[PHA6114 lec] Immunology Flashcards
1
Q
Immunology is derived from the Latin word ________ which means ________
A
Immunis, exempt
2
Q
It is the study of a host’s reactions when foreign substances are introduced to the body
A
Immunology
3
Q
Foreign substances that induce a host response are called ________
A
Antigens
4
Q
The first recorded attempts to deliberately induce immunity dates back to the _________ from the _________when they _________
A
1500s, Chinese, inhaled powder made from smallpox scabs
5
Q
In the late ________, an English Doctor by the name of ________, was able to successfully prevent infection with _________ by injecting _________ from a disease affecting cows
A
1700s, Edward Jenner, smallpox, cowpox
6
Q
Jenner coined the term ‘vaccination’ which was derived from the Latin word _______, meaning ________
A
Vacca, cow
7
Q
Father of Immunology
A
Louis Pasteur
8
Q
He observed by chance that older bacterial cultures would not cause disease in chickens.
A
Louis Pasteur
9
Q
This means to make a pathogen less virulent
A
Attenuation or change
10
Q
How does attenuation take place?
A
Heat, aging, or chemical means
11
Q
It remains the basis for many of the immunizations that are used today.
A
Attenuation
12
Q
It refers to the processes that occur to defend the body against foreign organisms or molecules
A
Immunity
13
Q
Immunity encompasses the following:
A
a. Inflammation
b. Complement activation
c. Phagocytosis
d. Antibody synthesis
e. Effector T lymphocytes
14
Q
Two types of Immunity
A
a. Innate (nonspecific or natural)
b. Adaptive (specific or acquired)
15
Q
Type of immunity wherein an individual is born with it and does not need prior exposure.
A
Innate Immunity
16
Q
T or F: Effectiveness of the immune response varies with age
A
True
17
Q
What are the first line of defense in Innate Immunity?
A
- Physical barriers (e.g., skin)
- Chemicals secreted by cells and tissues
18
Q
What are the second line of defense in Innate Immunity?
A
- Phagocytosis
- Inflammation - including chemical release, cellular movement, elimination of foreign material, and tissue repair
- Complement system - enhances phagocytosis, stimulates inflammatory response, and lyses foreign cells
19
Q
Type of Immunity that is acquired only after a specific challenge is encountered and responds specifically to the challenge
A
Adaptive Immunity
20
Q
2 responses under Adaptive Immunity
A
- Humoral-mediated Immunity
- Cell-mediated Immunity
21
Q
Adaptive Immunity: It is more important in protection against extracellular pathogens
A
Humoral-mediated Immunity (HMI)
22
Q
Adaptive Immunity: It is more important in protection against intracellular pathogens
A
Cell-mediated Immunity (CMI)
23
Q
Adaptive Immunity: Plasma cells produces antibodies
A
Humoral-mediated Immunity (HMI)
24
Q
Active Immunity
A
- Natural: Host is exposed to foreign immunogen as a result of infection, and the host’s immune cells manufacture specific products to eliminate foreign immunogen
- Artificial: Vaccination, Immune system responds to an altered (non-infectious organism)
- Active Immunity generally endures for life
25
Passive Immunity
1. Natural: Maternal antibody crosses placenta to protect infant
2. Artificial: Immune products from another animal injected into the host (e.g., pooled gamma-globulin)
3. Passive immunity short term; no memory cells produced
26
Substance capable of inducing an immune response
Immunogen
27
Substance that specifically interacts with cells or substances of the immune system
Antigen
28
T or F: Immunogens are also antigens, therefore all antigens produce an immune response
False, not all antigens produce an immune response
29
Portion of molecule that binds to an antibody or T cell receptor
Epitope
30
[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
Must be recognized by the body as "nonself"
Foreignness
31
[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
Size
>10 kilodaltons
32
[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
__________ and __________ are the most immunogenic while _________ and _________ are weakly immunogenic
Proteins and carbohydrates, Lipids and Nucleic Acids
33
[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
The more complex a molecule, the more immunogenic it becomes
Complexity
34
[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
This also determines immunogenicity
Route of entry into the host
35
[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
This affects immunogenicity
Dose of immunogen
36
[Immunogenicity Characteristic]
Immunogen needs to be degraded and presented to cells of the immune system
Degradability
37
Compound that enhances an immune response
Adjuvant
38
T or F: Adjuvants are not immunogenic and cannot induce an antibody response alone
True
39
Protein that binds to antigens
Antibody (Immunoglobin or Gammaglobulin)
40
What are the 5 classes of Antibodies?
