Peri Op Flashcards

1
Q

Specific questions to ask in pre op assessment

A

Complete history and
Previous surgeries (complications and PONV)
CV and resp review

Ask specifically
HYT
Asthma - steroids too for severity
DM - management and co morbidities

Fx - reaction to GA

Smoking/ rec drus/ alc
Will abstinence post op cause issues?

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2
Q

When to stop Clopodigrel

A

7 days

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3
Q

When to stop Aspirin

A

dont

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4
Q

When to stop statin

A

dont

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5
Q

When to stop BBs

A

dont

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6
Q

When to stop oral hypoglycaemics

A

1 days before as nil by mouth

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7
Q

When to stop OCP/HRT

A

4 weeks

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8
Q

When to stop corticosteroids

A

Dont stop - replace 5mg pred with 20mg IV hydrocortisone

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9
Q

When to stop warfarin

A

5 days for AF (unless paroxsymal) no heparin
5 days for PE/ DVT with LMWH cover day before op
5 days for mechanical heart valve with heparin cover- admit 2/3 days before and give IV heparin APTT between 2-3 adn stop 4 hours before. IV more protective than LMWH

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10
Q

When to stop herbal medicines

A

Antiplatelet so 2 weeks

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11
Q

When to stop metformin

A

DO not stop unless using contrast - lactic acidosis. Restart 48-72 hrs if Us &Es ok

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12
Q

When may an ileus occur?

A

0-24 hrs small
24-48hrs stomach
48-72 colon to recover

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13
Q

Who should get LMWH pre proceedure and how much?

A

All over 20 have abdo surgery - not head and neck surgery. 2,500 units deltaparin SC OD.

If not use mechanical instead e.g. stockings

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14
Q

Who should get extra LMWH and how much?

A
Preggers
Amputee
OCP
DVT/ PE past
Obese
Intra-abdominal malignancy

5000 units delta OD IM

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15
Q

What antibiotics prophylaxis can be given and when

A

Bowel surgery =

  • Co amoxiclav (amoxicillin and clavulanic acid)
  • Metronidazole and cefuroxime (second gen ceph)

Surgery that requires antibiotic prophylaxis is:

clean surgery involving the placement of a prosthesis or implant (no mucosa involved)

clean-contaminated surgery

contaminated surgery

surgery on a dirty or infected wound (requires antibiotic treatment in addition to prophylaxis). [NICE clinical guideline 74 recommendations 1.2.11 (key priority for implementation) and 1.2.16]

“Clean — an incision in which no inflammation is encountered in a surgical procedure, without a break in sterile technique, and during which the respiratory, alimentary and genitourinary tracts are not entered.

Clean-contaminated — an incision through which the respiratory, alimentary or genitourinary tract is entered under controlled conditions but with no contamination encountered.

Contaminated — an incision undertaken during an operation in which there is a major break in sterile technique or gross spillage from the gastrointestinal tract, or an incision in which acute, non-purulent inflammation is encountered. Open traumatic wounds that are more than 12–24 hours old also fall into this category.

Dirty or infected — an incision undertaken during an operation in which the viscera are perforated or when acute inflammation with pus is encountered during the operation (for example, emergency surgery for faecal peritonitis), and for traumatic wounds where treatment is delayed, and there is faecal contamination or devitalised tissue present”

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16
Q

Ways to reduce infection risk pre op

A

Preop showering (day before or day of)
Theatre wear
Staff theatre wear
Do not used nasal decontamination for staph aureus routinely
Do not use mechanical bowel prep routinely
Consider Abx - unless tounique often IV on starting anaesthesia

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17
Q

Post op reduction of infection

A

Sterile saline for wound cleansing up to 48hrs - tap water ok after even if still open
After 48hrs fine to shower
Do not use topical antimicrobials
Specialist wound care serivices e.g. no gause for healing with secondary intention

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18
Q

Prophylaxis for surery with RF or prosthetic heart valve

A

• Will depend on nature of procedure
– Laryngeal intubation the problem is strep viridans,
Give amoxicillin.
– If having gastrointestinal, urinary or gynaelogical
procedure add in gentamicin
• Consult BNF for latest advice

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19
Q

Drugs given post proceedure

A

Opiates
NSAIDs
Renal impairment due to fluid and sodium retention
Good for postop analgesia

Stematil (prochlorpermazine
Anti emetic
(similar to chlorpromazine)

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20
Q

What increases post op complications from opiates and treatment?

