Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Sgt test > Penal codes, rights, procedures > Flashcards

Penal codes, rights, procedures Flashcards

1
Q

PC 26150

A

License to carry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PC 626.9

A

Gun free school zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PC 26100(a) felony

A

driver allows loaded firearm in a vehicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PC 26100(b) felony

A

Driver allows someone to discharge firearm from a vehicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PC 26100 (c) felon

A

shoot at a person from a vehicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PC 25800(a)

A

carry a loaded firearm with intent to commit a felony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PC 25850 (a) wobbler

A

loaded firearm in public (person or vehicle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PC 25300(a)

A

carry a firearm in public while masked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PC 22610

A

possession of a stun gun by folon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PC 22810

A

possession of tear gas by felon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PC 29900

A

Felon in possession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

PC 29800

A

felon that is narc addict in possession of gun

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PC 26350(a)(1) misdo

A

open carrying an unloaded firearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PC 18250(a)

A

Taking firearms during DV incident/arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PC 25400

A

Concealed Firearms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PC 29805

A

10 year firearm prohibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PC 25850

A

carryig a loaded firearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

PC 25200

A

firearm accessed by child taken to school

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PC 30310

A

carrying ammo onto school grounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PC 25100

A

storage of firearm (keep away from kids other people)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cvc 22651 (B)

A

parked or left standing on a roadway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cvc 22651(c)

A

recovered stolen vehicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cvc 22651 (d)

A

blocking a private driveway impractival to move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cvc 22651 (e)

A

E for emergency/ blocking a fire hydrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

cvc 22651 (G)

A

g-gone/ incapacitated person and vehicle left on road

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cvc 22651(h)

A

in custody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cvc 22651 (k)

A

left on road for more than 72hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

cvc 22651(o)

A

reg exp over 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

cvc 22651 (P)

A

p-pedestrian 12500 or 14601

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

cvc 14302.6

A

30 day impound/ arrest impound tow authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

1st amendment

A

freedom of speech, religion, press, assembly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

2nd amendment

A

right to bear arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

3rd amendment

A

no quartering of soldiers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

4th amendment

A

search and seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

5th amendment

A

double jeopardy, self incrimination, due process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

6th amendment

A

right to speedy trial by jury, witnesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

7th amendment

A

right to a trial by jury in common-law/civil cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

8th amendment

A

excessive fines, cruel and unusual pnishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

9th amendment

A

the enumeration of rights in the constitution won’t be used against the people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

10th amendment

A

reserved powers to the states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

11th amendment

A

States are protected from being sued by citizens of another state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

14th amendment

A

right to life, liberty, property and must have due process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

CA Govt. Code 3300 may be cited as the:

A

Peace officer’s bill of rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

No public safety officer shall be prohibited from seeking election to or serving as a member of the governing board of a school district. T or F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

All questions directed to the public safety officer under interrogation shall be asked and through no more than _____ interrogatiors at one time.

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The public safety officer under investigation shall not be informed of the nature of the investigation prior to interrogation. T or F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

If prior to or during interrogation of an officer it is deemed that he may be charged with a criminal offense he shall immediately be informed of his constitutional rights. T or F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A public safety officer shall have ____ days within which to file a written response to adverse

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The ____ court shall have initial jurisdiction over any proceedings brought by a public safety officer, against any public safety department for alleged violations of this action.

A

Superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

All public safety officers shall be required to submit a disclosure of financial status yearly.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

No public safety officer shall be compelled to submit to a ____ against his will.

A

Polygraph examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The interrogation of an officer shall be conducted at a _____ hours, unless the seriousness of the investigation requires otherwise.

A

Reasonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Punitive acton as defined by POBR includes?

A

-reduction in salary
-written reprimands
-oral reprimands…verbal counselings do not count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Under CA Govt code ____ except as otherwise provided by law or whenever on duty or in uniform no officer shall be prohibited from or coerced/required to engage in political activity.

A

3302

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Solicitation and servicing of union insurance and benefit programs shall not interrupt on-duty employees nor shall it be conducted in county facilities w/o prior approval of the county. T or F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When a union rep arrives at a fcility they do not need to notify the person in charge. T or F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The union receives how much release at the beginning of each quarter? jan, april, july, oct

A

520 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Union officers and representatives shall be the only employees eligible to utilize the bank of release time. T or F

A

Ture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

the union president or designee shall provide ___ notice to the union officers and reps appointing authority prior to the utilization of release time.

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The union president or designee shall provide ___ notice to the magazine editor and three committee person appointing authority prior to the utilization of release time.

A

72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

It is recognized that the union owes the same fair impartial responsibility to all employees whether or not they are union members. T or F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

If the union violates the “no strike provison” the county can immediately cease ____ until the union ceases the violation.

