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NBDHE March 2021 > Performing Periodontal Procedures > Flashcards

Performing Periodontal Procedures Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The therapeutic end point of periodontal debridement is
    A restoration of gingival health.

B creation of nonretentive root surfaces.

C removal of detectable biofilm and calculus.

D use of a chemotherapeutic agent.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 185). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

A restoration of gingival health.

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2
Q
  1. When performing periodontal debridement procedures on multirooted tooth surfaces, it is recommended that each root be instrumented as a separate tooth. The use of longer-shanked, miniature-bladed, area-specific curettes is helpful in accessing these surfaces.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The second statement is true, and the first statement is false.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 185). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

A Both statements are true.

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3
Q
  1. Frequent periodontal debridement of subgingival root surfaces for the purpose of removing biofilm is important for the treatment of periodontal disease because most subgingival biofilm is not easily reached during patient self-care.
    A Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.

C The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.

D NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 185). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

A Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

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4
Q
  1. Each of the following is a common response to successful periodontal debridement EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A Reduced probing depth

B Reduction of tissue swelling

C Formation of new alveolar bone

D Formation of a long junctional epithelium

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 186). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

C Formation of new alveolar bone

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5
Q
  1. The “gross scale” technique of removing only the large deposits of supragingival calculus at the first appointment is no longer recommended because of the potential problems from incomplete calculus removal.
    A Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.

C The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.

D NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 186). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

A Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following instruments is designed for removal of fine deposit in a deep, narrow pocket on the distal root surface of tooth #27?
    A 15/16 Gracey curette

B 6/7 anterior sickle scaler

C 3/7 Hirschfeld periodontal file

D 13/14 micro-miniature Gracey curette

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 186). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

D 13/14 micro-miniature Gracey curette

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7
Q
  1. Chronic periodontitis may be either localized or generalized. The disease progresses continuously over time.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 186). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

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8
Q
  1. Phase I of periodontal therapy, or the etiologic phase, includes each of the following procedures EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A Biofilm control

B Occlusal therapy

C Patient education

D Endodontic therapy

E Periodontal debridement

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 186). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

D Endodontic therapy

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9
Q
  1. The severity of periodontal disease is most accurately measured over time by
    A caries rate.

B probing depths.

C gingival bleeding.

D clinical attachment loss.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 186). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

D clinical attachment loss.

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an underlying objective of periodontal maintenance?
    A Control of inflammation

B Maintenance of alveolar bone height

C Preservation of clinical attachment levels

D Reduction of periodontal maintenance intervals

E Evaluation and reinforcement of patient oral hygiene

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 186). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

D Reduction of periodontal maintenance intervals

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11
Q
  1. Probing depth is usually equal to clinical attachment loss. Periodontal surgery is most successful when treating periodontal pockets with probing depths of 5 to 9 mm.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 186). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

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12
Q
  1. Periodontal surgery is not indicated for patients under 30 years old who present with pocket depths exceeding 5 mm and loss of half of their supporting bone because they likely have a slowly progressing form of periodontal disease.
    A Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.

C The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.

D NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 186). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

D NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is the preferred form of excisional surgery for the treatment of drug-induced gingival enlargement?
    A Ostectomy

B Gingivectomy

C Periodontal flap

D Guided tissue regeneration

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 186). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

B Gingivectomy

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14
Q
  1. The goal of periodontal flap procedures is
    A access to root surface.

B guided tissue regeneration.

C improvement of osseous defects.

D pocket reduction by apical repositioning.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 186). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

A access to root surface.

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is a contraindication to osseous recontouring?
    A Reverse alveolar bone architecture

B Bone defect too deep to allow removal of osseous walls

C Thick bony ledges interfering with gingival flap procedures

D Periodontal pockets that extend below the level of the osseous crest

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 186). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

B Bone defect too deep to allow removal of osseous walls

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16
Q
  1. The surgical procedure which only involves removal of bony ledges or nonsupporting bone is called
    A ostectomy.

B osteoplasty.