A

Constipation (give senna)
Resp dep (more with liver and kidney disease due to build up)
Give naloxone

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21
Q

What is Anexate

A

Flumazanil reverses benzos in resp depression

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22
Q

Why might a patient post op become dystonic?

A

Stematil (prochlorpermazine
Anti emetic
Causes acute dystonia (procyclidine IV for treatnment) (similar to chlorpromazine)

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23
Q

Give the adverse effects of pain

A
CVS
					Tachy
					HypertensionIncreased myocardial O2 demand
				Resp
					Decreased vital capacity, Decreased functional capacityDecreased tidal volume
					Chest infections
					Basal atelectasis - alveolar collapse (consolidation is fluid filled)
				GI
					N/V
					Ileus
				Other
					Urinary retention
					DVT
PE
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24
Q

Respiratory early complications

A

Hypoventilation and upperairway obstruction
Oropharyngeal: Decreased muscle tone, secretions, sleep apnea, foreign body, oedema, wound haematoma, neuromuscular disease.
Laryngeal: Laryngospasm (common from tracheal exubation), secretions, oedema, bilateral recurrent palsy, tracheal collapse
Hypoxia
Supply of O2
Hypoventilation: Atelectasis from pain or too much O2 and shrinkage of alveoli
V/Q Matching: pneumonia, PE< HF
Shunt: _
Inadequate delivery - Shock, severe anaemia
Excessive consumption - fever, shivering, hyper metabolic state
Pain
Abnormal utilisation - Cyanide poisoning
Treat cause and with O2, monitor sats
Atelectasis (pain)

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25
Q

Neuro comps early

A

Hypoglycaemia and not waking
Drugs
Diabetic is risk factor for brain injury

	Pain
		Hard to measure
		Bad
		Many dimensions
			Physical
			Functional - agg/ reliev, disab
			Behavioural - rubbing, guarding, grimacing
			Affect - dep
			Cognition - understanding
Confusion/ agitation Hypothermia and shivering
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26
Q

Gi comps middle

A
PONV
	Ileus
		Intra abdominal surgery
Drugs
(Urinary retention)
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27
Q

Factors that increase PONV

A

Patient factors: child, female, anxiety, motion sickness, history
Surgical factors
Gynae, ENT, c(operation to rectus muscle), GI, breast, long duration
Anaesthetic factors
Gases, opioids, pain, dehydration
Adverse effects
Dehydration, oral medication, delayed discharge, aspiration, distress, poor surgical outcome

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28
Q

Management PONV

A
Prevention
			Treat pain
			Hydration
			Anti-emetics
				Ondansetron
				Cyclizine/ Proclorpermazine
Dexamethasone
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29
Q

CVS comps Middle

A
Low BP - drugsw, epidurals, vol loss
	How can you tell if hypertension is due to hypovolaemia?
	Hypertension - Pain, pre op BP
	MI
		Day 3 most common
		Pre op ECG important
		Risk factors
		Prevention
	VTE
DVT/PE
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30
Q

How can VTE be avoided/ treated after surgery

A

Risk assess before

Early mobilization, hydration, pain/vomiting control

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31
Q

Resp middle comps

A

Pneumonia

PE

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32
Q

Late complecations

A
Obstruction
	Adhesion
	Wound break down
	Dehiscence - wound coming apart at surgical incision
Graft failure
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33
Q

Continue antihypertensives before surgery?

A

Yes CCBs and BBs

Not diuretics or ACEi

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34
Q

Give the ASA (American society of anaesthesiologists) grade/status

A

I. A normal healthy patient
II. A patient with mild systemic disease (obesity 30-40)
III. A patient with severe systemic disease
IV. A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
V. A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation.
VI. A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for
donor purposes
The addition of an ‘E’ indicates emergency surgery.