A

all payroll deductions of any kind on behalf of the union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The ___ shall continue to exercise authority over classification of jobs and procedures and standards and the selection of employement and promotions.

A

Civil services commission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

No lockout of employees shall be instituted by the county during the term of this agreement.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

If a work boycott or stoppage of work occurs the union would say what?

A

Notify all members to cease and desist from the activity and return to normal work duties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The county cannot do what by way of union memberships/participation?

A

Interfere, descriminate, discourage memberships, encourage memberships in any other organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Grievances- the grievance initially shall be discussed with the immediate supervisor. a union rep may be present to represent the employee. a supervisor has five days to give his decision. T or F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

In 1974 CA passed its first law providing protection from harassment/discrimination in employment due to:

A

-age
-ancestry
-color
-creed
-denial of family and medical care leave
-disability including HIV/AIDS
-marital status
-medical conditions
-origin, race, religion, sex, sex orientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Fair Employment and Housing Act (FEHA is California’s version of what?

A

ADA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

California’s FEHA has been amended to provide significantly broader protections to employees with disabilities. T or F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

no proof of insureacne

A

cvc 16028(a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

registration in vehicle

A

4454a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

false tabs

A

4462.5

74
Q

correct tabs required month and year

A

5204

75
Q

change of address to DMV within 10 days

A

14600(a)

76
Q

allowing an unlicensed driver to drove

A

14604

77
Q

suspended license for reckless

A

14601(a)

78
Q

suspended license for DUI

A

14601.2(a)

79
Q

recless driving

A

23103(a)

80
Q

yield to right and stop for emergency vehicles

A

21806(a)(!)

81
Q

child restraints 8 years and 4’9” below

A

27360

82
Q

tinted windows

A

26708

83
Q

U-turn at fire station

A

22104

84
Q

unsafe lane change

A

21658

85
Q

litter on highway

A

23112

86
Q

defective windshield

A

26710

87
Q

loud radio

A

27007

88
Q

searbelts driver and passengers 16 or older

A

27315

89
Q

throw an item at a vehicle

A

23110

90
Q

stop sign

A

22450

91
Q

exhibition/ speed contest

A

23109(c) /23109(a)

92
Q

failure to dim highbeams

A

24409

93
Q

throw cigarette

A

23111

94
Q

red light

A

21453

95
Q

provisional license

A

12814.6

96
Q

drive without lights

A

24250

97
Q

impeding traffic

A

22400

98
Q

Sections 26746 and 26750 of the Govt Code authorizes a processing fee for each disbursement of moneys collected under a writ of execution. this is known as a ?

A

a tucker fee

99
Q

For the purpose of this GO 16/10, a BB pellet gun will be considered a firearm. T or F

A

False

100
Q

Firearms held for evidence will only be released under what conditions:

A

A) the case has been adjudicated
B) authorization from the DA
C) Authorization from the investigating officers supervisor
D) authorization from the courts
E) by statutory law
F) all of the above*

101
Q

What is the penal code for booking firearms for safekeeping at a DV incident?

A

PC 18250 previously 12028.5

102
Q

Firearms booked for safekeeping in DV incidents shall be made available to the owner___ after the seizure, but no later than____? think: cooling off period

A

48-72 hours

103
Q

A firearm booked for safekeeping under PC 18250 can be held up to 30 days. T or F

A

true - if noted by the officer on the property form

104
Q

What code section allows the confiscation of a firearm of a person who has a mental disorder or 5150

A

W & I 8102

105
Q

What must you write in the “Authority and Section” of the Firearms Property Form to permanently confiscate a weapon from a person with a mental disorder or 5150?

A

W&I 8102 petition

106
Q

If you confiscate a weapon from a person who has a mental disorder/5150, and you choose to allow the firearm to be released back to the individual, you must write ______ in the “Authority and Sectiooon” box fo the firearms property form

A

W &I 8102 release

107
Q

After how many days can a firearm be claimed if it was confiscated from a mental disordered/5150 person

A

30 days

108
Q

If a lawful owner of a weapon cannot be found, when shall it be disposed of?

A

180 days

109
Q

What must a firearm have to be converted to department use?