C apicoectomy.

D gingivectomy.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 187). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

B osteoplasty.

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17
Q
  1. The type of periodontal bone grafting created from synthetic bone minerals is a/an
    A allograft.

B alloplast.

C autograft.

D xenograft.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 187). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

B alloplast.

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18
Q
  1. Lasers are considered an adjunct therapy for removal of soft tissue within the periodontal pocket. The Er:YAG laser has been shown to be safe for use around implants.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 187). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

A Both statements are true.

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19
Q
  1. Evaluating mobility is a critical tool in assessment of implant success. Probing is a less useful assessment tool in evaluating implant success.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 187). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

A Both statements are true.

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20
Q
  1. Professionally placed controlled-release local drug delivery is indicated for deep pockets and nonresponsive sites because it routinely provides superior results in reducing pocket depths and attachment levels compared with periodontal debridement.
    A Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.

C The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.

D NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 187). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

C The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following regions of the dentition has the narrowest width of attached gingiva?
    A Maxillary molars

B Maxillary incisors

C Mandibular molars

D Maxillary premolars

E Mandibular premolars

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 187). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

E Mandibular premolars

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following types of tissue makes up the outer layer of gingival tissue?
    A Cuboidal cell epithelial

B Dense regular connective

C Dense irregular connective

D Simple squamous epithelial

E Stratified squamous epithelial

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 187). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

E Stratified squamous epithelial

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23
Q
  1. Crevicular fluid increases its flows in the gingival sulcus during gingival health. It decreases in flow in the presence of plaque biofilm and inflammation.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 187). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

B Both statements are false.

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24
Q
  1. Crevicular fluid increases its flows in the gingival sulcus during gingival health. It decreases in flow in the presence of plaque biofilm and inflammation.

A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

A

B Both statements are false.

Both statements are false (B). There are very small amounts of crevicular fluid found in the sulcus during gingival health. As plaque biofilm accumulates and inflammation develops, the flow of gingival crevicular fluid increases. Choices A, C, and D do not correctly reflect the statements.

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25
Q
  1. Each of the following is a function of the periodontal ligament EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A Supports the tooth in alveolar bone

B Stimulates formation of secondary dentin

C Transmits sensations of touch and pressure

D Provides nutrition to bone and cementum

E Provides regeneration for cementum and bone

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 187). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

B Stimulates formation of secondary dentin

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26
Q
  1. Order the steps (from first to last) in the spread of inflammation seen with vertical bone loss. Match each letter with its appropriate number.
  2. _____ A. Alveolar bone
  3. _____ B. Gingival connective tissue
  4. _____ C. Periodontal ligament (PDL) space

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 187). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

ANS: 1B, 2C, 3A

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27
Q
  1. There is a greater prevalence and severity of periodontal disease among the female population in the United States than among the male population. A person in his or her 60s is at greater risk for periodontal disease than an individual in his or her 40s.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 188). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following are local contributing factors for periodontal disease? (Select all that apply.)
    A Smoking

B Medications

C Biofilm growth

D Faulty restorations

E Tooth concavities

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 188). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

C Biofilm growth

D Faulty restorations

E Tooth concavities

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29
Q

For each numbered component of the immune system listed, select the function that most closely matches it from the list provided. Not all functions will be used.

  1. B-lymphocyte
  2. Polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs)
  3. T-lymphocytes
  4. Immunoglobulins
  5. Macrophage
  6. Complement system

A. First white blood cell at site of injury; begins phagocytosis; releases cytokines and lysosomes

B. Neutralizes bacterial toxins; activates complement system; coats bacteria for phagocytosis

C. Generates chemotaxis; activates lysis of cell membrane and phagocytosis; recruits phagocytic cells

D. Produces plasma cells, which produce immunoglobulins; make antibodies; destroy antigens

E. Stimulates production of prostaglandins

F. Second inflammatory cell to arrive; ingests and digests microorganisms; releases cytokines, prostaglandins, and lysosomes

