Performance Based Navigation Recurrent A v4.0 Flashcards

1
Q

PBN

A

Performance Based Navigation

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2
Q

For PBN, both the ___________ and the _______ must be qualified for the particular Navigation Specifications required for operation in the defined airspace.

A

Aircraft, crew

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3
Q

What are two things that RNAV describes?

A
  • Define area navigation procedures
  • Navigation system used to fly point to point
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4
Q

What are the advantages of PBN? (5 items)

A
  • More direct routing
  • Increased precision
  • Increased flexibility in waypoint location
  • Improved situational awareness
  • Improved efficiency in the cockpit
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5
Q

RNP can be thought of as a more fully featured version of __________

A

RNAV

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6
Q

The key difference between RNP and RNAV is what?

A

The requirement for onboard performance monitoring and alerting in RNP systems.

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7
Q

TSE

A

Total System Error

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8
Q

TSE system error is made up of what three things?

A

Path Definition Error (PDE)
Flight Technical Error (FTE)
Navigation System Error (NSE)

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9
Q

When does UNABLE RNP alert message show?

A

EPU exceeds twice the RNP

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10
Q

SBAS

A

Satellite Based Augmentation System

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11
Q

GBAS

A

Ground Based Augmentation System

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12
Q

What is GBAS used for?

A

Category I, II, III precision approaches

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13
Q

INS/IRS

A

Inertial Navigation System/Inertial Reference System

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14
Q

What are two types of RNAV waypoints?

A

Fly-By and Fly-Over

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15
Q

What is the range of the CDI in each of the following instances: Enroute, Terminal, Approach

A

Enroute- 5 nm
Terminal- 1 nm
Approach- .3 nm

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16
Q

When might a GPS system switch in TERMINAL mode?

A

When you are within 30 nm of the airport.

17
Q

FDE

A

Fault Detection and Exclusion

18
Q

RAIM

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

19
Q

When comparing the FMS courses and distances to the charted procedure, flight crews may notice slight differences because of…

A

Magnetic Variation

20
Q

You must complete the following three steps for every RNAV DP you load into the FMS:

A
  • Load the procedure
  • Enter the departure runway
  • Enter the transition
21
Q

When departing on a RNAV-1 Departure of Arrival procedure, do you have to use autopilot?

A

YES

22
Q

What is the difference between RNAV-1 and RNAV-2 routes?

A

RNAV-1 requires a total system error of not more than 1 NM for 95% of the total flight time. RNAV-2 requires a total system error of not more than 2 NM for 95% of the total flight time.

23
Q

_____________ are high altitude RNAV-2 airways. The routing is independent of ground-based navaids.

A

Q-Routes

24
Q

Where are RNAV 10 routes?

A

Oceanic routes

25
Q

What altitudes do you find T Routes?

A

1200 feet AGL to 18000 feet MSL

26
Q

Q-routes are RNAV procedures in _____________

A

the high altitude structure

27
Q

Where would you find B-RNAV or RNAV-5 routes?

A

In europe

28
Q

Where would you find B-RNAV or RNAV-5 routes? What is the track accuracy of the B-RNAV route?

A

In Europe, +/- 5 NM

29
Q

Why do RNP-10 and RNP-4 require dual LRNS?

A

Because they are used in Class II oceanic airspace and there are no ground-based navigation facilities available for backup

30
Q

RNP-10, what does the “10” mean?

A

The 10 means that the system must produce a TSE within +/- 10 NM 95% of the time.

31
Q

OPD

A

Optimized Profile Descent

32
Q

FlightStar does not have Ops Spec C085 authorization, what does this mean?

A

It means that a crew can not use the FMS to fly an ground based instrument approach (NDB, VOR), when the ground based equipment is not operational

33
Q

CDFA

A

Continuous Descent Final Approach

34
Q

If you have been cleared for the RNAV but don’t have RAIM, you are not allowed to continue past the _________ __________ ______ (three words)

A

Final approach fix

35
Q

In a Terminal Arrival Area (TAA), how much obstacle and terrain clearance is provided?

A

1000 feet of obstacle and terrain clearance is provided

36
Q

If an approach says “authorization required” is FlightStar allowed to do it?

A

No, because FlightStar does not have Ops Spec C384 authorization.