A

A serial number

110
Q

the records Bureau manager or designated records Bureau Personnel shall have the delegated responsibility for approving criteria for the release of Sacramento County Sheriff’s Department report copies from Field Services station houses and service centers. T or F

A

True

111
Q

eport copies shall not be released to the insurance company of a suspect or arrestee or to private investigators or attorneys. T or F

A

True (they get a copy from DA through the discovery process)

112
Q

the release of information regarding juvenile suspects, victims, and witnesses requires an order of the Juvenile court. T or F

A

True

113
Q

GO 7/02 - News Media Policy - public information and communication is a basic responsibility of management personnel. T or F

A

True

114
Q

employees can be compelled to respond to the media. T or F

A

false

115
Q

employees are prohibited from making comments to the media on:

A

A) investigations by IA
B) litigations involving Department employees
C) investigations conducted by other agencies regarding Department employees
D) cases referred to the DA’s office for prosecution
E) cases being actively investigated by other agencies
F) all of the above*

116
Q

Personnel responding to Media inquiries and/or making press releases, shall advise the office of information by the next regular business day. T or F

A

True

117
Q

during non-business hours, the media shall have access to copies of arrest reports kept on file in the main jail classification booking area. T or F

A

True

118
Q

when authorized to provide information to the news media, do not release:

A

A) any personal information of a juvenile
B) contents of a suspects confession
C) identity of witnesses
D) prior criminal record of suspect
E) personal opinion concerning guilt or Innocence, or plea possibilities
F) all of the above*

119
Q

GO 7/04 (Notification Requirements) - The Communications Sergeant will notify the appropriate personnel on incidents involving:

A

A) shooting incident involving injury or death
B) shooting incident non-injury
C) death or potentially life-threatening or disabling injury to a department employee
D) Duty related vehicular accident
E) death of in custody prisoner or inmate
F) arrest of Department employees or well-known public figures
G) all of the above*

120
Q

when any Department employee is notified that another employee has suffered a serious injury, and that information is not widely known within the department, that employee shall make the initial notification to the communications sergeant. T or F

A

True

121
Q

GO 7/08 - Megan’s Law - California doj has categorized registered sex offenders into which categories

A

A) serious sex offenders
B) high risk
D) other registered sex offenders
E) A, B, and D*

122
Q

Disclosure under Megans law is allowed only as to:

A

A) serious sex offenders
B) High risk sex offenders

E) only A and B*

123
Q

an applicant who requests to view the megans law cd-rom must be:

A

B) 18 years old*

124
Q

A viewing time of the megans law CD of 15 minutes may be enforced:

A

True

125
Q

Disclosure of information to the public regarding serious and high risk sex offenders may include:

A

A) offenders name
B) offenders date of birth

E) Only A and B*

126
Q

GO 8/03 - How long are the court liaison telephone recording tapes kept for?

A

30 days

127
Q

after appearing at juvenile hall for a juvenile case you shall have the da Prosecuting the case sign and verify the hours of appearance on the subpoena. T or F

A

True

128
Q

GO 10/05 (Admin Messages) - all administrative messages are routed to the master printer log for subsequent monitoring or system activity. T or F

A

True

129
Q

AM’s are subject to FCC regulations. T or F

A

True

130
Q

profanity is encouraged in AM’s. T or F

A

false

131
Q

am’s, other than for specific business-related communications essential to the mission of this department, are expressly prohibited. T or F

A

true

132
Q

all Communications records including printed logs are subject to subpoena, and are, in fact, reviewed by outside agencies and entered into court records. T or F

A

True

133
Q

less essential am’s can bog down the system to a point that other essential am’s and other traffic cannot be transmitted. T or F

A

True

134
Q

what will the communications Bureau Commander do to monitor am’s?

A

A) review a random sample of the master printer log
B) a minimum of at least six hours (2 days 2 swings 2 morning) shall be reviewed each month
C) forward a random sample to the sheriff/undersheriff each month. D) All of the above*

135
Q

while off-duty, you may only use your portable radio under the following conditions:

A

A) while working an off-duty job
B) while present at a vehicle accident, fire, critical incident where emergency services are needed/not aware
C) while observing crimes in progress that compels immediate involvement
D)all of the above*

136
Q

GO 10/08 - all programs, data and emails on Department computers or network shall be the property of the sheriff’s department and may be reviewed at any time with or without further notice to the employee. T or F

A

True

137
Q

employees may not send bulk emails unless its directly related to their specific Department job duties. Bulk email is defined as email sent to______ recipients

A

A) 2 or more*

138
Q

GO 11/01 - how many days do you have to notify the department of a change of address, phone number, or emergency contact data

A

A) 5*

139
Q

if you choose you may use the Department’s address and telephone number as your personal address. T or F

A

false. *exception: only when completing a DRA, OSHA, or casualty report

140
Q

GO 1102 - Voluntary Employee Assistance Program - The EAP is available at no cost to the employee. T or F

A

True

141
Q

who is eligible to receive EAP services?