G. Further stimulates immune response; secretes cytokines and kills infected cells

H. Proteins that regulate cell activity

A
  • 1D. Produces plasma cells, which produce immunoglobulins; make antibodies; destroy antigens
  • 2A. First white blood cell at site of injury; begins phagocytosis; releases cytokines and lysosomes
  • 3G. Further stimulates immune response; secretes cytokines and kills infected cells
  • 4B. Neutralizes bacterial toxins; activates complement system; coats bacteria for phagocytosis
  • 5F. Second inflammatory cell to arrive; ingests and digests microorganisms; releases cytokines, prostaglandins, and lysosomes
  • 6C. Generates chemotaxis; activates lysis of cell membrane and phagocytosis; recruits phagocytic cells
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30
Q
  1. All the following describe the plaque biofilm overgrowth phase of early gingivitis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A Cytokines are released.

B Osteoclasts are activated.

C Polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs) are recruited by cytokines.

D Macrophages are recruited to connective tissue.

E PMNs (neutrophils) destroy healthy gingival connective tissue.

Mosby. Mosby’s Review Questions for the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (p. 188). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

A

B Osteoclasts are activated.

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31
Q
  1. Which systemic risk factor for periodontitis is characterized by a gradual onset, an inadequate supply of insulin, or the inability to use produced insulin effectively?
    A Leukemia

B Osteoporosis

C Type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM)

D Type 2 diabetes mellitus

E Gestational diabetes mellitus

A

D Type 2 diabetes mellitus

32
Q
  1. A person with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes mellitus is at greater risk for periodontal disease compared with a person with controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus because the uncontrolled diabetic has an impaired host response, disruption in collagen formation, and higher glucose levels in the gingival crevicular fluid.

A Both the statement and reason are correct and related.

B Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.

C The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.

D The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.

A

A Both the statement and reason are correct and related.

33
Q
  1. Smoking affects the periodontium in all the following ways EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A Increased bone loss

B Increased tissue fibrosis

C Decreased bleeding response

D Decreased plaque accumulation

E Decreased inflammatory response

A

D Decreased plaque accumulation

34
Q
  1. Your patient presents with gingival redness, inflammation, bleeding, sensitivity, and tenderness. There is visible plaque biofilm at the gingival margin. There is no bone loss indicated on dental images. This individual most likely has
    A chronic periodontitis.

B healthy gingival tissue.

C aggressive periodontitis.

D gingivitis associated with an allergic reaction.

E gingivitis associated with dental plaque biofilm.

A

E gingivitis associated with dental plaque biofilm.

35
Q
  1. Rapid periodontal destruction, including bone loss, tissue necrosis, severe pain, tissue sloughing, spontaneous bleeding, and fiery red erythematous tissue, all describe which of the following conditions?
    A Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

B Gingivitis induced by malnutrition

C Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

D Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP)

A

D Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP)

36
Q

____ 1. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A. Developmental delay; small head; hyperelasticity of skin; weak muscle tone; short philtrum; vaulted palate; prominent maxillary central incisors

B. Pale-colored hair, eyes, and skin; neutrophil chemotactic defect; early tooth loss in both dentitions; high risk for fatal bacterial infection; extractions recommended to decrease dental infections

C. Disorders that affect the bone marrow and neutrophil levels; possible severe bone and tooth loss; possible early exfoliation of deciduous teeth; permanent teeth exfoliation as soon as they erupt

D. Inherited disorder of severe chronic neutropenia; severe bone and tooth loss resulting in exfoliation on deciduous and permanent teeth

E. Hyperkeratosis of palms of hands and soles of feet (palmoplantar keratoderma); severe periodontal defects; bone and tooth loss; all primary teeth by age 5 years; all permanent teeth by age 15 years

F. Additional chromosome 21; mild to moderate retardation; severe early-onset aggressive periodontitis; generalized heavy plaque; deep pocketing; gingival inflammation