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35
Q

How long for DVT prophylaxis

A

Until discharge

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36
Q

Criteria for nurses to send patient from recovery to ward

A

Fully conscious, able to maintain airway
Resp and sats are satisfactory
CVS stable with no cardiac irrgulaity/ bleeding. Pulse and BP acceptable.
Pain and emesis controlled, suitable analgesic and antiemetic prescribed
O2 and IV prescribed

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37
Q

Main classes of drugs used in anaesthesia. MoA. How to prescribe

A

5HT antagonists e.g. Ondansetron, (Metaclopramide) - Blocks vagal afferent and central vomiting centre

Dopamine (D2) antagonist e.g. Prochloperazine, Metaclopramide (also anticholin), Domperidone - increase gastric emptying, antagonises chemoreceptor trigger zone in medulla. D2 can cause Prolactin and extrapyradimal.

H1 antagonists e.g. Cyclizine (also antimuscurinic) - motion sickness and opioid. Acts on vomiting centre

Corticosteroid e.g. dexameth (unknown MoA), not licensed for PONV, used in surgery

Prochlorperazine first line unless risk of extrapyramidal.
Cyclizine can be first line but CI in HF (low BP).
If first doesn’t work use one with different MoA.
Metoclopramide ineffective for PONV

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38
Q

Side effects cyclizine

A

sleepiness, dry mouth, constipation, and trouble with vision.[5] More serious side effects include low blood pressure and urinary retention

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39
Q

Define pain and why important to treat

A

An unpleasant experience specific to the individual assoc with actual or potental damaged and described in terms of such damage (chronic >3 months prehaps without identifiable cause)
Better pt outcomes

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40
Q

Give 3 scoring systems that can be used to assess pain

A

FACES - children
NRS - numical rating scale
FLACC - Faces, legs, activity, cry and consolability 2m-7y (0-2 for each)

41
Q

WHO pain ladder

A

Non opioids - para/NSAID
Weak opioids e.g. codeine/ tram
Strong opiods - morphine, oxycodeine, diamorphine
Intervention

Optional adjuvant at each stage

42
Q

CI for nasopharyngeal airway

A

Base of skull fractures
(good for seizures or low GCS)

bruising behind the ears, bruising around the eyes, or blood behind the ear drum.[1] A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak occurs in about 20% of cases and can result in fluid leaking from the nose or ear.[1] Meningitis

43
Q

Complication of excessure saline if oligouric

A

hyperchloraemic acidosis (relative loss of bicarb?)

44
Q

Why not dextran 70?

A

Risk of acute renal injury in sepsis

Anaphylaxis

45
Q

Difference between noiception and pain

A

Transmission of painful stimulus without consciousness
Pain requires consciousness - what the patients says

  • The perception of physical pain
  • Non conscious neural traffic originating with trauma or potential traum tissue
  • Pain is a complex, unpleasant awareness of a sensation
  • Modified by experience, expectation, immediate context, culture ect.
46
Q

stages of nociception

A
  • Tranduction – activation of nociceptors
  • Transmission – replay of action potentials along nociceptive fibres to CNS
  • Modulation – by other peripheral nerve or CNS mechanism
  • Perception – where its felt interpreted by the brain.
47
Q

What and where can we effect modulation of nociception?

A
Brain
			Paacetamol opioids
			Water therapy (drinking loads of water upon waking), hypnosis, personality
		Spinal cord
			TENS - Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation for MSK pain - pads on hips
			Opioids, capsaicin (chilli), LA
		Periphery
NSAIDs, LA
48
Q

Cautions paracetamol

A

Caution in liver failure and <50kg

49
Q

Paracetamol metabolism

A

Phase 2 normally

Some does phase 1 to NAPQI

50
Q

Cautions and CI NSAIDs

A

Cauting in renal failure, bleedig, fluid retention, bronchospas, (10% of asthmatics), Gi disturbance

51
Q

MoA/ Side effects of COX pathways

A

COX 1 - lining of stomach and clotting

COX 2 - Pain fever and inflammation

52
Q

Strength and use of codeine

A
Variable metab (CYP)
		Resp dep
		Constipation
		Available IV
10x less potent than morphine
53
Q

Strength of tramadol, MoA, CI

A

x 5-10 times less potent than morphine
Oral, IM IV
Inhibits Na and 5HT reiptake - interact with SSRI and TCA
Lowers seizure threshold - epilepsy

54
Q

Strength and use of remifentanil

A

Can be used as TIVA

Remifentanil is approximately twice as potent as fentanyl, and 100-200 times as potent as morphine.