IgG, IgM, IgE, IgA, and IgD
41
Where does antibodies primarily migrate during protein electrophoresis?
Beta and gamma regions
42
Predominant serum antibody that is approx. 75% in the blood
IgG
43
It is the only immunoglobin that crosses the placenta
IgG
44
Produced in secondary antibody response
IgG
45
Activates the classical complement pathway
IgG
46
10% of total serum immunoglobins
IgM
47
First antibody produced against an immunogen
IgM
48
Produced in both primary and secondary antibody responses
IgM
49
Best activator of the classical pathway of complement
IgM
50
Accounts for 15-20% of total serum antibody
IgA
51
Serum and secretory forms
IgA
52
What are the functions of serum IgA?
Antigen clearance and immune regulation
53
What are the functions of IgA in mucous membranes?
Block attachment of viruses, bacteria, and toxins to host cells
54
Primarily a cell membrane surface component of B lymphocytes
IgD
55
Responsible for allergic (type i hypersensitivity) reactions
IgE
56
Binds to receptors on mast cells and basophils
IgE
57
Once attached, IgE binding an allergen triggers ________ and _________
Degranulation of the cell, Release of allergic mediators
58
During parasitic infections, IgE concentrations are _________?
Elevated
59
Cells that are responsible for nonspecific response of the immunity system
Monocytes and macrophages, granulocytes, lymphocytes
60
Where are monocytes produced? Where do they reside?
Bone marrow, blood stream
61
When do monocytes become macrophages?
When they circulate outside the blood vessel
62
The main task of this cell is to eliminate foreign substances from outside
WBC or Neutrophils
63
Type of WBC that is said to comprise a small percent of all WBC
Eosinophils
64
T or F: Eosinophils multiply during allergic reactions or parasitic infections
True
65
T or F: Eosinophils are weak, therefore they are not capable of phagocytosis
False, they are capable even though they are weak
66
Type of WBC that comprises less than 1% of all WBC
Basophils
67
Type of WBC that releases histamine and the like to trigger an allergic reaction
Basophils
68
T or F: Basophils creates a substance that draws both Neutrophils and Eosinophils to the affected area
True
69
AKA Antibody-producing Cell
B Lymphocyte / Cell
70
A type of lymphocyte that fights antigens such as bacteria and viruses by producing weapons called antibodies
B Lymphocyte / Cell
71
An immature T Cell which has never encountered an antigen
Naive T Cell
72
Serves as commanders who formulate appropriate attack strategies, and they issue orders to Killer T Cells
Helper T Cells
73
Mobilize under orders from the Helper T Cells which kills virus-infected cells, cancer cells and the like
Cytotoxic T Cells
74
Patrols the entire body on the hunt for cancerous or virus-infected cells to attack
NK Cell (Natural Killer Cell)
75
In the peripheral blood, this cell is a ________
Monocyte
76
In the tissue, it is a __________
Macrophage - includes alveolar macrophage, Kupffer cells (liver), and astrocytes and microglia cells (nervous system)
77
Functions of Monocytes and Macrophages
1. Phagocytosis of invaders
2. Present immunogens to T helper cells - 1st step in immune response
3. Release cytokines (monokines) that affect other cells' activities
78
[Granulocytes]
60-70% of WBCs in circulation and functions in phagocytosis and contributes to inflammatory response
Neutrophils (Polymorphonuclear cells or PMNs)
79
[Granulocytes]
1-3% of circulating WBCs and mediates IgE allergic response
Eosinophils
80
[Granulocytes]
0-1% of circulating WBCs and has receptors for IgE and granules responsible for allergic reactions
Basophils
81
Consists 20-40% of circulating WBCs
Lymphocytes
82
3 types of Lymphocytes
1. B lymphocytes (B cell)
2. T lymphocytes (T cell)
3. Natural killer cells (NK cells)
83
20% of circulating lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
84
Express surface molecules such as CD19 and CD20
B lymphocytes
85
Where does B lymphocytes mature?