G. Problem with storage of carbohydrates as glycogen;

A

C. Disorders that affect the bone marrow and neutrophil levels; possible severe bone and tooth loss; possible early exfoliation of deciduous teeth; permanent teeth exfoliation as soon as they erupt

37
Q

____ 2. Papillon-Lefévre syndrome

A. Developmental delay; small head; hyperelasticity of skin; weak muscle tone; short philtrum; vaulted palate; prominent maxillary central incisors

B. Pale-colored hair, eyes, and skin; neutrophil chemotactic defect; early tooth loss in both dentitions; high risk for fatal bacterial infection; extractions recommended to decrease dental infections

C. Disorders that affect the bone marrow and neutrophil levels; possible severe bone and tooth loss; possible early exfoliation of deciduous teeth; permanent teeth exfoliation as soon as they erupt

D. Inherited disorder of severe chronic neutropenia; severe bone and tooth loss resulting in exfoliation on deciduous and permanent teeth

E. Hyperkeratosis of palms of hands and soles of feet (palmoplantar keratoderma); severe periodontal defects; bone and tooth loss; all primary teeth by age 5 years; all permanent teeth by age 15 years

F. Additional chromosome 21; mild to moderate retardation; severe early-onset aggressive periodontitis; generalized heavy plaque; deep pocketing; gingival inflammation

G. Problem with storage of carbohydrates as glycogen;

A

E. Hyperkeratosis of palms of hands and soles of feet (palmoplantar keratoderma); severe periodontal defects; bone and tooth loss; all primary teeth by age 5 years; all permanent teeth by age 15 years

38
Q

____ 3. Cohen syndrome

A. Developmental delay; small head; hyperelasticity of skin; weak muscle tone; short philtrum; vaulted palate; prominent maxillary central incisors

B. Pale-colored hair, eyes, and skin; neutrophil chemotactic defect; early tooth loss in both dentitions; high risk for fatal bacterial infection; extractions recommended to decrease dental infections

C. Disorders that affect the bone marrow and neutrophil levels; possible severe bone and tooth loss; possible early exfoliation of deciduous teeth; permanent teeth exfoliation as soon as they erupt

D. Inherited disorder of severe chronic neutropenia; severe bone and tooth loss resulting in exfoliation on deciduous and permanent teeth

E. Hyperkeratosis of palms of hands and soles of feet (palmoplantar keratoderma); severe periodontal defects; bone and tooth loss; all primary teeth by age 5 years; all permanent teeth by age 15 years

F. Additional chromosome 21; mild to moderate retardation; severe early-onset aggressive periodontitis; generalized heavy plaque; deep pocketing; gingival inflammation

G. Problem with storage of carbohydrates as glycogen;

A

A. Developmental delay; small head; hyperelasticity of skin; weak muscle tone; short philtrum; vaulted palate; prominent maxillary central incisors

39
Q

____ 4. Chediak-Higashi syndrome

A. Developmental delay; small head; hyperelasticity of skin; weak muscle tone; short philtrum; vaulted palate; prominent maxillary central incisors

B. Pale-colored hair, eyes, and skin; neutrophil chemotactic defect; early tooth loss in both dentitions; high risk for fatal bacterial infection; extractions recommended to decrease dental infections

C. Disorders that affect the bone marrow and neutrophil levels; possible severe bone and tooth loss; possible early exfoliation of deciduous teeth; permanent teeth exfoliation as soon as they erupt

D. Inherited disorder of severe chronic neutropenia; severe bone and tooth loss resulting in exfoliation on deciduous and permanent teeth

E. Hyperkeratosis of palms of hands and soles of feet (palmoplantar keratoderma); severe periodontal defects; bone and tooth loss; all primary teeth by age 5 years; all permanent teeth by age 15 years

F. Additional chromosome 21; mild to moderate retardation; severe early-onset aggressive periodontitis; generalized heavy plaque; deep pocketing; gingival inflammation

G. Problem with storage of carbohydrates as glycogen;

A

B. Pale-colored hair, eyes, and skin; neutrophil chemotactic defect; early tooth loss in both dentitions; high risk for fatal bacterial infection; extractions recommended to decrease dental infections