55
Q

Strength and use of fentanyl

A
Longer lasting in higher doses
		Can be spinal or epidural
		Patches and lozenges for chronic pain
		Onset in 3.5mins
80 to 100 times more potent than morphine
56
Q

Strength and use of alfentanyl

A

Short term pain relief e.g. Manipulation of fractures
Obtunds (dulls) the stimulation of laryngoscopy
Sedation or analgesia in theatre
Al -fentanyl faster onset than fentanyl
Stays in fat and gives side effects including delayed depression
It is an analogue offentanylwith around 1/4 to 1/10 the potency of fentanyl and around 1/3 of the duration of action, but with an onset of effects 4x faster than fentany (10-25x morphine?)

57
Q

Strength and use of morphine

A

Used as reference
Titrate to avoid ADRs
Morphine 6 glucoronide is metabolite which is 13 times more potent
Oromorph is not controlled

58
Q

Strength and use of diamorphine

A

Prodrug
2-4 times more potent than morphine
More lipid soluble

59
Q

Weaker opiods

A

Oromorph - 50% 1st pass so need x2

Oxycodone, Oxynorm

60
Q

What is allergy to opioids? How to get around this?

A

True allergy is rare (often insensitivity)
If insensitive:
Titrate
Pre administed anti emetic drug
Give antihistamines
IN true allergy uyse RA and LA, Para and NSAIDs, Entonox, antispasmodics

61
Q

Give the adjuncts

A
Clonidine - a2 adrenergic agonist and imidazoline receptor agonist
		Spinal or IV
	Ket
	LA infusion
		Regional, wound, IV
	Gabapentin
	Midazolam, Diazepam
Chloral hydrate - enhances GABA
62
Q

What is EMLA?

A

EMLA - Eutectic mixture of LA (procaine/ lidocaine)

63
Q

Describe central neuroaxial methods of anaesthesia

A
Epidural
		LA into extradural space 
		Last 5 days as an epidural catheter is inserted
		Full paralysis?
	Spinal anaesthetic
		LA Into CSF surrounding spinal cord
Lasts 2-3 hours
64
Q

Describe PCA

A
50mg morphine/ 50ml saline syringe, computer controlled
1mg bolus given
5 min lockout
Plasma levels vary less
Higher satisfaction scores
65
Q

Definition of anaesthesia vs analgesia

A

Anaesthesia - without sensation (still feel pain)

Analgesia - without pain

66
Q

Artery in danger with laproscopic drains and surgical drains

A

INferior epigastric artery

67
Q

Difference between group and save and crossmatch

A

A group and save is the sample processing
• It consists of a blood group and an antibody screen to determine the patients group and whether or
not they have atypical red cell antibodies in their blood. If atypical antibodies are present the
laboratory will do additional work to identify them
Department of Clinical Haematology
H.91 Page 2 of 3 March 2015
V1.0 Transfusion Laboratory FAQ’s
Authorised by: Julie Staves
This is a controlled document and therefore must not be changed
• A crossmatch is when the laboratory actually provides red cells products for the patient. It is not
possible for the lab

Cross match (total 1-2 hours)

electronic cross match only if negative Ab screen (takes 1 hour total, including G&H)
serological cross match of patients plasma with donor cells if positive Ab screen (takes 2 hours total)

68
Q

When to group and save and when to cross match

A

GS low chance of transfusion e.g. Hysterectomy (simple), appendicectomy, thyroidectomy, elective lower segment caesarean section, laparoscopic cholecystectomy

Cross match 2 units if likely Salpingectomy for ruptured ectopic pregnancy, total hip replacement

Crossmatch 4-6units if definite chance Total gastrectomy, oophorectomy, oesophagectomy
Elective AAA repair, cystectomy, hepatectomy

69
Q

THree phases of an operation according to the WHO checklist

A

1) Before the induction of anaesthesia (sign in)
2) Before the incision of the skin (time out)
3) Before the patient leaves the operating room (sign out).