In the bone marrow
86
80% of circulating lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
87
Where does T lymphocytes mature?
In the thymus
88
CD4+ are also known as
T helper cells
89
CD8+ are also known as
T suppressor cells
90
What are the roles of T lymphocytes?
Stimulate or suppress other cells
91
Lack markers found on T and B Cells
Null Lymphocytes or NK Cells
92
Slightly larger than T or B cells and have cytoplasmic granules
Null Lymphocytes or NK Cells
93
Kills viruses and tumor cells
Null Lymphocytes or NK Cells
94
[Other cells]
Presents antigen to T cells and notify other immune system cells
Dendritic cells
95
[Other cells]
Dendritic cell found in the dermis and squamous epithelia
Langerhans cells
96
[Other cells]
Granulocyte resembling basophil that contains many chemicals (e.g., histamines, leukotrienes) that affect the immune response
Mast cell
97
Organs and Tissues of the Immune Cells
Primary and Secondary Lymphoid Organs
98
[Primary Lymphoid Organs]
Where Pre-B Lymphocytes develop into mature B cells
Bone marrow
99
[Primary Lymphoid Organs]
Where Pre-T Lymphocytes develop into mature T cells
Thymus
100
[Secondary Lymphoid Organs]
B cells migrate to the cortex and T cells to the paracortex
Lymph nodes
101
[Secondary Lymphoid Organs]
Filters blood
Spleen
102
[Secondary Lymphoid Organs]
Found in the submucosa in the GIT, RIT, and UGT and interacts with the environment and can begin the immune response early
Mucosal-associated lymphoid Tissue
103
Specialized MALT found in the lower ileum
Peyer's patch
104
Overreactive immune response to innocuous substances on re-exposure that can result in tissue damage
Hypersensivity
105
T or F: Hypersensitivity involves humoral- and cell-mediated responses
True
106
Molecule that triggers a hypersensitivity reaction
Allergens
107
AKA Type I hypersensitivity Reaction
Anaphylactic
108
Classified as an immediate hypersensitivity reaction because it occurs within minutes after re-exposure to an allergen
Type I Hypersensitivity
109
T or F: After the primary exposure, basophils and mast cells are sensitized with IgE
True
110
T or F: Upon second exposure, IgE binds to a specific allergen and chemical mediators are released from those cells (degranulation) which causes allergic symptoms
True
111
How can individuals get Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction?
Exposure to allergens through upper respiratory tract, absorption from the intestinal tract, and direct skin contact
112
T or F: Eosinophil levels in blood stream and nasal secretions may not be elevated, and IgE may be normal or elevated
False, they may be elevated
113
Give common symptoms of Type I Hypersensitivity
N&V, cramps, abdominal pain, and diarrhea within 2 hours
114
Systemic form of Type I Hypersensitivity that can be life-threatening, can cause shock or edema of the upper respiratory tact
Anaphylaxis
115
Substances that can trigger anaphylaxis
Peanuts, seafood, egg albumin, honeybee, wasp or hornet strings, vaccines, penicillin, or sulfonamides
116
Causes contraction of bronchioles and smooth muscle of blood vessel, increase capillary permeability, increases mucus secretion in the airway
Histamine
117
Causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Prostaglandins
118
Causes erythema and wheal formation; 30-1000x the ability of histamine to cause bronchospasms and also stimulate mucus secretion in the airways
Leukotrienes
119
Treatment of Anaphylaxis
1. Allergen avoidance and drug therapy
2. Immunotherapy (hyposensitization)
120
Due to IgG or IgM antibodies directed against cell surface antigens
Type II Hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic)
121
Incompatible blood transfusions are examples of this type of hypersensitivity reaction
Type II Hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic)
122
Damage to sensitized tissue cells causes inflammation which in turn, causes damage to normal tissue cells
Type II Hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic)
123
Immune complexes are deposited on tissues, causing inflammation
Type III Hypersensitivity (Immune complex)
124
Two sites where immune complexes are often deposited
Heart valves and renal glomeruli
125
An allergen is injected intradermally
Arthus reaction
126
Patients develop antibodies against heterologous serum proteins
Immune complex disorders (serum sickness)
127
Immune complexes are deposited on renal glomeruli causing inflammation of the kidney and possibly renal failure
Glomerulonephritis
128
Inflammation of the blood vessel walls
Vasculitis
129
Reactions are caused by soluble factors or lymphokines released by T cells; antibody and complement are not involved in this reaction
Type IV Hypersensitivity (Cell-Mediated, Delayed)
130
Recruitment and activation of cells takes how many hours and is referred to as ______?