40
Q

____ 5. Down syndrome

A. Developmental delay; small head; hyperelasticity of skin; weak muscle tone; short philtrum; vaulted palate; prominent maxillary central incisors

B. Pale-colored hair, eyes, and skin; neutrophil chemotactic defect; early tooth loss in both dentitions; high risk for fatal bacterial infection; extractions recommended to decrease dental infections

C. Disorders that affect the bone marrow and neutrophil levels; possible severe bone and tooth loss; possible early exfoliation of deciduous teeth; permanent teeth exfoliation as soon as they erupt

D. Inherited disorder of severe chronic neutropenia; severe bone and tooth loss resulting in exfoliation on deciduous and permanent teeth

E. Hyperkeratosis of palms of hands and soles of feet (palmoplantar keratoderma); severe periodontal defects; bone and tooth loss; all primary teeth by age 5 years; all permanent teeth by age 15 years

F. Additional chromosome 21; mild to moderate retardation; severe early-onset aggressive periodontitis; generalized heavy plaque; deep pocketing; gingival inflammation

G. Problem with storage of carbohydrates as glycogen;

A

F. Additional chromosome 21; mild to moderate retardation; severe early-onset aggressive periodontitis; generalized heavy plaque; deep pocketing; gingival inflammation

41
Q

____ 6. Cyclic neutropenia

A. Developmental delay; small head; hyperelasticity of skin; weak muscle tone; short philtrum; vaulted palate; prominent maxillary central incisors

B. Pale-colored hair, eyes, and skin; neutrophil chemotactic defect; early tooth loss in both dentitions; high risk for fatal bacterial infection; extractions recommended to decrease dental infections

C. Disorders that affect the bone marrow and neutrophil levels; possible severe bone and tooth loss; possible early exfoliation of deciduous teeth; permanent teeth exfoliation as soon as they erupt

D. Inherited disorder of severe chronic neutropenia; severe bone and tooth loss resulting in exfoliation on deciduous and permanent teeth

E. Hyperkeratosis of palms of hands and soles of feet (palmoplantar keratoderma); severe periodontal defects; bone and tooth loss; all primary teeth by age 5 years; all permanent teeth by age 15 years

F. Additional chromosome 21; mild to moderate retardation; severe early-onset aggressive periodontitis; generalized heavy plaque; deep pocketing; gingival inflammation

G. Problem with storage of carbohydrates as glycogen;

A

D. Inherited disorder of severe chronic neutropenia; severe bone and tooth loss resulting in exfoliation on deciduous and permanent teeth

42
Q

____ 7. Glycogen storage disorder

A. Developmental delay; small head; hyperelasticity of skin; weak muscle tone; short philtrum; vaulted palate; prominent maxillary central incisors

B. Pale-colored hair, eyes, and skin; neutrophil chemotactic defect; early tooth loss in both dentitions; high risk for fatal bacterial infection; extractions recommended to decrease dental infections

C. Disorders that affect the bone marrow and neutrophil levels; possible severe bone and tooth loss; possible early exfoliation of deciduous teeth; permanent teeth exfoliation as soon as they erupt

D. Inherited disorder of severe chronic neutropenia; severe bone and tooth loss resulting in exfoliation on deciduous and permanent teeth

E. Hyperkeratosis of palms of hands and soles of feet (palmoplantar keratoderma); severe periodontal defects; bone and tooth loss; all primary teeth by age 5 years; all permanent teeth by age 15 years

F. Additional chromosome 21; mild to moderate retardation; severe early-onset aggressive periodontitis; generalized heavy plaque; deep pocketing; gingival inflammation

G. Problem with storage of carbohydrates as glycogen;

A

G. Problem with storage of carbohydrates as glycogen;

43
Q
  1. Periodontal disease is associated with coronary heart disease, diabetes mellitus, preeclampsia, hospital-acquired pneumonia, and some types of cancer. Association indicates causation.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

A

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

The first statement is true, and the second statement is false (C). Although a relationship has been established between periodontal disease and coronary heart disease, diabetes mellitus, preeclampsia, hospital-acquired pneumonia, and some types of cancer, correlation does not always mean causation. Choices A, B, and D do not correctly reflect the statements.