70
Q

Who checklist prior to induction

A

Patient has confirmed: Site, identity, procedure, consent
Site is marked
Anaesthesia safety check completed
Pulse oximeter is on patient and functioning
Does the patient have a known allergy?
Is there a difficult airway/aspiration risk?
Is there a risk of > 500ml blood loss (7ml/kg in children)?

71
Q

Main stages of wound healing

A

Haemostasis - minutes to hours, vasospasm, platelet plug and clot
Inflammation - days 1-5, neutrophils, GFs, fibroblasts, clot substritution, matrix regen
Regeneration - Platelet derived GF, fibroblasts and epithelial cells are stimulates, angiogenesis - granulation tissue
Remodelling - 6 weeks to 1 year

72
Q

What are hypertrophic scars

A
Excessive collagen
Nodules
Randomly arranged fibrils within
Confined to wound
From a full thickness dermal injury
May lead to contracture
73
Q

What are keloid scars

A
Excessive collagen
Beyond boudarie
No nodule
May be trivial injury
Do not regress and may recur if removed
74
Q

Drugs which impair wound healing

A

DMARDs
NSAIDs
Steroids
Anti neoplastic drugs

75
Q

How to reduce adhesions?

A

Laproscopic

76
Q

What guage is the pink cannula?

A

20G

77
Q

How are Hickman lines inserted and removed

A

Most Hickman lines are inserted under local anaesthesia with image guidance. They have a cuff that usually becomes integrated with the surrounding tissues. This requires a brief dissection during line removal.

into internal JUg VEin and tunneled under skin

78
Q

How are central lines inserted

A

nsertion is more difficult and most operators and NICE advocate the use of ultra sound. Coagulopathies may lead to haemorrhage following iatrogenic arterial injury. Femoral lines are easier to insert and iatrogenic injuries easier to manage in this site however they are prone to high infection rates. Internal jugular route is preferred. They have multiple lumens allowing for administration of multiple infusions. The lumens are relatively narrow and thus they do not allow particularly rapid rates of infusion.

79
Q

Management of post op ileus

A

Post-operative ileus is a common complication in colorectal surgery due to intra-operative bowel handling. Management is conservative with nasogastric tube insertion for stomach decompression for symptom control and placing the patient nil by mouth to allow bowel rest. The recommencement of fluids/light diet should be in stages and guided by the clinical state of the patient.

80
Q

RFs for urinary retention

A

removal of urinary catheter, constipation, immobility, opiate analgesia, infection, haematuria and benign prostatic hyperplasia

81
Q

What is Pseudocholinesterase

A

Pseudocholinesterase deficiency (also known as suxamethonium apnoea) is a rare abnormality in the production of plasma cholinesterases. This leads to an increased duration of action of muscle relaxants used in anaesthesia, such as suxamethonium. Respiratory arrest is inevitable unless the patient can be mechanically ventilated safely while waiting for the circulating muscle relaxants to degrade.

82
Q

Side effects of an epidural

A

Hypotension/ brady (loss of symp)
Loss of badder control (catheter always placed)
pruitis
Headaches
Sickness
Resp depression (diaphragm and intercostal muscles)

Epidural analgesia typically involves using the opiates fentanyl or sufentanil, with bupivacaine or one of its congeners

Side effects common to opiods

Bupivacaine has caused several deaths by cardiac arrest when epidural anaesthetic has been accidentally inserted into a vein instead of the epidural space. Causes excitation followe by depression if IV.

