immune system attacks and ultimately destroys the non-self tissue
  2. Second-set –> same or similar antigens encountered
138
Q

T or F: Hyperacute rejection occurs within 48 hours of transplantation

A

False, 24 hours only

139
Q

T or F: Acute rejection occurs within months of transplantation

A

False, weeks only

140
Q

T or F: Chronic rejection occurs within weeks of transplantation

A

False, should be months

141
Q

[Tumor Immunology]
Abnormal mass of tissue that results from the uncontrolled growth of normal cells even after the growth stimulus is removed

A

Neoplasm

142
Q

[Tumor Immunology]
Typically a mild and non-progressive tumor that pushes aside normal tissue, but does not invade it as the tumor expands

A

Benign Tumor

143
Q

[Tumor Immunology]
Generally consisting of poorly differentiated cells that grow rapidly and invade surrounding tissue, robbing the normal tissue of nutrients

A

Malignant Tumor

144
Q

[Tumor Immunology]
Secondary tumor derived from a malignant primary tumor

A

Metastatic Tumor

145
Q

Glycoproteins found in small amounts in normal serum but elevated in certain types of cancers

A

Tumor Markers

146
Q

Can be used to screen cancer but more commonly to monitor therapeutic response or determine tumor burden

A

Tumor Markers

147
Q

Used in the management of GIT Tumors and adrenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, liver, and lung

A

Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)

148
Q

Can also be found in inflammatory bowel disease, ulcerative colitis, Crohn disease, cigarette smokes etc.

A

Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)

149
Q

When is Alpha-Fetoprotein produced?

A

During embryonic and fetal development

150
Q

T or F: AFP levels are high in patients with hepatocellular carcinoma, hepatoblastoma, and testicular and ovarian cancer

A

True

151
Q

T or F: Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) is composed of 3 subunits

A

False, 2 only (alpha and beta)

152
Q

T or F: HCG can be found in serum and urine during pregnancy

A

True

153
Q

T or F: HCG may be produced by neoplastic cells of testicular cancer and various other tumors

A

True

154
Q

Glycoprotein that dissolves seminal gel formed after ejaculation

A

Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)

155
Q

T or F: A normal prostate tissue does not contain PSA and is present in extremely high amounts of blood

A

False, contains PSA and present in extremely low amounts of blood

156
Q

T or F: PSA is increased in prostate cancer, benign prostatic hypertrophy, and acute or chronic prostatitis

A

True

157
Q

T or F: PSA levels correlate with prostate size, stage of prostate cancer, and response to treatment

A

True

158
Q

Other tumor markers

A
  1. Calcitonin - familial medullary thyroid carcinoma
  2. CA 15-3 - breast cancer
  3. Estrogen/Progesterone receptor (ER/PR) - breast cancer
  4. Human epidermal growth factor receptor (HER2) - breast cancer
  5. CA 19-9 - pancreatic cancer
  6. CA 125 - ovarian adenocarcinoma

PHA6114 (6 decks)

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