44
Q
  1. Which of the following nutrients is MOST critical for wound healing and collagen formation in the periodontium?
    A Calcium

B Protein

C Vitamin D

D Vitamin C

E Antioxidant

A

D Vitamin C

45
Q
  1. Order the five phases of therapy in the periodontal treatment plan. Match each letter with its proper sequence number.
  2. ______A.Surgical
  3. ______B.Restorative
  4. ______C.Nonsurgical periodontal
  5. ______D.Periodontal maintenance
  6. ______E.Assessment and preliminary
A

1E.Assessment and preliminary

2C.Nonsurgical periodontal

3A.Surgical

4B.Restorative

5D.Periodontal maintenance

46
Q
  1. Periodontal debridement is beneficial for each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A Allergic gingivitis

B Chronic periodontitis

C Aggressive periodontitis

D Dental plaque–induced gingivitis

E Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP)

A

A Allergic gingivitis

Periodontal debridement is not beneficial for treatment of allergic gingivitis (A), which has an immunologic, rather than oral biofilm, etiology. Periodontal debridement is a recommended part of the treatment plan for all of the other gingival and periodontal diseases: chronic periodontitis (B), aggressive periodontitis (C), dental plaque–induced gingivitis (D), and NUP (E). Although referral to a periodontist and periodontal surgery may be indicated for patients with chronic periodontitis (B), aggressive periodontitis (C) and NUP (E), these individuals will usually undergo periodontal debridement as the first step of their treatment prior to surgery.

47
Q
  1. Most cases of halitosis originate in the oral cavity. Pyridine has been identified as the leading cause of halitosis.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

A

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

The first statement is true, and the second statement is false (C). Most cases of halitosis originate in the oral cavity. Although pyridine is a causative agent of halitosis (oral malodor), the volatile sulfur compounds (mainly hydrogen sulfide and methylmercaptan) are the main causative agents. Oral malodor occurs when sulfur containing amino acids are broken down by anaerobic bacteria and form a noxious gas.

48
Q
  1. Tetracyclines are bacteriocidal. They are broad-spectrum antibiotics that affect gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

A

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

The first statement is false, and the second statement is true (D). Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic, not bacteriocidal, slowing, rather than killing, the harmful bacteria. Tetracyclines are broad-spectrum antibiotics that affect gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria; they slow bacterial growth and proliferation to allow the host’s immune response to respond. Choices A, B, and C do not correctly reflect the statements.

49
Q
  1. The reestablishment of junctional epithelium after periodontal debridement occurs within
    A 1–2 weeks.

B 4–6 weeks.

C 6–8 weeks.

D 24–48 hours.

E 48–64 hours.

A

A 1–2 weeks.

50
Q
  1. All the following are characteristics of chronic periodontitis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A Periodontal disease is communicable.

B Prevalence and severity increases with age.

C Chronic periodontitis is the most common form of periodontitis.

D The amount of dental biofilm is disproportionate to the amount of tissue destruction.

A

D The amount of dental biofilm is disproportionate to the amount of tissue destruction.

51
Q
  1. A patient who has previously had nonsurgical periodontal surgery returns for the 4-month periodontal maintenance appointment. The patient presents with visible plaque, increased pocket depth and clinical attachment loss, inflammation with exudate, and bleeding on probing in the maxillary right molar region. There is also some evidence of increased bone loss on dental images. All other areas have remained stable. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
    A Localized periodontal surgery

B Evaluation of the patient’s systemic condition

C Increasing the number of periodontal maintenance appointments

D Decreasing the number of periodontal maintenance appointments

E Localized nonsurgical periodontal therapy

A

E Localized nonsurgical periodontal therapy

52
Q
  1. The maintenance interval schedule for the first year after the placement of an implant is
    A 1 month.

B 3 months.

C 4 months.

D 6 months.

A

B 3 months.

53
Q
  1. Which gram-negative, nonmotile pathogen is found in small numbers in the healthy periodontium and in large numbers in recurrent disease sites with deep periodontal pockets?
    A Tannerella forsythia

B Treponema denticola

C Porphyromonas gingivalis

D Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans

A

C Porphyromonas gingivalis

54
Q
  1. Dentinal sensitivity can only be managed with the use of fluoride toothpaste because the sensitivity is more often related to root caries than exposure of root surfaces.
    A Both the statement and reason are correct and related.

B Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.

C The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.

D The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.

E NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

A

E NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct (E). Sensitivity is most often related to exposure of root surfaces, since root caries are usually painless. Choices A, B, C, and D do not correctly reflect the statement and the reason.

55
Q
  1. Periodontal disease is almost always preceded by gingivitis. Gingivitis almost always leads to periodontal disease.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

A

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

The first statement is true, and the second statement is false (C). Although gingivitis is usually the first stage of periodontal disease, it is reversible and does not always lead to periodontal disease. Choices A, B, and D do not correctly reflect the statements.

56
Q
  1. To determine immediate success of scaling and root planning, the clinician must rely on
    A tactile evaluation.

B visual examination.

C microscopic evaluation.

D radiographic evaluation.

A

A tactile evaluation.

57
Q
  1. Order the healing events after treatment for gingivitis. Match each letter with its proper sequence number.
  2. ______A.Stippling reappears.
  3. ______B.Collagen is deposited.
  4. ______C.Clinical probing depth is reduced.
  5. ______D.Tissues return to normal coloration.
  6. ______E.Inflammatory cells are replaced by fibroblasts.
  7. ______F.Collagen fibers become functionally oriented.
A

1E.Inflammatory cells are replaced by fibroblasts.

2B.Collagen is deposited.

3F.Collagen fibers become functionally oriented.

4C.Clinical probing depth is reduced.

5D.Tissues return to normal coloration.

6A.Stippling reappears.

58
Q
  1. The most common form of gingivitis is plaque-induced gingivitis. The most common symptoms of the disease are pain and bleeding.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

A

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

The first statement is true, and the second statement is false (C). Plaque-induced gingivitis is the most common form of gingivitis and is known to affect almost all adults by the age of 50 years. The most common symptoms are bleeding, changes in gingival contours, and redness. Pain is rarely associated with this disease. Choices A, B, and D do not correctly reflect

59
Q
  1. From the following list, select the three items that characterize gingivitis.
    A Bone loss

B Degree of inflammation

C Clinical attachment loss

D Localized or generalized involvement

E Location in marginal or papillary tissues

A

B Degree of inflammation

D Localized or generalized involvement

E Location in marginal or papillary tissues

60
Q
  1. Systemic factors may modify the patient’s reaction to plaque biofilm. The patient’s reaction to plaque biofilm may be caused by alterations in the immune system caused by stress, endocrine-related changes, and drug-induced changes.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

A

A Both statements are true.

61
Q
  1. Pregnancy gingivitis is a condition that occurs because the elevation of female hormones cause exaggerated cellular and vascular proliferation, and microvessel leakage in response to oral biofilm. Pregnancy gingivitis is an unavoidable outcome of pregnancy.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

A

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

The first statement is true, and the second statement is false (C). Pregnancy gingivitis is a common condition caused by increased inflammatory response to oral biofilm with increasing hormone levels, and it is exacerbated by poor oral hygiene. This condition is manageable with good oral hygiene at home and regular dental hygiene visits, although it may not resolve completely until after delivery. Choices A, B, and D do not correctly reflect the statements.