83
Q

What is Post operative cognitive disorder

A

Elderly
Short term decline in cognitive function, especially memory and executive function that may last from a few days to a few weeks after surgery

> 60 risk of long term cognitive damage

84
Q

What factors may contribute to POCD

A

Drugs

  • Midazolam
  • Sedative
  • Alc cessation
  • Substance abuse

Infection

  • UTI
  • Advanced cancer
  • Organ failure
  • Substance abuse

Hypoxia
- Decreased cerebral perfusion

Other
- Dehydration and nutritional status
Age
Dementia/ stroke/ parkinsons

Just as likely under regional than GA
More likely under major ops
MOre likely with high alcohol
Higher ASA
Lower educational level
HIstory of strokw
MCI, 
Cardiac surgery
85
Q

How can POCD be avoided or minimised

A
Avoid hypoxia - monitoring
Social contacts
Day-night rhythm
Early discharge 
Nutritional status and hydration
86
Q

Who can gain surgical consent

A
  1. The doctor carrying out the proposed procedure or investigation.
  2. Another doctor or health professional provided that they have been
    suitably trained, have sufficient knowledge of the proposed procedure
    and understand the risks associated.
87
Q

Describe two criteria for the mental capacity act

A

Impairment of disturbed functioning of the mind
Patient unable to make a decision

In relation to the second question, the MCA says a person is unable to make a decision if they cannot:

understand the information relevant to the decision
retain that information
use or weigh up that information as part of the process of making the decision
Communicate it

Situation and time specific not patient specific

88
Q

What is a Kocher incision

A

This is a right subcostal or Kocher incision. This is commonly used for
open liver or gallbladder surgery. When access to the left lobe of the
liver is required, a right subcostal incision is combined with a left
subcostal incision and the two joined at the xiphoid. This incision is
referred to as a rooftop incision.

89
Q

Describe lobes of the liver

A

Caudate = posterioir and superior
Quadrate = posterior and inferior
Left and right lobes

90
Q

What is an upper midline laparotomy

A

This shows an upper midline laparotomy. This is used for access to the
upper abdominal organs. In emergency situations when access to all
four quadrants of the abdomen is required, a full midline laparotomy is
employed, extending the incision above and below the umbilicus for a
suitable distance.

91
Q

What is a full midline lapaotomy

A

This shows an upper midline laparotomy. This is used for access to the
upper abdominal organs. In emergency situations when access to all
four quadrants of the abdomen is required, a full midline laparotomy is
employed, extending the incision above and below the umbilicus for a
suitable distance.

92
Q

What is a Lanz incision

A

This is a Lanz incision and is commonly used for open appendicectomy.

93
Q

When is a paramedian incision used

A

Not frequently - sometimes right to avoid awkward full midline when looking for pathology

94
Q

What is a Pfannenstiel incision?

A

This shows a Pfannenstiel incision. This is commonly emplyed for
gynaecological surgery (Caesarean section, hysterectomy) because the
incision is hidden below a female’s bikini line.

95
Q

How to describe an abdomen

A

Inspection – is the patient comfortable, distressed, obviously
distended, dehydrated, jaundiced, anaemic? Is there evidence of
previous surgery?
ii) Palpation – is there tenderness, guarding, rigidity, the presence of
any organomegaly or masses.
iii) Percussion – is the abdomen tympanitic (resonant percussion note
throughout which occurs with gaseous distention of the large bowel
in obstruction or with free intraperitoneal air in perforation)? Is there
dullness in the flanks suggesting free fluid or ascites
iv) Auscultation – are there bowel sounds present?
Additional tests – shifting dullness, groin / inguinoscrotal
examination, pelvic examination (rectal and or vaginal).

96
Q

Things to hear on auscalation

A

are there bowel sounds present? Bowel sounds are
frequently absent in the presence of peritonitis or for the first few
days after surgery (ileus). Are they normal in frequency? Bowel
sounds become more frequent in the presence of intestinal
obstruction. In small bowel obstruction, they have a high pitched,
tinkling character (akin to a small volume of liquid being shaken in a
bottle). In gastric outlet obstruction, a gastric succusion splash may
be audible. To elicit this, a stethoscope is placed in the left upper
quadrant and patient is gently shaken from side to side. Make sure
you explain this test to the patient beforehand.
v) Additional tests – shifting dullness, groin / inguinoscrotal

97
Q

Complications of appendicectomy

A

A laparoscopic appendectomy has a shorter hospital stay, shorter recovery time, and lower infection rates.
Bleeding

Wound infection

(peritonitis)

Blocked bowels

Abcess (pus filled bowel) needing drainage

98
Q

Complications of bowel resection

A

Excessive bleeding
Wound infection
Incisional hernia