24-72 hours, delayed hypersensitivity
131
Types of Type IV Hypersensitivity
1. Tuberculin-type
2. Contact sensitivity (dermatitis)
132
[Transplant Immunology]
Transfer of tissue from one site to another within an individual
Autograft
133
[Transplant Immunology]
Transfer of tissue between genetically identical individuals
Isograft (syngraft)
134
[Transplant Immunology]
Transfer of tissue between two genetically non-identical individuals of the same species
Allograft
135
[Transplant Immunology]
Transfer of tissue between two individuals of different species
Xenograft
136
[Transplant Immunology]
When does graft acceptance occur?
Revascularization and healing lead to repair-site in about 2 weeks
137
[Transplant Immunology]
2 Types of Graft Rejection
1. First-set --> immune system attacks and ultimately destroys the non-self tissue
2. Second-set --> same or similar antigens encountered
138
T or F: Hyperacute rejection occurs within 48 hours of transplantation
False, 24 hours only
139
T or F: Acute rejection occurs within months of transplantation
False, weeks only
140
T or F: Chronic rejection occurs within weeks of transplantation
False, should be months
141
[Tumor Immunology]
Abnormal mass of tissue that results from the uncontrolled growth of normal cells even after the growth stimulus is removed
Neoplasm
142
[Tumor Immunology]
Typically a mild and non-progressive tumor that pushes aside normal tissue, but does not invade it as the tumor expands
Benign Tumor
143
[Tumor Immunology]
Generally consisting of poorly differentiated cells that grow rapidly and invade surrounding tissue, robbing the normal tissue of nutrients
Malignant Tumor
144
[Tumor Immunology]
Secondary tumor derived from a malignant primary tumor
Metastatic Tumor
145
Glycoproteins found in small amounts in normal serum but elevated in certain types of cancers
Tumor Markers
146
Can be used to screen cancer but more commonly to monitor therapeutic response or determine tumor burden
Tumor Markers
147
Used in the management of GIT Tumors and adrenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, liver, and lung
Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)
148
Can also be found in inflammatory bowel disease, ulcerative colitis, Crohn disease, cigarette smokes etc.
Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)
149
When is Alpha-Fetoprotein produced?
During embryonic and fetal development
150
T or F: AFP levels are high in patients with hepatocellular carcinoma, hepatoblastoma, and testicular and ovarian cancer
True
151
T or F: Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) is composed of 3 subunits
False, 2 only (alpha and beta)
152
T or F: HCG can be found in serum and urine during pregnancy
True
153
T or F: HCG may be produced by neoplastic cells of testicular cancer and various other tumors
True
154
Glycoprotein that dissolves seminal gel formed after ejaculation
Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)
155
T or F: A normal prostate tissue does not contain PSA and is present in extremely high amounts of blood
False, contains PSA and present in extremely low amounts of blood
156
T or F: PSA is increased in prostate cancer, benign prostatic hypertrophy, and acute or chronic prostatitis
True
157
T or F: PSA levels correlate with prostate size, stage of prostate cancer, and response to treatment
True
158
Other tumor markers
1. Calcitonin - familial medullary thyroid carcinoma
2. CA 15-3 - breast cancer
3. Estrogen/Progesterone receptor (ER/PR) - breast cancer
4. Human epidermal growth factor receptor (HER2) - breast cancer
5. CA 19-9 - pancreatic cancer
6. CA 125 - ovarian adenocarcinoma