62
Q
  1. From the following list, select the three items that are characteristic of the contents of the inflamed periodontal pocket.
    A Osteoclastic cells

B Increased collagen fibers

C Increased gingival crevicular fluid

D Bacteria, both in biofilm and planktonic motile forms

E Purulent exudate made up of dead cells and serum products

A

C Increased gingival crevicular fluid

D Bacteria, both in biofilm and planktonic motile forms

E Purulent exudate made up of dead cells and serum products

63
Q
  1. Periodontal disease activity is
    A episodic.

B continuous.

C site specific.

D episodic and site specific.

E continuous and site specific.

A

D episodic and site specific.

64
Q
  1. Bleeding on probing is a sign of active periodontal disease. Bleeding sites are indicative of increasing bone loss and soft tissue destruction.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

A

B Both statements are false.

Both statements are false (B). Bleeding does indicate active inflammatory changes in tissue, but it does not indicate that the site or sites that are bleeding are experiencing active tissue destruction. The important corollary is that sites that do NOT bleed are not undergoing active tissue destruction. Therefore, bleeding is an important indicator of inflammation but is not a marker of active disease. Choices A, C, and D do not correctly reflect the statements.

65
Q
  1. Chronic periodontal disease is consistent with the amount of oral biofilm found in the mouth, including the presence of subgingival calculus. Chronic periodontitis progresses at a slow rate, with short bursts of disease progression.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

A

A Both statements are true.

66
Q
  1. Clinical characteristics such as the rate of bone loss and age of onset are the most reliable distinguishing features between aggressive periodontal disease and chronic periodontal disease because both conditions present with a similar bacterial microflora.
    A Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related.

C The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.

D The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.

E NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

A

A Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

67
Q
  1. After periodontal surgery, all of the following postoperative instructions should be given EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A Eat a soft diet.

B Smoking is permitted.

C Limit physical activity.

D Use light pressure to control any seepage of blood.

A

B Smoking is permitted.

68
Q
  1. Which of the following BEST describes the progress of surgical wound healing at the 1-week postoperative visit?
    A The wound is completely healed.

B The wound is completely reepithelialized.

C The wound has complete bone regeneration.

D The wound has complete connective tissue regeneration.

A

B The wound is completely reepithelialized.

69
Q
  1. Which of the following is the earliest period after surgery when it is safe to probe the surgical site?
    A 1 week

B 2 weeks

C 3 weeks

D 4 weeks

E 6 weeks

A

D 4 weeks

70
Q
  1. In the first few days after periodontal surgery, the dental hygienist is likely to see all of the following clinical signs or symptoms in the periodontal patient EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A Mobility

B New caries

C Root sensitivity

D Larger spaces between teeth

A

B New caries

71
Q
  1. The MOST common type of implant used in clinical dentistry is the
    A blade implant.

B transosteal implant.

C endosseous implant.

D subperiosteal implant.

A

C endosseous implant.

72
Q
  1. The formation of an intimate lattice between the implant surface and bone is referred to as
    A ankylosis.

B ossification.

C mineralization.

D osseointegration.

A
73
Q
  1. Plaque biofilm and calculus removal for dental implants should be performed with
    A plastic instruments.

B ultrasonic instruments.

C stainless steel hand instruments.

D polishing cup and regular prophy paste.

A

A plastic instruments.

74
Q
  1. Home care for patients with implants is very important because they require the same cleaning aids as do patients with natural teeth.
    A Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related.

C The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.

D The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.

E NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

A

C The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.

75
Q
  1. Maintenance visits for implant patients should occur every 3 months during the first year. After the first year, recall intervals may be extended to 4 to 6 months if the gingival health is good and home care is excellent.
    A Both statements are true.

B Both statements are false.

C The first statement is true, and the second is false.

D The first statement is false, and the second is true.

A

A Both statements are true.

76
Q
  1. Implant-supported removable prostheses should be removed at home daily by patients because the supporting abutments need to be cleaned thoroughly with soft toothbrushes, single-tufted toothbrushes, and other devices, as needed.
    A Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related.

C The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.

D The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.

E NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

A

A Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

77
Q
A

NBDHE March 2021 (15 decks)

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