A

a) full-time employees
b) part-time employees working a minimum of 20 hours a week
c) employees spouse or children
d) employee spouse children who are under 19 and not married
e) employees spouse children who are under 19 entirely supported by employee and reside at home
f) all of the above*

142
Q

he EAP shall be coordinated through_____

A

B) employee relations officer*

143
Q

the eap offers each eligible employee and immediate family members _____ hours of personal counseling per year at no charge

A

6

144
Q

Sacramento County offers, at no charge, an employee assistance program designed to assist all County Employees to overcome alcohol/drug abuse. T or F

A

True

145
Q

any accident involving a County vehicle that results in property damage and/or personal injury in which a County vehicle operator failed to exercise every reasonable precaution to prevent the accident is a

A

D) preventable accident*

146
Q

an operational damage incident includes damage to a County vehicle which results from:

A

A) a deliberate act by a non County Driver
B) a deliberate act for enforcement purposes
C) when a County vehicle operator is in control of the vehicle and an unavoidable object or condition causes damage to the vehicle
D) when a County vehicle operator is not in control of the vehicle at the time of damage occurs (ie parked cars)
E) all of the above**

147
Q

when the County vehicle makes physical contact with another object and no property damage and/or personal injury occurred as a result of this contact, it is best defined as:

A

C) Drivers Incident*

148
Q

all other vehicle accidents not falling in the three categories fall under “non-preventable”. T or F

A

True

149
Q

what report must be completed with a county employee is involved in an accident with a county vehicle

A

C) Drivers Report of Accident*

150
Q

A supervisor must investigate the accident and submit an IDC within_____ to the Watch Commander

A

B) 2 weeks*

151
Q

The Watch Commander preparers in IDC to the division Commander summarizing the investigation and including preliminary recommendations as to the cause of the accident within_______ days

A

B) 5 days*

152
Q

division Commander reviews the package and forwards it to the accident review board via the TRPD secretary within _____ days

A

B) 5 days*

153
Q

if a preventable finding is recommended the employee is to be noticed and allowed ______days to submit a written rebuttal directly to the division Commander

A

A) 5*

154
Q

who makes a recommendation as to the cause of the accident?

A

A) accident review board*

155
Q

during code 3 driving, red lights and Sirens must be activated as reasonably necessary. T or F

A

True

156
Q

during Pursuit driving, red lights and siren must be activated as reasonably necessary. T or F

A

false, all the time

157
Q

you must immediately voice (not mdt) you are in code 3 status unless the air is cleared. T or F

A

True

158
Q

you shall voice if you are reducing your status from code 3 driving. T or F

A

True

159
Q

Sheriff’s vehicles are authorized to provide code 3 escorts. T or F

A

false

160
Q

what vehicle code defines an emergency vehicle and their exemptions from the rules of the road when in code 3 status?

A

A) cvc 21055*

161
Q

what vehicle code does not relieve the driver from driving with due regard to Public Safety

A

B) cvc 21056*

162
Q

how many Sheriff’s units shall be in code 3 status in a Pursuit?

A

3, two patrol, one supervisor

163
Q

“trailing” or “paralleling” a pursuit in code 3 status is authorized with supervisory approval. T or F

A

True

164
Q

If an unmarked unit initiates a pursuit, they shall relinquish their role as primary unit as soon as marked units arrive and can safely take over the pursuit. T or F

A

True

165
Q

an unmarked unit should drop out of a pursuit when two marked units arrive. T or F

A

True

166
Q

a pursuit report shall be forwarded to the division commander within _______

A

A) 24 hrs*

167
Q

which of the following is not a factor to consider when initiating or continuing a Pursuit

A

A) traffic in the area
B) location, speed, and time of day
C) weather and road conditions
D) all are factors

168
Q

which of the following is not a responsibility of the primary unit when initiating a Pursuit?

A

C) monitor other units transmissions*

169
Q

when air support assists with a Pursuit what is their primary responsibility?

A

A) Communications*

170
Q

field supervisors may direct a subordinate officer to discontinue a code 3 response at any time. T or F

A

True

171
Q

What does PIT stand for?

A

Pursuit Immobilization Technique

172
Q

it is mandatory to have a supervisor’s permission prior to exercising legal intervention. T or F

A

False

173
Q

absent of exigent circumstances legal intervention should not be utilized on

A

A) buses with passengers
B) Vehicles Laden with hazardous materials
C) motorcycles

F) A, B, and C*

174
Q

officers are authorized to use Sheriff’s Vehicles as barricades and roadblocks. T or F

A

False

175
Q

tack strips and PIT are considered less lethal Force

A

True

176
Q

what is the maximum speed limit allowed for a pit maneuver?

A

35 MPH

177
Q

a pit maneuver should only be used when there is a minimum of _______ units

A

2

178
Q

only marked Patrol vehicles are authorized for a pit maneuver. T or F

A

True

179
Q

K9 vehicles are authorized for a pit maneuver. T or F

A

False

180
Q

airbags deploy at _______ into fixed objects and _______ into moving objects

A

14 mph and 28 mph

Sgt test (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions